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  • PHP -- automatic SQL injection protection?

    - by ashgromnies
    I took over maintenance of a PHP app recently and I'm not super familiar with PHP but some of the things I've been seeing on the site are making me nervous that it could be vulnerable to a SQL injection attack. For example, see how this code for logging into the administrative section works: $password = md5(HASH_SALT . $_POST['loginPass']); $query = "SELECT * FROM `administrators` WHERE `active`='1' AND `email`='{$_POST['loginEmail']}' AND `password`='{$password}'"; $userInfo = db_fetch_array(db_query($query)); if($userInfo['id']) { $_SESSION['adminLoggedIn'] = true; // user is logged in, other junk happens here, not important The creators of the site made a special db_query method and db_fetch_array method, shown here: function db_query($qstring,$print=0) { return @mysql(DB_NAME,$qstring); } function db_fetch_array($qhandle) { return @mysql_fetch_array($qhandle); } Now, this makes me think I should be able to do some sort of SQL injection attack with an email address like: ' OR 'x'='x' LIMIT 1; and some random password. When I use that on the command line, I get an administrative user back, but when I try it in the application, I get an invalid username/password error, like I should. Could there be some sort of global PHP configuration they have enabled to block these attacks? Where would that be configured? Here is the PHP --version information: # php --version PHP 5.2.12 (cli) (built: Feb 28 2010 15:59:21) Copyright (c) 1997-2009 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2009 Zend Technologies with the ionCube PHP Loader v3.3.14, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by ionCube Ltd., and with Zend Optimizer v3.3.9, Copyright (c) 1998-2009, by Zend Technologies

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  • Using 'or' in Java Generics declaration

    - by Shervin
    I have a method that returns an instance of Map<String, List<Foo>> x(); and another method that returns an instance of Map<String, Collection<Foo>> y(); Now if I want to dynamically add one of this Maps in my field, how can I write the generics for it to work? ie: public class Bar { private Map<String, ? extends Collection<Foo>> myMap; public void initializer() { if(notImportant) myMap = x(); //OK else myMap = y(); // !OK (Need cast to (Map<String, ? extends Collection<Foo>>) } Now is it ok that I cast to the signature even though the y() is declared as being Collection? } } If it is not ok to cast, can I somehow write this (Collection OR List) I mean, List is a Collection, so it should somehow be possible. private Map<String, Collection<Foo> | List<Foo>>> myMap;

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  • In a Tab Bar based app a controller release data of the other ! !

    - by Flodev03
    Hi all ! I've made a ViewBased app, in the app delegate i've set a UITabBarCotntroller, in the app i have different view Controller two of them displays text in a UITextView and labels, the other one is my "ShakeController" a UIViewController in which i've set a UIAcelerometerDelegate, in it i create a instance of UIAccelerometer, in the method which manages the shake everything works fine, in this controller i have also set a UIImageView to make a simple animation, in the view Did Load method i set my imageView.animation to an array of UIImage. My problem is : when the app is launched i use the ViewControllers and everything work fine, but when i tap the ShakeController item in the tab bar and then when i come back to the other controllers the label looks like : label and textView like : Lorem ipsum..... the text of UItextView in IB. I have noticed thaht if i comment the initialisation of my imageView to the array of image i can navigate the items (from a view controller to another) without the label change and stay what i want them to be. Notice that the two controllers are in a UINavigationController. (i use @proprety (nonnatomic, retain) then @synthesize ... then releqse in the dealloc for the labels textview and my uiimageView) Do not know what to do thanks to all

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  • how to retreive the row value on click

    - by kumar
    var RowClick = function() { ("#Grid").click( var s = $("#Grid").jqGrid('getGridParam', 'selarrrow').toString(); alert(s); $("#showgrid").load('/Inventory/Products/List/' + s)); }; on RowClick i am trying to get the value of that row to send throw URL.. to access this Row value in my Actionresult method. but I am getting null value for the row? is this right what I am doing here? Thanks When I am doing somethign like this.. var value; $("#Grid").click(function(e) { var row = jQuery(e.target).parent(); value= row.attr("id"); }); var RowClick = function() { ("#Grid").click( $("#showgrid").load('/Inventory/Products/List/' + value)); }; on alert I am getting the row value perfectly but in my action result method Its showing me null value? Public Actionresult List(string value) { return View(); } can anybody help me out.. thanks

