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  • Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

    - by andrej351
    Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

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  • Preserving order when copying elements using Deliverance / XPath

    - by Jon Hadley
    How would I, using Deliverance & XPath (or CSS) selectors, select and copy list items .one and .three from each list below, but display them in the order of their parent list? <ul id="a-wrapper"> <li class="one"></li> <li class="two"></li> <li class="three"></li> <li class="four"></li> </li> <ul id="b-wrapper"> <li class="one"></li> <li class="two"></li> <li class="three"></li> <li class="four"></li> </ul> c,d,e,f,g etc.... The catch is it needs to use a href rule, eg: <prepend href="/blah/deblah" content="#x" theme="#y" /> Using the following just lists all the .one elements, then all the .three elements. <prepend href="/blah/deblah" content=".one" theme="#y" /> <prepend href="/blah/deblah" content=".three" theme="#y" />

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  • What can I read from the iPad Camera Connection Kit?

    - by HELVETICADE
    I'm building a small controller device that I'd like to partner with a computer. I've settled on using OSC out from my custom built hardware and am pretty satisfied with what I can get from WOscLib. Two goals I'd like to achieve are portability and a very ratio between battery:computing power, and this has lured me towards using iPhoneOS to accomplish my goals. I think the iPad would suit my needs perfectly, except that using wifi to broadcast OSC out from my device requires a third device and would destroy the goal of portability, whilst also introducing potential latency and stability headaches. My question is pretty simple: Can I push my OSC-out FROM my controller TO an iPad via USB and the Camera Connection Kit? If I could accomplish this, the two major goals of my project would be fulfilled very nicely. This seems like it should be a simple little question, but researching this obsessively over the past few weeks has left me more almost more uncertain than if I had done no research at all. I'd really like some more confidence before I go down this route, and it seems like it should be possible. Any insight would be very, very appreciated.

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  • Exposed onsite vs IFD deployments for MS Dynamics CRM

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I'm working for the first time on a MS Dyanmics CRM 4.0 project. Our company has a high number of remote employees and even more remote consultants. As such it will be necessary to make the CRM solution available over the internet. As near as I can tell, I have three options: Have everyone use a VPN to access an intranet site (typical onsite deployment). However, we have found that VPNs are far from trouble free and cause many support issues. We avoid them like the plague. Use IFD to expose the CRM on the internet. I don't know much about this except that the URL will be different than the onsite URL, which could cause some headaches (see below). Expose the CRM site by opening the site to the internet, using SSL to encrypt traffic. We currently do this with our MS sharepoint sites. I'm not sure how secure this would be (one of the reasons for this question). I'd like to avoid using both the onsite intranet deployment and the IFD together for a couple of reasons. One of the requests for the solution is use email to notify users that they've been assigned a task, and include the URL to the task within the email. For this reason. If both deployments are used, then I'll need to include two URLs and the user would need to know which to use. Which leads to the second reason, the main users of the solution split time between being in the office and being remote. Thus they would need to access the solution two different ways, and know when to use which. Bad. So, what are the advantages/disadvantages of any of these methods? Any other options? Is there any issue using IFD from within the intranet? Security issues? Thanks!

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  • Count the no of LI then add class to parent UL.

    - by Wazdesign
    <ul class="taglib-ratings thumbs"> <li id="qezr_yourRating"> <a href="javascript:;" class="rating rate-up "></a> </li> </ul> <ul class="taglib-ratings thumbs"> <li id="qezr_yourRating"> <a href="javascript:;" class="rating rate-up "></a> </li> <li id="qezr_yourRating"> <a href="javascript:;" class="rating rate-up "></a> </li> </ul> I want to apply the class to the UL on base of the Count of the Inner LIs. Like if it has two LI then the class should be like two-thumbs Like if it has one LI then the class should be like one-thumbs I am trying this JS but not working it returns 2 jQuery(document).ready(function(){ var countLi = $(".taglib-ratings > li").size(); alert(countLi); if(countLi == 2) { $(this).parent('.taglib-ratings').addClass('2-col'); alert ('this ul has 2 li'); } else if(countLi == 1) { $(this).parent('.taglib-ratings').addClass('2-col'); alert ('this ul has 1 li'); } else if(countLi > 2) { alert ('this ul has'+ countLi +' li'); } }); Here is the JSbin link to the same. http://jsbin.com/ofeda/edit

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  • Event feed implementation - will it scale?

