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• bool as object vs string as object testing equality

  - by Ray Pendergraph

  I am relatively new to C# and I noticed something interesting today that I guess I have never noticed or perhaps I am missing something. Here is an NUnit test to give an example: object boolean1 = false; object booloan2 = false; Assert.That(boolean1 == booloan2); This unit test fails, but this one passes: object string1 = "string"; object string2 = "string"; Assert.That(string1 == string2); I'm not that surprised in and of itself that the first one fails seeing as boolean1 and boolean2 are different references. But it is troubling to me that the first one fails and the second one passes. I read (on MSDN somewhere) that some magic was done to the String class to facilitate this. I think my question really is why wasn't this behavior replicated in bool? As a note... if the boolean1 and 2 are declared as "bool" then there is no problem. Does anyone know the reason for these differences or why it was implemented that way? Can anyone think of a situation where you would want to reference a bool object for anything except its value?

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• InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was

  - by McN

  I got the following exception: Exception Type: System.InvalidOperationException Exception Message: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). Exception Stack: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) Exception Source: mscorlib Exception TargetSite.Name: Undo Exception HelpLink: The application is a Visual Studio 2005 (.Net 2.0) console application. It is a server for multiple TCP/IP connections, doing asynchronous socket reads and synchronous socket writes. In searching for an answer I came across this post which talks about a call to Application.Doevents() which I don't use in my code. I also found this post which has a resolution involved with Component which I also don't use in my code. The application does reference a library that I created that contains custom user controls and components, but they are not being used by the application. Question: What caused this to happen and how do I prevent this from happening again? Or a more realistic question: What does this exception actually mean? How is "context" defined in this situation? Anything that can help me understand what is going on would be very much appreciated.

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• NoSQL for filesystem storage organization and replication?

  - by wheaties

  We've been discussing design of a data warehouse strategy within our group for meeting testing, reproducibility, and data syncing requirements. One of the suggested ideas is to adapt a NoSQL approach using an existing tool rather than try to re-implement a whole lot of the same on a file system. I don't know if a NoSQL approach is even the best approach to what we're trying to accomplish but perhaps if I describe what we need/want you all can help. Most of our files are large, 50+ Gig in size, held in a proprietary, third-party format. We need to be able to access each file by a name/date/source/time/artifact combination. Essentially a key-value pair style look-up. When we query for a file, we don't want to have to load all of it into memory. They're really too large and would swamp our server. We want to be able to somehow get a reference to the file and then use a proprietary, third-party API to ingest portions of it. We want to easily add, remove, and export files from storage. We'd like to set up automatic file replication between two servers (we can write a script for this.) That is, sync the contents of one server with another. We don't need a distributed system where it only appears as if we have one server. We'd like complete replication. We also have other smaller files that have a tree type relationship with the Big files. One file's content will point to the next and so on, and so on. It's not a "spoked wheel," it's a full blown tree. We'd prefer a Python, C or C++ API to work with a system like this but most of us are experienced with a variety of languages. We don't mind as long as it works, gets the job done, and saves us time. What you think? Is there something out there like this?

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• Xcode: Display Login View in applicationDidBecomeActive

  - by Patrick

  In my app I would like to show a login screen - which will be displayed when the app starts and when the app becomes active. For reference, I am using storyboards, ARC and it is a tabbed bar application. First off, I have this method which returns the topViewController. - (UIViewController *)topViewController:(UIViewController *)rootViewController { if (rootViewController.presentedViewController == nil) { return rootViewController; } if ([rootViewController.presentedViewController isMemberOfClass:[UINavigationController class]]) { UINavigationController *navigationController = (UINavigationController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; UIViewController *lastViewController = [[navigationController viewControllers] lastObject]; return [self topViewController:lastViewController]; } UIViewController *presentedViewController = (UIViewController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; return [self topViewController:presentedViewController]; } And I call this method here: - (void)applicationDidBecomeActive:(UIApplication *)application { if ( ... ) { // if the user needs to login PasswordViewController *passwordView = [[PasswordViewController alloc] init]; UIViewController *myView = [self topViewController:self.window.rootViewController]; [myView presentModalViewController:passwordView animated:NO]; } } To an extent this does work - I can call a method in viewDidAppear which shows an alert view to allow the user to log in. However, this is undesirable and I would like to have a login text box and other ui elements. If I do not call my login method, nothing happens and the screen stays black, even though I have put a label and other elements on the view. Does anyone know a way to resolve this? My passcode view is embedded in a Navigation Controller, but is detached from the main storyboard.

