Search Results

Search found 14757 results on 591 pages for 'switch statement'.

Page 466/591 | < Previous Page | 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473  | Next Page >

  • How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

    Read the article

  • Redirection Still not working (updated on earlier question)

    - by NoviceCoding
    So earlier I asked this question: JQuery Login Redirect. Code Included The php file is sending the following: $return['error'] = false; $return['msg'] = 'You have successfully logged in!!'; I've tried all the suggestions, quoting the error on php and ajax end, 2 equals instead of 3, I've also tried DNE true which should be the same as an else statement: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#submit').click(function() { $('#waiting').show(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#reg').hide(0); $('#message').hide(0); $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'logina.php', dataType : 'json', data: { type : $('#typeof').val(), login : $('#login').val(), pass : $('#pass').val(), }, success : function(data){ $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass((data.error === true) ? 'error' : 'success') .text(data.msg).show(500) if(data.error != true) window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php"); if (data.error === true) $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide() }, error : function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass('error') .text("There was an Error. Please try again.").show(500); $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide(); Recaptcha.reload(); } }); return false; }); And it still wont work. Any ideas on how to make a redirection work if login is successful and error returns false? Also while I am asking, can I put a .delay(3000) 3s at the end of window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php")?

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite failing on uppercase dir

    - by user1855277
    I have a very basic mod_rewrite in a .htaccess file which I'm sure worked last time I looked at it, but now it is doing strange things with the case of the REQUEST_URI. It's intended purpose is to rewrite sub-domains to a given file, passing the subdomain as a php var of bnurl. Here is my code: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}= "RSDEV/location/" [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.co\.uk(:80)? [NC] RewriteRule ^RSDEV/location/$ RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=%1&accesstype=new [NC,L] Now, typing joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/RSDEV/location/ into my web browser comes back with the response "The requested URL /RSDEV/location/ was not found on this server" which is a correct statement because /RSDEV/location/ is not a real directory, but why did it not rewrite to RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=joebloggs&accesstype=new as expected? Now, the really strange thing here is that if I enter joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/rsdev/location/ into my browser (note rsdev is now lowercase), it correctly rewrites as expected. The script newmain.php is in dir RSDEV (uppercase) so if it was going to fail, I would have expected it to fail the other way round with the lowercase rsdev. As you can see, I have [NC] on each line. Is this my mod_rewrite code failing or some other mystical server force keeping me up all night?

    Read the article

  • Creating a join based on data from other tables...

    - by Workshop Alex
    I'm dealing with a database structure that can be defined as "illogical". It has about 100 different schema's with all different table structures per schema. Only one common factor is a "Version" table in each schema containing about 4 fields. (Thus, there are about 100 Version tables in the database.) There's also another table (view, actually) containing a list of all the schema's in the database that have a version table. I need a stored procedure that walks through all the schema's and selects all data from the Version table, adding the schema name as a fifth field to the result. Basically, this stored procedure is to return a list of all version records per schema. My idea: first walk through the schema list to create one new SQL statements that will JOIN all the schema.version tables into one SQL statement. Then I return the result of that query. How to do this? Or does anyone have a better suggestion? (No, redesigning the structure is NOT an option.)

    Read the article

  • modified closure warning in ReSharper

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

    Read the article

  • How do I select column(s) by their "numeric" position in a table?

    - by DulcimerDude
    I am trying to select columns by their "x" position in the table. DBI my $example = $hookup->prepare(qq{SELECT This,That,Condition,"I also want COLUMN-10" FROM tbl LIMIT ? ?}); ###column_number=10 ordinal_position?? $example->execute('2','10') or die "Did not execute"; Is this possible or do I need to run another single select to just that column? One problem I encountered was with a col named "Condition". For some reason, when I tried to select Condition the execute would die. I never attempted but, What if the column name was SELECT? Another note is the table is 75 cols wide and I only need 50 of them. The Col names are pretty verbose so, I would like to just call them by their "position". This would also allow the col names to be changed in the future without having to change the select statement. I am quite the newbie so please explain any answers down to my level. Thanks for any assistance..

    Read the article

  • Rails - Create if record doesn't exist or else update.....Whats Best way to do this?