    - by SlappyTheFish
    Situation: I am currently designing a feed system for a social website whereby each user has a feed of their friends' activities. I have two possible methods how to generate the feeds and I would like to ask which is best in terms of ability to scale. Events from all users are collected in one central database table, event_log. Users are paired as friends in the table friends. The RDBMS we are using is MySQL. Standard method: When a user requests their feed page, the system generates the feed by inner joining event_log with friends. The result is then cached and set to timeout after 5 minutes. Scaling is achieved by varying this timeout. Hypothesised method: A task runs in the background and for each new, unprocessed item in event_log, it creates entries in the database table user_feed pairing that event with all of the users who are friends with the user who initiated the event. One table row pairs one event with one user. The problems with the standard method are well known – what if a lot of people's caches expire at the same time? The solution also does not scale well – the brief is for feeds to update as close to real-time as possible The hypothesised solution in my eyes seems much better; all processing is done offline so no user waits for a page to generate and there are no joins so database tables can be sharded across physical machines. However, if a user has 100,000 friends and creates 20 events in one session, then that results in inserting 2,000,000 rows into the database. Question: The question boils down to two points: Is this worst-case scenario mentioned above problematic, i.e. does table size have an impact on MySQL performance and are there any issues with this mass inserting of data for each event? Is there anything else I have missed?

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  • Determining when stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished

    - by alku83
    I have a UIWebView which loads up an HTML page. This page has two buttons on it, say Exit and Submit. I don't want users to be able to click the Exit button, so once the page has finished loading (ie. webViewDidFinishLoad is called), I use stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString to remove one of these buttons, by manipulating the HTML. I also disable user interaction on the UIWebView on webViewDidStartLoad, and enable it again on webViewDidFinishLoad. The problem I am finding is that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString takes a second or two to complete, and it seems to be done in it's own thread. So what is happening is that webViewDidFinishLoad is called, user interaction is enabled on the UIWebView, and if the user is quick, they can click the Exit button before stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString has finished. As stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString seems to be on it's own thread with no way to know when it's finished (it doesnt call webViewDidFinishLoad), the only way to completely prevent users from tapping the Exit button that I can see is to only enable user interaction on the UIWebView after some delay, which is unreliable (how can I really know how long to delay for?). Am I correct in that stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is done on it's on thread, and I have no way of being able to tell when it's finished? Any other suggestions for how to get around this problem? EDIT: In short, what I want to know is if it is possible to disable a UIWebView while stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString is executing, and re-enable the UIWebView when the javascript is finished. EDIT 2: There's an article here which seems to imply you can somehow poll the JS engine to see when it's finished, but I can't find any other references saying the same thing: http://drnicwilliams.com/2008/11/10/to-webkit-or-not-to-webkit-within-your-iphone-app/ EDIT 3 Based on the answer from Brad Smith, it seems that I actually need to know when the UIWebView has finished loading itself after the javascript has executed. It's looking more and more like I just need to put a delay of sorts in there.

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  • What's the best way to format this simple HTML form using CSS?