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  • NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

    - by rdelmar
    I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

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  • Wildcards vs. generic methods

    - by FredOverflow
    Is there any practical difference between the following approaches to print all elements in a range? public static void printA(Iterable<?> range) { for (Object o : range) { System.out.println(o); } } public static <T> void printB(Iterable<T> range) { for (T x : range) { System.out.println(x); } } Apparently, printB involves an additional checked cast to Object (see line 16), which seems rather stupid to me -- isn't everything an Object anyway? public static void printA(java.lang.Iterable); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokeinterface #18, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/lang/Iterable.iterator:()Ljava/util/Iterator; 6: astore_2 7: goto 24 10: aload_2 11: invokeinterface #24, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.next:()Ljava/lang/Object; 16: astore_1 17: getstatic #30; //Field java/lang/System.out:Ljava/io/PrintStream; 20: aload_1 21: invokevirtual #36; //Method java/io/PrintStream.println:(Ljava/lang/Object;)V 24: aload_2 25: invokeinterface #42, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.hasNext:()Z 30: ifne 10 33: return public static void printB(java.lang.Iterable); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokeinterface #18, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/lang/Iterable.iterator:()Ljava/util/Iterator; 6: astore_2 7: goto 27 10: aload_2 11: invokeinterface #24, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.next:()Ljava/lang/Object; 16: checkcast #3; //class java/lang/Object 19: astore_1 20: getstatic #30; //Field java/lang/System.out:Ljava/io/PrintStream; 23: aload_1 24: invokevirtual #36; //Method java/io/PrintStream.println:(Ljava/lang/Object;)V 27: aload_2 28: invokeinterface #42, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.hasNext:()Z 33: ifne 10 36: return

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  • When are predicates appropriate and what is the best pattern for usage

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    When are predicates appropriate and what is the best pattern for usage? What are the advantages of predicates? It seems to me like most cases where a predicate can be employed a tight loop would accomplish the same functionality? I don’t see a reusability argument given you will probably only implement a predicate in one method right? They look and feel nice but besides that they seem like you would only employ them when you need a quick hack on the collection classes? UPDATE But why would you be rewriting the tight loop again and again? In my mind/code when it comes to collections I always end up with something like Class Person End Class Class PersonList Inherits List(Of Person) Function FindByName(Name) as Person tight loop.... End Function End Class @Ani By that same logic I could implement the method as such Class PersonList Inherits List(Of Person) Function FindByName(Name) as PersonList End Function Function FindByAge(Age) as PersonList End Function Function FindBySocialSecurityNumber(SocialSecurityNumber) as PersonList End Function End Class And call it as such Dim res as PersonList = MyList.FindByName("Max").FindByAge(25).FindBySocialSecurityNumber(1234) and the result along with the amount of code and its reusability is largely the same, no? I am not arguing just trying to understand.

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  • Linq generic Expression in query on "element" or on IQueryable (multiple use)

    - by Bogdan Maxim
    Hi, I have the following expression public static Expression<Func<T, bool>> JoinByDateCheck<T>(T entity, DateTime dateToCheck) where T : IDateInterval { return (entityToJoin) => entityToJoin.FromDate.Date <= dateToCheck.Date && (entityToJoin.ToDate == null || entityToJoin.ToDate.Value.Date >= dateToCheck.Date); } IDateInterval interface is defined like this: interface IDateInterval { DateTime FromDate {get;} DateTime? ToDate {get;} } and i need to apply it in a few ways: (1) Query on Linq2Sql Table: var q1 = from e in intervalTable where FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime) select e; or something like this: intervalTable.Where(FunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e, constantDateTime)) (2) I need to use it in some table joins (as linq2sql doesn't provide comparative join): var q2 = from e1 in t1 join e2 in t2 on e1.FK == e2.PK where OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) or var q2 = from e1 in t1 from e2 in t2 where e1.FK == e2.PK && OtherFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(e2, e1.FromDate) (3) I need to use it in some queries like this: var q3 = from e in intervalTable.FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(constantDate); Dynamic linq is not something that I can use, so I have to stick to plain linq. Thank you Clarification: Initially I had just the last method (FilterFunctionThatCallsJoinByDateCheck(this IQueryable<IDateInterval> entities, DateTime dateConstant) ) that contained the code from the expression. The problem is that I get a SQL Translate exception if I write the code in a method and call it like that. All I want is to extend the use of this function to the where clause (see the second query in point 2)

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  • Doubt about instance creation by using Spring framework ???