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    Hi, I have a create statement for some models but its creating a record within a join table regardless if the record exist. Here is what my code looks like. @user = User.find(current_user) @event = Event.find(params[:id]) for interest in @event.interests @user.choices.create(:interest => interest, :score => 4) end The problem is it creates records no matter what. I would like it to create a record if it doesnt exist, if a record does exist I would just to it to take the attribute of the found record and add or subtract 1. So, I've been looking around and I see something called find_or_create_by. My question is what happens if it finds? Preferably if it finds,I would like to take the current :score attribute and +1. SO is it possible to find or create by id? I'm not sure what attribute I would find by since the model I'm looking at is a join model which only had id foreign keys and the score attribute. I tried @user.choices.find_or_create_by_user(:user => @user.id, :interest => interest, :score => 4) but got "undefined method `find_by_user'".....ANy ideas or help?

    Read the article

  • Consecutive calls/evaulations in a form?

    - by Dave
    Hey guys, simple question... Working with XLISP to write a program, but I've seemed to run into a simple fundamental problem that I can't seem to work around: perhaps someone has a quick fix. I'm trying to write an if statement who's then-clause evaluates multiple forms and returns the value of the last. In example: (setq POSITION 'DINING-ROOM) (defun LOOK (DIRECTION ROOM) ... ) (defun SETPOS (ROOM) ... ) (defun WHERE () ... ) (defun MOVE (DIRECTION) (if (not(equal nil (LOOK DIRECTION POSITION))) ; If there is a room in that direction ( ; Then-block: Go to that room. Return where you are. (SETPOS (LOOK DIRECTION ROOM)) (WHERE) ) ( ; Else-block: Return error (list 'CANT 'GO 'THERE) ) ) The logical equivalent intended is: function Move (Direction) { if(Look(Direction, Room) != null) { SetPos(Look(Direction,Room)); return Where(); } else { return "Can't go there"; } } (Apologies for the poor web-formatting.) The problem I have is with: ( (SETPOS (LOOK DIRECTION ROOM)) (WHERE) ) I simply want to return the evaluation of WHERE, but I need to execute the SETPOS function first. XLISP doesn't like the extra parentheses: if I remove the outer set, my WHERE list becomes my else (I don't want that). If I remove the sets around SETPOS and WHERE, it treats WHERE like an argument for SETPOS; I also don't want that. So, how do I simply evaluate the first, then the second and then return the values of the last evaluated?

    Read the article

  • LINQ To SQL Dynamic Select

    - by mcass20
    Can someone show me how to indicate which columns I would like returned at run-time from a LINQ To SQL statement? I am allowing the user to select items in a checkboxlist representing the columns they would like displayed in a gridview that is bound to the results of a L2S query. I am able to dynamically generate the WHERE clause but am unable to do the same with the SELECT piece. Here is a sample: var query = from log in context.Logs select log; query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp > CustomReport.ReportDateStart); query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp < CustomReport.ReportDateEnd); query = query.Where(Log => Log.ProcessName == CustomReport.ProcessName); foreach (Pair filter in CustomReport.ExtColsToFilter) { sExtFilters = "<key>" + filter.First + "</key><value>" + filter.Second + "</value>"; query = query.Where(Log => Log.FormattedMessage.Contains(sExtFilters)); }

    Read the article

  • Fade in an HTML element with raw javascript over 500 miliseconds.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, Once again I find myself stuck by something that I just don't understand. Any help would be appreciated. I'm working on a modal window, you click something and the background is masked and a modal window shows some content. I have a div with "display:none" and "opacity:0", and when the user triggers the modal, this div will overlay everything and have certain transparency to it. In my mind, what I need to do is: Set the opacity Perform a "for" loop that will check if the opacity is less than the desired value. Inside this loop, perform a "setInterval" to gradually increment the value of the opacity until it reaches the desired value. When the desired value has been reached, perform an "if" statement to "clearInterval". My code so far is as follows: var showMask = document.getElementById('mask'); function fireModal(){ showMask.style.opacity = 0; showMask.style.display = 'block'; var getCurrentOpacity = showMask.style.opacity; var increaseOpacity = 0.02; var finalOpacity = 0.7; var intervalIncrement = 20; var timeLapse = 500; function fadeIn(){ for(var i = getCurrentOpacity; i < finalOpacity; i++){ setInterval(function(){ showMask.style.opacity = i; }, intervalIncrement) } if(getCurrentOpacity == finalOpacity){ clearInterval(); } } fadeIn(); } As you all can guess, this is not working, all it does is set the opacity to "1" without gradually fade it in. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • In RoR, is there an easy way to prevent the view from outputting <p> tags?