    - by GregH
    I have have a simple HTML form with say four input widgets (see below)...two lines with two widgets on each line. However, when this renders it is pretty ugly. I want the whole form to be indented from the edge of the left page say 40px and I want the left edge of the widgets to line up with each other and the right edge of the labels to line up. I also want to be able to specify a minimum distance between the right edge of the first widget and the label of the widget next to it. How would I do this using CSS? Basically so it looks something like: Name: _____________ Common Names: _____________ Version: ____________ Status: ____________ See current un-formatted HTML below: <form name="detailData"> <div id="dataEntryForm"> <label> Name: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddName"/> Common Names: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddCommonNames"><P> Version: <input type="text" class="input_text" name="ddVer"/> Status: <select name="ddStatus"><option value="A" selected="selected">Active</option><option value="P">Planned</option><option value="D">Deprecated</option> </label> </div> </form>

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  • Something confusing about FormsOf (Sql server Full-Text searching)

    - by AspOnMyNet
    hi I'm using Sql Server 2008 1) A given <simple_term> within a <generation_term> will not match both nouns and verbs. If I understand the above text correctly, then query SELECT * FROM someTable WHERE CONTAINS ( *, ' FORMSOF ( INFLECTIONAL, park ) ' ) should search for either nouns or verbs derived from the root word “park”, but not for both? Thus out of the two rows, one containing noun parks and other verb parking, the above query should return just one of the two rows? But as it turns out, query returns both rows, so are perhaps my assumptions a bit off or is the above quote wrong?! 2) From Msdn: If freetext_string is enclosed in double quotation marks, a phrase match is instead performed; stemming and thesaurus are not performed. According to the above quote the following query shouldn’t return rows containing strings surfing ( due to query not performing stemming ), surf ( due to query performing phrase matching and not individual word matching ) and surfing with suzy’s sister ( due to query not performing stemming and due to query performing phrase matching and not word matching ), but it does. Thus, it appears that even when *freetext_string* is enclosed in double quotation marks, stemming is still preformed, while phrase matching is not: SELECT * FROM someTable WHERE FREETEXT( *, ' "surf sister" ' ) So is the above quote wrong or...? thanx

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  • PHP curl timing mismatch

    - by JonoB
    I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

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  • Cocos2d - smooth sprite movement in tile map RPG

    - by Lendo92
    I've been working on a 2-D Gameboy style RPG for a while now, and the game logic is mostly all done so I'm starting to try to make things look good. One thing I've noticed is that the walking movement / screen movement is a little bit choppy. Technically, it should work fine, but either it seems to be having some quirks, either due to taking up a lot of processing power or just timing inconsistencies between moving the screen and moving the sprite. To move the sprite, once I know where I want to move it, I call: tempPos.y += 3*theHKMap.tileSize.width/5; id actionMove = [CCMoveTo actionWithDuration:0.1 position:tempPos]; id actionMoveDone = [CCCallFuncN actionWithTarget:self selector:@selector(orientOneMove)]; [guy runAction:[CCSequence actions:actionMove, actionMoveDone, nil]]; [self setCenterOfScreen:position]; Then, in orientOneMove, I call: [self.guy setTexture:[[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"guysprite07.png"]]; //the walking picture-I change texture back at the end of the movement id actionMove = [CCMoveTo actionWithDuration:0.15 position:self.tempLocation2]; id actionMoveDone = [CCCallFuncN actionWithTarget:self selector:@selector(toggleTouchEnabled)]; [guy runAction:[CCSequence actions:actionMove, actionMoveDone, nil]]; The code for the concurrently running setCenterOfScreen:position method is: id actionMove = [CCMoveTo actionWithDuration:0.25 position:difference]; [self runAction: [CCSequence actions:actionMove, nil, nil]]; So the setCenterOfScreen moves the camera in one clean move while the guy moving is chopped into two actions to animate it (which I believe might be inefficient.) It's hard to tell what is making the movement not perfectly clean from looking at it, but essentially the guy isn't always perfectly in the center of the screen -- during movement, he's often times a pixel or two off for an instant. Any ideas/ solutions?