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• Using complex where clause in NHibernate mapping layer

  - by JLevett

  I've used where clauses previously in the mapping layer to prevent certain records from ever getting into my application at the lowest level possible. (Mainly to prevent having to re-write lots of lines of code to filter out the unwanted records) These have been simple, one column queries, like so this.Where("Invisible = 0"); However a scenario has appeared which requires the use of an exists sql query. exists (select ep_.Id from [Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4 In the above case I would usually reference the parent table Event with a short name, i.e. event_.Id however as Nhibernate generates these short names dynamically it's impossible to know what it's going to be. So instead I tried using just Id, from above ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId When the code is run, because of the dynamic short names the EventPart table short name ep_ is has another short name prefixed to it, event0_.ep_ where event0_ refers to the parent table. This causes an SQL error because of the . in between event0_ and ep_ So in my EventMap I have the following this.Where("(exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4)"); but when it's generated it creates this select cast(count(*) as INT) as col_0_0_ from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].Event event0_ where (exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart event0_.ep_ where event0_.Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4) It has correctly added the event0_ to the Id Was the mapping layer where clause built to handle this and if so where am I going wrong?

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• Seeding many to many tables with Entity Framework

  - by Doozer1979

  I have a meeting entity and a users entity which have a many to many relationship. I'm using Autopoco to create seed data for the Users and meetings How do i seed the UserMeetings linking table that is created by EntityFramework with seed data? The linking table has two fields in it; User_Id, and Meeting_ID. I'm looping through the list of users that autopoco creates and attaching a random number of meetings Here's what i've got so far. foreach (var user in userList) { var rand = new Random(); var amountOfMeetingsToAdd = rand.Next(1, 300); for (var i = 0; i <= amountOfMeetingsToAdd; i++) { var randomMeeting = rand.Next(1, MeetingRecords); //Error occurs on This line user.Meetings.Add(_meetings[randomMeeting]); } } I got an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object.' even though the meeting record that i'm trying to attach does exist. For info all this is happening prior to me saving the context to the DB.

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• How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

  - by BenA

  I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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• [C#] Three System.Drawing methods manifest slow drawing or flickery: Solutions? or Other Options?

  - by Luke Mcneice

  Hi all, I am doing a little graphing via the System.Drawing and im having a few problems. I'm holding data in a Queue and i'm drawing(graphing) out that data onto three picture boxes this method fills the picture box then scrolls the graph across. so not to draw on top of the previous drawings (and graduly looking messier) i found 2 solutions to draw the graph. Call plot.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) before the draw loop [block commented] although this causes a flicker to appear from the time it takes to do the actual drawing loop. call plot.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); just before each drawline [commented] although this causes the drawing to start ok then slow down very quickly to a crawl as if a wait command had been placed before the draw command. Here is the Code for reference: /*plotx.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) ploty.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) plotz.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR)*/ for (int j = 1; j < 599; j++) { if (j > RealTimeBuffer.Count - 1) break; QueueEntity past = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j - 1); QueueEntity current = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j); if (j == 1) { //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); } //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[0], j - 1, (((past.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[1], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //plotz.DrawLine(markerPen, j, 140, j, 0); plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[2], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94), j, (((current.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94)); } Is there any tricks to avoid these overheads? If not would there be any other/better solutions?

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• jQuery: one-liner for removing all children but one

  - by user1352530

  HTML code is: <li> <a href="#" /> <ul> <li> <a href="#"/> </li> </ul> </li> I want to delete any node under $(this) = li that is not a link. If there are more than one link, just the first one is saved, and if there are links inside the ul tag, they are not included because they are descendants and no childrens. Something like this (I am cloning and outputting html): $(this).clone().remove('not(a:first)').html(); //Assuming remove looks for "a" as a first child Does not work, so I try with this: $(this).clone().children().remove('not(a:first)').parent().html(); Does not work so I try with this: $(this).clone().remove('not(>a:first)').html(); I need the original element as a reference after removal for chaining more operations EDIT: Ok! Second one works with a little syntax correction as some appointed (:not( instead of not() but I would like to know if there is any other solution similar to the third line so I don't have to do children().remove().parent(). Thank you!