    - by Arthur Ronald F D Garcia
    Here goes a command object which needs to be populated from a Spring form public class Person { private String name; private Integer age; /** * on-demand initialized */ private Address address; // getter's and setter's } And Address public class Address { private String street; // getter's and setter's } Now suppose the following MultiActionController @Component public class PersonController extends MultiActionController { @Autowired @Qualifier("personRepository") private Repository<Person, Integer> personRepository; /** * mapped To /person/add */ public ModelAndView add(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Person person) throws Exception { personRepository.add(person); return new ModelAndView("redirect:/home.htm"); } } Because Address attribute of Person needs to be initialized on-demand, i need to override newCommandObject to create an instance of Person to initiaze address property. Otherwise, i will get NullPointerException @Component public class PersonController extends MultiActionController { /** * code as shown above */ @Override public Object newCommandObject(Class clazz) thorws Exception { if(clazz.isAssignableFrom(Person.class)) { Person person = new Person(); person.setAddress(new Address()); return person; } } } Ok, Expert Spring MVC and Web Flow says Options for alternate object creation include pulling an instance from a BeanFactory or using method injection to transparently return a new instance. First option pulling an instance from a BeanFactory can be written as @Override public Object newCommandObject(Class clazz) thorws Exception { /** * Will retrieve a prototype instance from ApplicationContext whose name matchs its clazz.getSimpleName() */ getApplicationContext().getBean(clazz.getSimpleName()); } But what does he want to say by using method injection to transparently return a new instance ??? Can you show how i implement what he said ??? ATT: I know this funcionality can be filled by a SimpleFormController instead of MultiActionController. But it is shown just as an example, nothing else

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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • LINQ to Entity: using Contains in the "select" portion throws unexpected error

    - by Chu
    I've got a LINQ query going against an Entity Framework object. Here's a summary of the query: //a list of my allies List<int> allianceMembers = new List<int>() { 1,5,10 }; //query for fleets in my area, including any allies (and mark them as such) var fleets = from af in FleetSource select new Fleet { fleetID = af.fleetID, fleetName = af.fleetName, isAllied = (allianceMembers.Contains(af.userID) ? true : false) }; Basically, what I'm doing is getting a set of fleets. The allianceMembers list contains INTs of all users who are allied with me. I want to set isAllied = true if the fleet's owner is part of that list, and false otherwise. When I do this, I am seeing an exception: "LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'Boolean Contains(Int32)' method" I can understand getting this error if I had used the contains in the where portion of the query, but why would I get it in the select? By this point I would assume the query would have executed and returned the results. This little ditty of code does nothing to constrain my data at all. Any tips on how else I can accomplish what I need to with setting the isAllied flag? Thanks

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • Ruby on Rails Truncate text - can I use it for a combination of title and content?

    - by Quhby
    I have <%=link_to topic.title, topic_path(topic) % - <%= truncate(topic.description_without_embed, :length=50, :omission ="...") % But what I really want to do is to truncate both the title and the post to 50 characters. How can this be done? The output should look something like Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. instead of Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. I don't need to use the truncate method, any method would be helpful. Thanks.

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • java: "downcasting" to new object / opposite of slicing

    - by rhavin
    Sorry, i really dont know how to make a headline for that question; maybe there is a name for what im trying to do that i dont know, but i can explain it with some code: Guess you have a class that unfortunately neither has a copy-constructor nor a public static copy method. class A { private int i; // <- private, cant access String x; // <- even worse: cant access unless in same pkg! /* … other stuff, ctor, etc. … */ public A clone() { A a = new A(); a.i = i; a.x = x; return x; } } Guess further, there is some function that returns an object of that class: public static A someFn(x,y,z); Now the problem: I want to derive from that class to add some functionality. Unfortunately, i neither have a sizeof in java nor a cc or static copy method. So when i do a class B extends A { protected w; public B clone() { /* as usual */ } } then i can clone my B and get a new one, but how can i convert the returned A from someFn() into a B. Is there anyway to do the opposite of slicing in java? if i clone it, it's still an A, and i cant copy it field by field. This is all simple in c++, but how to do this in Java?