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  • Jquery Accordion : set action to a specific element inside header

    - by J.Tay
    by default, if we have something like this as a Header in jQuery Accordion : <h3> <div class="1">TEXT</div> <div class="2">ICON</div> <div class="3">BUTTON</div> </h3> by clicking anywhere on this , accordion works and toggle the next element and ... the question is , how can we set an option and select a specific element ( like: 'div' with class '1' ) to click on it to and toggle the accordion. i mean i don't want the whole Header remain click able. i just want to click on a icon or div o something inside the header and toggle open/close the accordion. thank you Update 1 : HTML : <div id="testAcc"> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> </div> JS : $('#testAcc').accordion({ autoHeight: false, header: 'h3', collapsible: 'ture', }); this codes working fine. but i want to use something like ( header: 'h3.one' ) means i want to set a specific class and element inside the header , then if user click ONLY on that element, the accordion will open or close ...

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  • Nest input inside f.label ( rails form generation )

    - by Mike
    I want to use the f.label method to create my form element labels, however - i want to have the form element nested inside the label. Is this possible? -- From W3C -- To associate a label with another control implicitly, the control element must be within the contents of the LABEL element. In this case, the LABEL may only contain one control element. The label itself may be positioned before or after the associated control. In this example, we implicitly associate two labels with two text input controls: <FORM action="..." method="post"> <P> <LABEL> First Name <INPUT type="text" name="firstname"> </LABEL> <LABEL> <INPUT type="text" name="lastname"> Last Name </LABEL> </P> </FORM>

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • Optimizing a bin-placement algorithm

    - by user258651
    Alright, I've got two collections, and I need to place elements from collection1 into the bins (elements) of collection2, based on whether their value falls within a given bin's range. For a concrete example, assume I have a sorted collection objects (bins) which have an int range ([1...4], [5..10], etc). I need to determine the range an int falls in, and place it in the appropriate bin. foreach(element n in collection1) { foreach(bin m in collection2) { if (m.inRange(n)) { m.add(n); break; } } } So the obvious NxM complexity algorithm is there, but I really would like to see Nxlog(M). To do this I'd like to use BinarySearch in place of the inner foreach loop. To use BinarySearch, I need to implement an IComparer class to do the searching for me. The problem I'm running into is this approach would require me to make an IComparer.Compare function that compares two different types of objects (an element to its bin), and that doesn't seem possible or correct. So I'm asking, how should I write this algorithm?

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  • Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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  • Entangled text boxes

    - by user38329
    Hi StackOverflow, A mere Windows textbox greatly surprised me today. I have two unrelated text boxes inside an application. I can type in either text box and switch the focus by clicking on them. Then happens some event X, which I can't describe here for reasons given below. After this event happens, the two text boxes become "entangled" in an almost quantum way. Say, text box A was focused before X happened. When I click text box B to type in some text, the new text appears in text box A, whereas the blinking cursor happily moves along in text box B through the void, as if the text were there. No amount of clicking on either text boxes can resolve this. The cursor will always remain in B, whereas the text will always go to A. Message spying reveals that after the event X, the text boxes lose the ability to lose or gain focus. When I click on B, WM_LOSE_FOCUS does not come to A, and WM_SET_FOCUS does not come to B. (The rectangles and visibility of the boxes are OK.) The same thing happens in Windows XP and Windows 7. Now, event X: it's a big event in a third-party UI library which I cannot reverse-engineer in a timely manner. (Namely, docking a pane in wxAUI.) I am sure that this behavior is the result of incorrect WinAPI calls to the text boxes (garbage in - garbage out). I would like to know what could possibly cause such "textbox trip" to know where to start looking for the bug. Thanks!

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • VB.NET Update Access Database with DataTable