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• Netbeans 6.1 Incorrect CVS Status on a file that does not exist

  - by Coder

  Hi, I have been trying to figure this out for a few hours off and on now and can't figure it out. I committed a lot of binary (jar files) to cvs and they worked fine, but one of the 6 directories, netbeans thinks has a file that it keeps trying to commit, but it doesn't actually exist in the file system. There is also another file in the same directory that i did commit, and netbeans cvs status says that it's an unknown file, but when i delete the directory and check it out, it shows up fine, but netbeans can't get the correct cvs status for the file. I looked in the repository and all looks fine. There is only one file present as it should be. Looking at the CVS directory in the checkout folder also reveals nothing suspicious. I don't know what to do about this. I don't know why netbeans thinks there is a file in that directory that is not actually there. I did a search in my working directory and my netbeans project directory for any file containing a reference to this file but there is nothing.

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• Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

  - by Andrzej Doyle

  Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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• Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

  - by David Stratton

  Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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• How To Deal With Exceptions In Large Code Bases

  - by peter

  Hi All, I have a large C# code base. It seems quite buggy at times, and I was wondering if there is a quick way to improve finding and diagnosing issues that are occuring on client PCs. The most pressing issue is that exceptions occur in the software, are caught, and even reported through to me. The problem is that by the time they are caught the original cause of the exception is lost. I.e. If an exception was caught in a specific method, but that method calls 20 other methods, and those methods each call 20 other methods. You get the picture, a null reference exception is impossible to figure out, especially if it occured on a client machine. I have currently found some places where I think errors are more likely to occur and wrapped these directly in their own try catch blocks. Is that the only solution? I could be here a long time. I don't care that the exception will bring down the current process (it is just a thread anyway - not the main application), but I care that the exceptions come back and don't help with troubleshooting. Any ideas? I am well aware that I am probably asking a question which sounds silly, and may not have a straightforward answer. All the same some discussion would be good.

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• Weak hashmap with weak references to the values?

  - by Razor Storm

  I am building an android app where each entity has a bitmap that represents its sprite. However, each entity can be be duplicated (there might be 3 copies of entity asdf for example). One approach is to load all the sprites upfront, and then put the correct sprite in the constructors of the entities. However, I want to decode the bitmaps lazily, so that the constructors of the entities will decode the bitmaps. The only problem with this is that duplicated entities will load the same bitmap twice, using 2x the memory (Or n times if the entity is created n times). To fix this, I built a SingularBitmapFactory that will store a decoded Bitmap into a hash, and if the same bitmap is asked for again, will simply return the previously hashed one instead of building a new one. Problem with this, though, is that the factory holds a copy of all bitmaps, and so won't ever get garbage collected. What's the best way to switch the hashmap to one with weakly referenced values? In otherwords, I want a structure where the values won't be GC'd if any other object holds a reference to it, but as long as no other objects refers it, then it can be GC'd.

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• How can I embed images within my application and use them in HTML control?

  - by Atara

  Is there any way I can embed the images within my exe (as resource?) and use it in generated HTML ? Here are the requirements: A. I want to show dynamic HTML content (e.g. using webBrowser control, VS 2008, VB .Net, winForm desktop application) B. I want to generate the HTML on-the-fly using XML and XSL (file1.xml or file2.xml transformed by my.xsl) C. The HTML may contain IMG tags (file1.gif and or file2.gif according to the xml+xsl transformation) and here comes the complicated one: D. All these files (file1.xml, file2.xml, my.xsl, file1.gif, file2.gif) should be embedded in one exe file. I guess the XML and XSL can be embedded resources, and I can read them as stream, but what ways do I have to reference the image within the HTML ? <IMG src="???" /> I do not want to use absolute path and external files. If the image files are resources, can I use relative path? Relative to what? (I can use BASE tag, and then what?) Can I use stream as in email messages? If so, where can I find the format I need to use? http://www.websiteoptimization.com/speed/tweak/inline-images/ are browser dependent. What is the browser used by webBrowser control? IE? what version? Does it matter if I use GIF or JPG or BMP (or any other image format) for the images? Does it matter if I use mshtml library and not the regular webBrowser control? (currently I use http://www.itwriting.com/htmleditor/index.php ) Does it matter if I upgrade to VS 2010 ? Thanks, Atara