    - by dt
    I'm new to Ruby and Rails and I have a simple controller that shows an item from the database in a default view. When it is displaying in HTML it is outputting <p> tags along with the text content. Is there a way to prevent this from happening? I suppose if there isn't, is there at least a way to set the default css class for the same output in a statement such as this: <% @Items.each do |i| %> <%= i.itemname %> <div class="menu_body"> <a href="#">Link-1</a> </div> <% end %> So the problem is with the <%= i.itemname %> part. Is there a way to stop it from wrapping it in its own <p> tags? Or set the css class for the output? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • ref and out parameters in C# and cannot be marked as variant.

    - by Water Cooler v2
    What does the statement mean? From here ref and out parameters in C# and cannot be marked as variant. 1) Does it mean that the following can not be done. public class SomeClass<R, A>: IVariant<R, A> { public virtual R DoSomething( ref A args ) { return null; } } 2) Or does it mean I cannot have the following. public delegate R Reader<out R, in A>(A arg, string s); public static void AssignReadFromPeonMethodToDelegate(ref Reader<object, Peon> pReader) { pReader = ReadFromPeon; } static object ReadFromPeon(Peon p, string propertyName) { return p.GetType().GetField(propertyName).GetValue(p); } static Reader<object, Peon> pReader; static void Main(string[] args) { AssignReadFromPeonMethodToDelegate(ref pReader); bCanReadWrite = (bool)pReader(peon, "CanReadWrite"); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Console.ReadKey(); } I tried (2) and it worked.

    Read the article

  • How to analyze evenness/oddness of numbers in Java

    - by appreciation
    I have to write a program which reads in 3 numbers (using input boxes), and depending on their values it should write one of these messages: All 3 numbers are odd OR All 3 numbers are even OR 2 numbers are odd and 1 is even OR 1 number is odd and 2 are even This is what I have so far: import javax.swing.JOptionPane; class program3 { public static void main(String[] args) { String num1 = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter first number."); String num2 = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter second number."); String num3 = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter third number."); boolean newnum1 = Integer.parseInt(num1); boolean newnum2 = Integer.parseInt(num2); boolean newnum3 = Integer.parseInt(num3); } } This is where I am stuck. I am not sure how to use the MOD to display the messages. I think I have to also use an IF Statement too...But I'm not too sure. Please help! :D

    Read the article

  • IS operator behaving a bit strangely

    - by flockofcode
    1) According to my book, IS operator can check whether expression E (E is type) can be converted to the target type only if E is either a reference conversion, boxing or unboxing. Since in the following example IS doesn’t check for either of the three types of conversion, the code shouldn’t work, but it does: int i=100; if (i is long) //returns true, indicating that conversion is possible l = i; 2) a) B b; A a = new A(); if (a is B) b = (B)a; int i = b.l; class A { public int l = 100; } class B:A { } The above code always causes compile time error “Use of unassigned variable”. If condition a is B evaluates to false, then b won’t be assigned a value, but if condition is true, then it will. And thus by allowing such a code compiler would have no way of knowing whether the usage of b in code following the if statement is valid or not ( due to not knowing whether a is b evaluates to true or false) , but why should it know that? Intsead why couldn’t runtime handle this? b) But if instead we’re dealing with non reference types, then compiler doesn’t complain, even though the code is identical.Why? int i = 100; long l; if (i is long) l = i; thank you

    Read the article

  • Prevent empty form input array from being posted?

    - by user355295
    Sorry if this has been answered somewhere; I'm not quite sure how to phrase the problem to even look for help. Anyway, I have a form with three text input boxes, where the user will input three song titles. I have simple PHP set up to treat those input boxes as an array (because I may want, say, 100 song titles in the future) and write the song titles to another document. <form method="post"> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="submit">Submit</button> </form> <?php if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { $open = fopen("test.html", "w"); if(empty($_POST['songs'])) { } else { $songs = $_POST['songs']; foreach($songs as $song) { fwrite($open, $song."<br />"); }; }; }; ?> This correctly writes the song titles to an external file. However, even when the input boxes are empty, the external file will still be written to (just with the <br />'s). I'd assumed that the if statement would ensure nothing would happen if the boxes were blank, but that's obviously not the case. I guess the array's not really empty like I thought it was, but I'm not really sure what implications that comes with. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? (And again, I am clueless when it comes to PHP, so forgive me if this has been answered a million times before, if I described it horribly, etc.)