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  • Radiobutton in iphone

    - by Harita
    hi, i am using radio button image (empty circle) in button to answer the question from 3 options, and the 3 options are radio button's. i have created 3 uibuttons programmatically in tableview delegate method cellforrowatindexpath. i need when one button is selected(with filled circle image) other one if selected before gets unselected. i am using below code in button clicked method. static int _row; -(IBAction) optionClicked:(id)sender { UIButton *btn = (UIButton)sender; _row = btn.tag; if (btn.tag == 0) { if(btn1On) { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On = TRUE; btn2On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 1) { if(btn2On) { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 2) { if(btn3On) { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn2On = FALSE; } } else { NSLog(@"Error"); } } above code is doing selection of button in another row. like i am selecting 1st option in 1st row but its is selecting 2nd row button. i don't know how to use _row to check for every cell of table view.

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  • Why is my panel not positioned correctly even after setting the boundaries?

    - by nutellafella
    I'm trying to make a simple GUI with radio buttons and I grouped them into one panel. I wanted it positioned on the leftmost side so I used the setBounds method. Whatever numbers I put on the parameters, the panel won't move. Are panels not affected by the setBounds method? Or is there another way to position my panel. Here's the snippet of my code: JPanel radioPanel = new JPanel(); radioPanel.setLayout(new GridLayout(3,1)); JRadioButton Rbutton1 = new JRadioButton("Credit Card"); JRadioButton Rbutton2 = new JRadioButton("E-Funds"); JRadioButton Rbutton3 = new JRadioButton("Check"); Rbutton3.setSelected(true); ButtonGroup Bgroup = new ButtonGroup(); Bgroup.add(Rbutton1); Bgroup.add(Rbutton2); Bgroup.add(Rbutton3); radioPanel.add(Rbutton1); radioPanel.add(Rbutton2); radioPanel.add(Rbutton3); radioPanel.setBounds(10,50,50,40); //this is where I'm trying to position the panel with the radio buttons paymentPanel.add(radioPanel); contentPane.add(paymentPanel); //contentPane is the frame contentPane.setVisible(true);

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  • Using a MockContext inside a Java package not an Android Package.

    - by jax
    I have moved most of my Android code into a separate Java package. I want to run some JUnit4 tests however I can't seem to get a MockContext working. I have extended MockContext() but have not done anything with it yet as I don't know what need to be done. At: private static MyMockContext context = new MyMockContext(); I get java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at org.junit.runners.model.FrameworkMethod$1.runReflectiveCall(FrameworkMethod.java:44) at org.junit.internal.runners.model.ReflectiveCallable.run(ReflectiveCallable.java:15) at org.junit.runners.model.FrameworkMethod.invokeExplosively(FrameworkMethod.java:41) at org.junit.internal.runners.statements.RunBefores.evaluate(RunBefores.java:27) at org.junit.internal.runners.statements.RunAfters.evaluate(RunAfters.java:31) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner.run(ParentRunner.java:220) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Stub! at android.content.Context.<init>(Context.java:4) at android.test.mock.MockContext.<init>(MockContext.java:5) at com.example.zulu.MyMockContext.<init>(MyMockContext.java:34) at com.example.zulu.RoomCoreImplTest.<clinit>(RoomCoreImplTest.java:15) ... 16 more

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  • How to emulate mod_rewrite in PHP

    - by Tyler Crompton
    I have a few URLs that I want to map to certain files via PHP. Currently, I am just using mod_rewrite in Apache. However, my application is getting too large for the rewriting to be done with regular expressions. So I created a file router.php that does the rewriting. I understand to do a redirect I could just send the Location: header. However, I don't always want to do a redirect. For example, I may want /api/item/ to map to the file /herp/derp.php relative to the document root. I need to preserve the HTTP method as well. "No problem," I thought. I made my .htaccess have the following snippet. RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /cgi-bin/router.php [L] And my router.php file looks as follows: <?php $uri = parse_url($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); $query = isset($uri['query']) ? $uri['query'] ? array(); // some code that modifies the query require_once "{$_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']}/herp/derp.php?" . http_build_query($query); ?> However, this doesn't work, because the OS is looking for a file named derp.php?some=query. How can I simulate a rewrite rule such as RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /herp/derp/ [L] in PHP. In other words, how do I tell the server to process a different URL than requested and preserve the query and HTTP method without causing a redirect? Note: Using variables set in router.php is less than desirable and is bad structure since it's only supposed to be responsible for handling URLs. I am open to using a light-weight third party solution.