    - by sinDizzy
    I've been perusing some hep forums and some help books but cant seem to get my head wrapped around this. My task is to read data from two text files and then load that data into an existing MS Access 2007 database. So here is what i'm trying to do: Read data from first text file and for every line of data add data to a DataTable using CarID as my unique field. Read data from second text file and look for existing CarID in DataTable if exists update that row. If it doesnt exist add a new row. once im done push the contents of the DataTable to the database. What i have so far: Dim sSQL As String = "SELECT * FROM tblCars" Dim da As New OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter(sSQL, conn) Dim ds As New DataSet da.Fill(ds, "CarData") Dim cb As New OleDb.OleDbCommandBuilder(da) 'loop read a line of text and parse it out. gets dd, dc, and carId 'create a new empty row Dim dsNewRow As DataRow = ds.Tables("CarData").NewRow() 'update the new row with fresh data dsNewRow.Item("DriveDate") = dd dsNewRow.Item("DCode") = dc dsNewRow.Item("CarNum") = carID 'about 15 more fields 'add the filled row to the DataSet table ds.Tables("CarData").Rows.Add(dsNewRow) 'end loop 'update the database with the new rows da.Update(ds, "CarData") Questions: In constructing my table i use "SELECT * FROM tblCars" but what if that table has millions of records already. Is that not a waste of resources? Should i be trying something different if i want to update with new records? Once Im done with the first text file i then go to my next text file. Whats the best approach here: To First look for an existing record based on CarNum or to create a second table and then merge the two at the end? Finally when the DataTable is done being populated and im pushing it to the database i want to make sure that if records already exist with three primary fields (DriveDate, DCode, and CarNum) that they get updated with new fields and if it doesn't exist then those records get appended. Is that possible with my process? tia AGP

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  • Multiple Inheritence with same Base Classes in Python

    - by Jordan Reiter
    I'm trying to wrap my head around multiple inheritance in python. Suppose I have the following base class: class Structure(object): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a structure!" self.components = args And let's say I have two classes that inherit from it: class House(Structure): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a house!" super(House, self).build(*args) class School(Structure): def build(self, type="Elementary", *args): print "I am building a school!" super(School, self).build(*args) Finally, a create a class that uses multiple inheritance: class SchoolHouse(School, House): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a schoolhouse!" super(School, self).build(*args) Then, I create a SchoolHouse object and run build on it: >>> sh = SchoolHouse() >>> sh.build("roof", "walls") I am building a schoolhouse! I am building a house! I am building a structure! So I'm wondering -- what happened to the School class? Is there any way to get Python to run both somehow? I'm wondering specifically because there are a fair number of Django packages out there that provide custom Managers for models. But there doesn't appear to be a way to combine them without writing one or the other of the Managers as inheriting from the other one. It'd be nice to just import both and use both somehow, but looks like it can't be done? Also I guess it'd just help to be pointed to a good primer on multiple inheritance in Python. I have done some work with Mixins before and really enjoy using them. I guess I just wonder if there is any elegant way to combine functionality from two different classes when they inherit from the same base class.

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  • vectorizing loops in Matlab - performance issues

    - by Gacek
    This question is related to these two: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2867901/introduction-to-vectorizing-in-matlab-any-good-tutorials http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2561617/filter-that-uses-elements-from-two-arrays-at-the-same-time Basing on the tutorials I read, I was trying to vectorize some procedure that takes really a lot of time. I've rewritten this: function B = bfltGray(A,w,sigma_r) dim = size(A); B = zeros(dim); for i = 1:dim(1) for j = 1:dim(2) % Extract local region. iMin = max(i-w,1); iMax = min(i+w,dim(1)); jMin = max(j-w,1); jMax = min(j+w,dim(2)); I = A(iMin:iMax,jMin:jMax); % Compute Gaussian intensity weights. F = exp(-0.5*(abs(I-A(i,j))/sigma_r).^2); B(i,j) = sum(F(:).*I(:))/sum(F(:)); end end into this: function B = rngVect(A, w, sigma) W = 2*w+1; I = padarray(A, [w,w],'symmetric'); I = im2col(I, [W,W]); H = exp(-0.5*(abs(I-repmat(A(:)', size(I,1),1))/sigma).^2); B = reshape(sum(H.*I,1)./sum(H,1), size(A, 1), []); But this version seems to be as slow as the first one, but in addition it uses a lot of memory and sometimes causes memory problems. I suppose I've made something wrong. Probably some logic mistake regarding vectorizing. Well, in fact I'm not surprised - this method creates really big matrices and probably the computations are proportionally longer. I have also tried to write it using nlfilter (similar to the second solution given by Jonas) but it seems to be hard since I use Matlab 6.5 (R13) (there are no sophisticated function handles available). So once again, I'm asking not for ready solution, but for some ideas that would help me to solve this in reasonable time. Maybe you will point me what I did wrong.