    Read the article

  • Duplicate information from sql result

    - by puddleJumper
    I looked in about 18 other posts on here an most people are asking how to delete the records not just hide them. So my problem: I have a database with staff members who are associated with locations. Many of the staff members are associated with more than one location. What I want to do is to only display the first location listed in the mysql result and skip over the others. I have the sql query linking the tables together and it works aside from it showing the same information for those staff members that are in those other locations multiple times so example would be like this: This is the sql statement I have currently SELECT staff_tbl.staffID, staff_tbl.firstName, staff_tbl.middleInitial, staff_tbl.lastName, location_tbl.locationID, location_tbl.staffID, officelocations_tbl.locationID, officelocations_tbl.officeName, staff_title_tbl.title_ID, staff_title_tbl.staff_ID, titles_tbl.titleID, titles_tbl.titleName FROM staff_tbl INNER JOIN location_tbl ON location_tbl.staffID = staff_tbl.staffID INNER JOIN officelocations_tbl ON location_tbl.locationID = officelocations_tbl.locationID INNER JOIN staff_title_tbl ON staff_title_tbl.staff_ID = staff_tbl.staffID INNER JOIN titles_tbl ON staff_title_tbl.title_ID = titles_tbl.titleID and my php is <?php do { ?> <tr> <td><?php echo $row_rs_Staff_Info['firstName']; ?>&nbsp; <?php echo $row_rs_Staff_Info['lastName']; ?></td> <td><?php echo $row_rs_Staff_Info['titleName']; ?>&nbsp; </td> <td><?php echo $row_rs_Staff_Info['officeName']; ?>&nbsp; </td> </tr> <?php } while ($row_mysqlResult = mysql_fetch_assoc($rs_mysqlResult)); ?> What I would like to know is there a way using php to select only the first entry listed for each person and display that and just skip over the other two. I was thinking it could be done by possibly adding the staffID's to an array and if they are in there to skip over the next one listed in the staff_title_tbl but wasn't quite sure how to write it that way. Any help would be great thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to output multiple rows from an SQL query using the mysqli object

    - by Jonathan
    Assuming that the mysqli object is already instantiatied (and connected) with the global variable $mysql, here is the code I am trying to work with. class Listing { private $mysql; function getListingInfo($l_id = "", $category = "", $subcategory = "", $username = "", $status = "active") { $condition = "`status` = '$status'"; if (!empty($l_id)) $condition .= "AND `L_ID` = '$l_id'"; if (!empty($category)) $condition .= "AND `category` = '$category'"; if (!empty($subcategory)) $condition .= "AND `subcategory` = '$subcategory'"; if (!empty($username)) $condition .= "AND `username` = '$username'"; $result = $this->mysql->query("SELECT * FROM listing WHERE $condition") or die('Error fetching values'); $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; return $info; } } there are several hundred listings in the db and when I call $result-fetch_array() it places in an array the first row in the db. however when I try to call the object, I can't seem to access more than the first row. for instance: $listing_row = new Listing; while ($listing = $listing_row-getListingInfo()) { echo $listing[0]; } this outputs an infinite loop of the same row in the db. Why does it not advance to the next row? if I move the code: $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; if I move this outside the class, it works exactly as expected outputting a row at a time while looping through the while statement. Is there a way to write this so that I can keep the fetch_array() call in the class and still loop through the records?

    Read the article

  • Detecting what the target object is when NullReferenceException is thrown.

    - by StingyJack
    I'm sure we all have received the wonderfully vague "Object reference not set to instance of an Object" exception at some time or another. Identifying the object that is the problem is often a tedious task of setting breakpoints and inspecting all members in each statement. Does anyone have any tricks to easily and efficiently identify the object that causes the exception, either via programmatical means or otherwise? --edit It seems I was vague like the exception =). The point is to _not have to debug the app to find the errant object. The compiler/runtime does know that the object has been allocated, and that the object has not yet been instantiated. Is there a way to extract / identify those details in a caught exception @ W. Craig Trader Your explanation that it is a result of a design problem is probably the best answer I could get. I am fairly compulsive with defensive coding and have managed to get rid of most of these errors after fixing my habits over time. The remaining ones just tweak me to no end, and lead me to posting this question to the community. Thanks for everyone's suggestions.