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  • Flex profiling - what is [enterFrameEvent] doing?

    - by Herms
    I've been tasked with finding (and potentially fixing) some serious performance problems with a Flex application that was delivered to us. The application will consistently take up 50 to 100% of the CPU at times when it is simply idling and shouldn't be doing anything. My first step was to run the profiler that comes with FlexBuilder. I expected to find some method that was taking up most of the time, showing me where the bottleneck was. However, I got something unexpected. The top 4 methods were: [enterFrameEvent] - 84% cumulative, 32% self time [reap] - 20% cumulative and self time [tincan] - 8% cumulative and self time global.isNaN - 4% cumulative and self time All other methods had less than 1% for both cumulative and self time. From what I've found online, the [bracketed methods] are what the profiler lists when it doesn't have an actual Flex method to show. I saw someone claim that [tincan] is the processing of RTMP requests, and I assume [reap] is the garbage collector. Does anyone know what [enterFrameEvent] is actually doing? I assume it's essentially the "main" function for the event loop, so the high cumulative time is expected. But why is the self time so high? What's actually going on? I didn't expect the player internals to be taking up so much time, especially since nothing is actually happening in the app (and there are no UI updates going on). Is there any good way to find dig into what's happening? I know something is going on that shouldn't be (it looks like there must be some kind of busy wait or other runaway loop), but the profiler isn't giving me any results that I was expecting. My next step is going to be to start adding debug trace statements in various places to try and track down what's actually happening, but I feel like there has to be a better way.

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  • Adding a button bar at the bottom of ListView upon checkbox select (as in gmail app)??

    - by elto
    I have a ListView with custom adapter. In each row there is a checkbox and couple of textviews. I want user to give option to delete the check marked items, so as soon as soon clicks on one of the checkbox, I want a button bar to slide in from the bottom and stay at the bottom regardless of listview scroll. This is something like the email app behavior of Motorola Cliq and to some extent gmail app itself. I have tried adding a relativelayout (containing buttons) below the listview, which has visibility set to gone initially, but as soon as user checks a button, the visibility changes to "visible". I have added a slide-in animation to it too. It is working but problem is that it is overlapping the last element of the listview which user can not checkmark if the button bar has already become visible. So I tried to set the bottom margin of the listview equal to the height of the button bar when I'm changing the button bar visibility, which solves the problem of overlap, but now the checkbox behavior has gone weird. Clicking on one checkmark tries to checkmark another checkmark in the list for some weird reason. I noticed that this happens because as soon as I change the listview margin, list redraws itself, and during this new call to getView() method of adapter, things mess up. I wanted to ask if anyone has done something like this. What is the best method to add such button bar below list while keeping the slide-in animation intact. Also, What is the footer-view of listview and can that solve my problem?

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  • How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

    - by Kyle
    I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

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  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

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  • Type casting in C++ by detecting the current 'this' object type

    - by Elroy
    My question is related to RTTI in C++ where I'm trying to check if an object belongs to the type hierarchy of another object. The BelongsTo() method checks this. I tried using typeid, but it throws an error and I'm not sure about any other way how I can find the target type to convert to at runtime. #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> class X { public: // Checks if the input type belongs to the type heirarchy of input object type bool BelongsTo(X* p_a) { // I'm trying to check if the current (this) type belongs to the same type // hierarchy as the input type return dynamic_cast<typeid(*p_a)*>(this) != NULL; // error C2059: syntax error 'typeid' } }; class A : public X { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { }; int main() { X* a = new A(); X* b = new B(); X* c = new C(); bool test1 = b->BelongsTo(a); // should return true bool test2 = b->BelongsTo(c); // should return false bool test3 = c->BelongsTo(a); // should return true } Making the method virtual and letting derived classes do it seems like a bad idea as I have a lot of classes in the same type hierarchy. Or does anybody know of any other/better way to the do the same thing? Please suggest.

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