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• Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

  - by Gary McGill

  Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

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• Is it possible to guarantee a unique id for multiple items using the same id variable at a point in

  - by Scarface

  First of all, do not be overwhelmed by the long code, I just put it for reference...I have a function that preg_replaces content and puts it in a jquery dialog box with a matching open-link. For example, if there is a paragraph with two matches, they will be put inside two divs, and a jquery dialog function will be echoed twice; one for each div. While this works for one match, if there are multiple matches, it does not. I am not sure how to distribute unique ids at a point in time for each of the divs and matching dialog open-scripts. Keep in mind, I removed the preg replace function since it kind of complicates the problem. If anyone has any ideas, they will be greatly appreciated. <?php $id=uniqid(); $id2=uniqid(); echo "<div id=\"$id2\"> </div>"; ?> $.ui.dialog.defaults.bgiframe = true; $(function() { $("<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>").dialog({hide: 'clip', modal: true ,width: 600,height: 350,position: 'center', show: 'clip',stack: true,title: 'title', minHeight: 25, minWidth: 100, autoOpen: false}); $('<?php echo"#$id"; ?>').click(function() { $('<?php echo"#$id2"; ?>').dialog('open'); }) .hover( function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-hover"); } ).mousedown(function(){ $(this).addClass("ui-state-active"); }) .mouseup(function(){ $(this).removeClass("ui-state-active"); }); });

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• What does it mean to pass a &variable to a function? E.g., string& insert ( size_t pos1, const strin

  - by Bob Montgomery

  I understand passing a pointer, and returning a pointer: char * strcat ( char * destination, const char * source ); You're passing a variable that contains the address to a char; returning the same. But what does it mean to pass something using the reference operator? Or to return it? string& insert ( size_t pos1, const string& str ); I mean, I understand what actually happens, I just don't understand the notation. Why isn't the notation this instead: string * insert ( size_t pos1, const string * str ); //made up I presume it has something to do with passing/returning the instance of a class, but what? Is this syntax valid; if not why not and if so what does it mean? char & strcat ( char & destination, const char & source ); //made up (all of the function declarations, except the last made-up two, are from http://www.cplusplus.com )

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• How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

  - by Ankur

  I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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• Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

  - by Django Reinhardt

  I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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• TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

  - by Alan G.

  I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

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• How do I override a python import?

  - by Evan Plaice

  So I'm working on pypreprocessor which is a preprocessor that takes c-style directives and I've been able to make it work like a traditional preprocessor (it's self-consuming and executes postprocessed code on-the-fly) except that it breaks library imports. The problem is. The preprocessor runs through the file, processes' it, outputs to a temp file, and exec() the temp file. Libraries that are imported need to be handled a little different because they aren't executed but rather loaded and made accessible to the caller module. What I need to be able to do is. Interrupt the import (since the preprocessor is being run in the middle of the import), load the postprocessed code as a tempModule, and replace the original import with the tempModule to trick the calling script with the import into believing that the tempModule is the original module. I have searched everywhere and so far, have no solution. This question is the closest I've seen so far to providing an answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1096216/override-namespace-in-python Here's what I have. # remove the bytecode file created by the first import os.remove(moduleName + '.pyc') # remove the first import del sys.modules[moduleName] # import the postprocessed module tmpModule = __import__(tmpModuleName) # set first module's reference to point to the preprocessed module sys.modules[moduleName] = tmpModule moduleName is the name of the original module, tmpModuleName is the name of the postprocessed code file. The strange part is, this solution still runs completely normal as if the first module completed loaded normally; unless you remove the last line, then you get a module not found error. Hopefully someone on SO know a lot more about imports than I do because this one has me stumped.

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• Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

  - by Randy

  Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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• A typical mysql query( how to use subquery column into main query)

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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• Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

  - by George Crawford

  Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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