    Read the article

  • C# Set combo item with selectedValue

    - by Martijn
    I am dynamically creating a combobox like this: public Control GenerateList(Question question) { // Get a list with answer possibilities List<QuestionAnswer> answers = question.GetAnswers(); // Get a collection of given answers Collection<QuestionnaireAnswer> givenAnswers = question.GetFilledAnswers(); ComboBox cmb = new ComboBox(); cmb.Name = "cmb"; cmb.DataSource = answers; cmb.DisplayMember = "Answer"; cmb.ValueMember = "Id"; // Check an answer is given to the question if (givenAnswers != null && givenAnswers.Count > 0) { cmb.SelectedValue = givenAnswers[0].AnswerId; } cmb.DropDownStyle = ComboBoxStyle.DropDownList; cmb.SelectedIndexChanged += new EventHandler(cmb_SelectedIndexChanged); cmb.Leave += new EventHandler(cmb_Leave); return cmb; } The problem is,when executing cmb.SelectedValue = givenAnswers[0].AnswerId; cmb.SelectedValue is always null. When debugging and I explore answers (the datasource) I see that Id (ValueMember) is exactle the same as AnswerId (in the if statement). Both have the same type (long) and the same value, but SelectedValue stays null. Is there something I don't see?

    Read the article

  • Rails exit controller after rendering

    - by codysehl
    I have an action in my controller that I am having trouble with. This is my first rails app, so I'm not sure of the best practices surrounding rails. I have a model called Group and a few actions that go in it's controller. I have written a test that should cause the controller to render an error in JSON because of an invalid Group ID. Instead of rendering and exiting, it looks like the controller is rendering and continuing to execute. Test test 'should not remove group because of invalid group id' do post(:remove, {'group_id' => '3333'}) response = JSON.parse(@response.body) assert_response :success assert_equal 'Success', response['message'] end Controller action # Post remove # group_id def remove if((@group = Group.find_by_id(params[:group_id])) == nil) render :json => { :message => "group_id not found" } end @group.destroy if(!Group.exists?(@group)) render :json => { :message => "Success" } else render :json => { :errors => @group.errors.full_messages } end end In the controller, the first if statement executes: render :json => { :message => "group_id not found" } but @group.destroy is still being executed. This seems counter-intuitive to me, I would think that the render method should exit the controller. Why is the controller not exiting after render is called? The purpose of this block of code is to recover gracefully when no record can be found with the passed in ID. Is this the correct way of doing something like this?

    Read the article

  • singledispatch in class, how to dispatch self type

    - by yanxinyou
    Using python3.4. Here I want use singledispatch to dispatch different type in __mul__ method . The code like this : class Vector(object): ## some code not paste @functools.singledispatch def __mul__(self, other): raise NotImplementedError("can't mul these type") @__mul__.register(int) @__mul__.register(object) # Becasue can't use Vector , I have to use object def _(self, other): result = Vector(len(self)) # start with vector of zeros for j in range(len(self)): result[j] = self[j]*other return result @__mul__.register(Vector) # how can I use the self't type @__mul__.register(object) # def _(self, other): pass # need impl As you can see the code , I want support Vector*Vertor , This has Name error Traceback (most recent call last): File "p_algorithms\vector.py", line 6, in <module> class Vector(object): File "p_algorithms\vector.py", line 84, in Vector @__mul__.register(Vector) # how can I use the self't type NameError: name 'Vector' is not defined The question may be How Can I use class Name a Type in the class's method ? I know c++ have font class statement . How python solve my problem ? And it is strange to see result = Vector(len(self)) where the Vector can be used in method body .

    Read the article

  • how to change the image on click from database

    - by iosdev
    In my application i having multiple image in sq lite database,Since i want to change to the next image on button click,Here my code, -(void)Readthesqlitefile:(NSInteger *)sno { sqlite3 *database;//database object NSString *docpath=[self doccumentspath];//get sqlite path const char *ch=[docpath UTF8String];//string to constant char UTF8string main part to connect DB if (sqlite3_open(ch, &database)==SQLITE_OK) { const char *chstmt="SELECT * FROM animal where rowid= = %d",sno; sqlite3_stmt *sqlstmt;//to execute the above statement if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, chstmt, -1, &sqlstmt, NULL)==SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(sqlstmt)==SQLITE_ROW) { const char *Bname=(char *)sqlite3_column_text(sqlstmt, 0); //converting const char to nsstring NSString *Bndname=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%s",Bname]; NSLog(@"Brand Names=%@",Bndname); lb1.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:Bndname]; NSUInteger legnt=sqlite3_column_bytes(sqlstmt, 1); if (legnt>0) { NSData *dt=[NSData dataWithBytes:sqlite3_column_blob(sqlstmt, 1) length:legnt]; clsimg=[UIImage imageWithData:dt];//converting data to image imager.image=clsimg; } else { clsimg=nil; } } } sqlite3_finalize(sqlstmt); } sqlite3_close(database); } Button click function -(IBAction)changenext { int j; for (j=1; j<10; j++) { [self Readthesqlitefile:j]; } } its is not working pls help me to solve it out?