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  • How do i set the proxy and SOCKs in libcurl?

    - by acidzombie24
    I am trying to configure my .NET app to use a proxy. My source is in C# but i learned CURL via C++. My question is where do i put the SOCKs IP and port? i looked through the documentation and didnt see it. I believe that is what is causing me these problems. When i run this code it will quiet literally timeout and not call my header function or writer function. If i comment out the first two curlopt lines (the two proxy lines) my code runs with no problems. In firefox i set the http proxy and SOCKs host separately, they are different IPs and ports. How do i set the sock part, the below has the dummy proxy set but i cant figure out the socks part. static void Main(string[] args) { SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.Curl.GlobalInit((int)SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.CURLinitFlag.CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); var curl = new Easy(); { curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_PROXY, "http://127.0.0.1:1234"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_PROXYTYPE, CURLproxyType.CURLPROXY_SOCKS5); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_URL, "http://whatismyipaddress.com/ip-lookup"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_USERAGENT, @"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2b5) Gecko/20091204 Firefox/3.6b5"); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_HEADERFUNCTION, hf); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_HEADERDATA, data); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, wf); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_WRITEDATA, sw); curl.SetOpt(CURLoption.CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl.Perform(); var sz = sw.ToString(); var myrealip = sz.IndexOf("12.34.56.78") !=-1; } //Console.WriteLine(sz); SeasideResearch.LibCurlNet.Curl.GlobalCleanup(); }

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • How can I make NSUndoManager's undo/redo action names work properly?

    - by Gabe
    I'm learning Cocoa, and I've gotten undo to work without much trouble. But the setActionName: method is puzzling me. Here's a simple example: a toy app whose windows contain a single text label and two buttons. Press the On button and the label reads 'On'. Press the Off button and the label changes to read 'Off'. Here are the two relevant methods (the only code I wrote for the app): -(IBAction) turnOnLabel:(id)sender { [[self undoManager] registerUndoWithTarget:self selector:@selector(turnOffLabel:) object:self]; [[self undoManager] setActionName:@"Turn On Label"]; [theLabel setStringValue:@"On"]; } -(IBAction) turnOffLabel:(id)sender { [[self undoManager] registerUndoWithTarget:self selector:@selector(turnOnLabel:) object:self]; [[self undoManager] setActionName:@"Turn Off Label"]; [theLabel setStringValue:@"Off"]; } Here's what I expect: I click the On button The label changes to say 'On' In the Edit menu is the item 'Undo Turn On Label' I click that menu item The label changes to say 'Off' In the Edit menu is the item 'Redo Turn On Label' In fact, all these things work as I expect apart from the last one. The item in the Edit menu reads 'Redo Turn Off Label', not 'Redo Turn On Label'. (When I click that menu item, the label does turn to On, as I'd expect, but this makes the menu item's name even more of a mystery. What am i misunderstanding, and how can I get these menu items to display the way I want them to?

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  • How do I establish table association in JPA / Hibernate with existing database?

    - by Paperino
    Currently I have two tables in my database Encounters and Referrals: There is a one to many relationship between these two tables. Currently they are linked together with foreign keys. Right now I have public class Encounter extends JPASupport implements java.io.Serializable { @Column(name="referralid", unique=false, nullable=true, insertable=true, updatable=true) public Integer referralid; } But what I really want is public class Encounter extends JPASupport implements java.io.Serializable { .......... @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) public Set<Referrals> referral; ............ } So that I can eventually do a query like this: List<Encounter> cases = Encounter.find( "select distinct p from Encounter p join p.referrals as t where t.caseid =103" ).fetch(); How do I tell JPA that even though I have non-standard column names for my foreign keys and primary keys that its the object models that I want linked, not simply the integer value for the keys? Does this make sense? I hope so. Thanks in advanced!

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