    Read the article

  • Security benefits from a second opinion, are there flaws in my plan to hash & salt user passwords vi

    - by Tchalvak
    Here is my plan, and goals: Overall Goals: Security with a certain amount of simplicity & database-to-database transferrability, 'cause I'm no expert and could mess it up and I don't want to have to ask a lot of users to reset their passwords. Easy to wipe the passwords for publishing a "wiped" databased of test data. (e.g. I'd like to be able to use a postgresql statement to simply reset all passwords to something simple so that testers can use that testing data for themselves). Plan: Hashing the passwords Account creation records the original email that an account is created with, forever. A global salt is used, e.g. "90fb16b6901dfceb73781ba4d8585f0503ac9391". An account specific salt, the original email the account was created with, is used, e.g. "[email protected]". The users's password is used, e.g. "password123" (I'll be warning against weak passwords in the signup form) The combination of the global salt, account specific salt, and password is hashed via some hashing method in postgresql (haven't been able to find documentation for hashing functions in postgresql, but being able to use sha-2 or something like that would be nice if I could find it). The hash gets stored in the database. Recovering an account To change their password, they have to go through standard password reset (and that reset email gets sent to the original email as well as the most recent account email that they have set). Flaws? Are there any flaws with this that I need to address? And are there best practices to doing hashing fully within postgresql?

    Read the article

  • Using NHibernate's HQL to make a query with multiple inner joins

    - by Abu Dhabi
    The problem here consists of translating a statement written in LINQ to SQL syntax into the equivalent for NHibernate. The LINQ to SQL code looks like so: var whatevervar = from threads in context.THREADs join threadposts in context.THREADPOSTs on threads.thread_id equals threadposts.thread_id join posts1 in context.POSTs on threadposts.post_id equals posts1.post_id join users in context.USERs on posts1.user_id equals users.user_id orderby posts1.post_time where threads.thread_id == int.Parse(id) select new { threads.thread_topic, posts1.post_time, users.user_display_name, users.user_signature, users.user_avatar, posts1.post_body, posts1.post_topic }; It's essentially trying to grab a list of posts within a given forum thread. The best I've been able to come up with (with the help of the helpful users of this site) for NHibernate is: var whatevervar = session.CreateQuery("select t.Thread_topic, p.Post_time, " + "u.User_display_name, u.User_signature, " + "u.User_avatar, p.Post_body, p.Post_topic " + "from THREADPOST tp " + "inner join tp.Thread_ as t " + "inner join tp.Post_ as p " + "inner join p.User_ as u " + "where tp.Thread_ = :what") .SetParameter<THREAD>("what", threadid) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean(typeof(MyDTO))) .List<MyDTO>(); But that doesn't parse well, complaining that the aliases for the joined tables are null references. MyDTO is a custom type for the output: public class MyDTO { public string thread_topic { get; set; } public DateTime post_time { get; set; } public string user_display_name { get; set; } public string user_signature { get; set; } public string user_avatar { get; set; } public string post_topic { get; set; } public string post_body { get; set; } } I'm out of ideas, and while doing this by direct SQL query is possible, I'd like to do it properly, without defeating the purpose of using an ORM. Thanks in advance! EDIT: The database looks like this: http://i41.tinypic.com/5agciu.jpg (Can't post images yet.)

    Read the article

  • Mysql dropping inserts with triggers

    - by user2891127
    Using mysql 5.5. I have two tables. One has a whitelist of hashes. When I insert a new row into the other table, I want to first compare the hash in the insert statement to the whitelist. If it's in the whitelist, I don't want to do the insert (less data to plow through later). The inserts are generated from another program and are text files with sql statements. I've been playing with triggers, and almost have it working: BEGIN IF (select count(md5hash) from whitelist where md5hash=new.md5hash) 0 THEN SIGNAL SQLSTATE '45000' SET MESSAGE_TEXT = 'Already Whitelisted'; END IF; END But there's a problem. The Signal throwing up the error stops the import. I want to skip that line, not stop the whole import. Some searching didn't find any way to silently skip the import. My next idea was to create a duplicate table definition, and redirect the insert to that dup table. But the old and new don't seem to apply to table names. Other then adding an ignore column to my table then doing a mass drop based on that column after the import, is there any way to achieve my goal?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473  | Next Page >