Search Results

Search found 13807 results on 553 pages for 'undefined reference'.

Page 470/553 | < Previous Page | 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477  | Next Page >

  • Magento layout related basic Questions ?

    - by user197992
    Here is what I think about Magento (plz correct me if I am wrong ) 1)Each module has its own layout.xml stored in /interface/theme/layouts/ folder. 2)Magento loads all these layouts for current theme and creates a big xml file. Now what I am confused at . a)If magento loads /default/default/ (interface & theme) then why all the templates & layouts are inside base/default/ ?? b)what if I create my module name “page” inside my namespace “Jason” i.e Jason_Page , now what will happen to blocks in layout files which are named c)Since all the layouts are loaded and merged into one big xml file , then what happen to all those reference blocks which have same name attribute and are inside “Default” handle tag ? e.g d)what is Local.xml layout for and its use ?? e)wats the relation ship between a module name foo , and its layout name foo.xml ? What will happen to layout.xml if two modules with same name exist in diff namespace ? Thanks in advance .

    Read the article

  • Symbols (pdb) for native dll are not loaded due to post build step

    - by sean e
    I have a native release dll that is built with symbols. There is a post build step that modifies the dll. The post build step does some compression and probably appends some data. The pdb file is still valid however neither WinDbg nor Visual Studio 2008 will load the symbols for the dll after the post build step. What bits in either the pdb file or the dll do we need to modify to get either WinDbg or Visual Studio to load the symbols when it loads a dump in which our release dll is referenced? Is it filesize that matters? A checksum or hash? A timestamp? Modify the dump? or modify the pdb? modify the dll before it is shipped? (We know the pdb is valid because we are able to use it to manually get symbol names for addresses in dump callstacks that reference the released dll. It's just a total pain in the *ss do it by hand for every address in a callstack in all the threads.)

    Read the article

  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

    Read the article

  • structDelete doesn't effect the shallow copy?

    - by Travis
    I was playing around onError so I tried to create an error using a large xml document object. <cfset variables.XMLByRef = variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement.XMLChildElement> <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML, "XMLRootElement")> <cfset variables.startXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> <cfloop from = "1" to = "#arrayLen(variables.XMLByRef)#" index = "variables.i"> <cfoutput>#variables.XMLByRef[variables.i].id.xmltext#</cfoutput><br /> </cfloop> <cfset variables.stopXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> I expected to get an error because I deleted the structure I was referencing. From LiveDocs: Variable Assignment - Creates an additional reference, or alias, to the structure. Any change to the data using one variable name changes the structure that you access using the other variable name. This technique is useful when you want to add a local variable to another scope or otherwise change a variable's scope without deleting the variable from the original scope. instead I got 580df1de-3362-ca9b-b287-47795b6cdc17 25a00498-0f68-6f04-a981-56853c0844ed ... ... ... db49ed8a-0ba6-8644-124a-6d6ebda3aa52 57e57e28-e044-6119-afe2-aebffb549342 Looped 12805 times in 297 milliseconds <cfdump var = "#variables#"> Shows there's nothing in the structure, just parsedXML.xmlRoot.xmlName with the value of XMLRootElement. I also tried <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement, "XMLChildElement")> as well as structClear for both. More information on deleting from the xml document object. http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ColdFusion/9.0/Developing/WSc3ff6d0ea77859461172e0811cbec22c24-78e3.html Can someone please explain my faulty logic? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

    Read the article

  • How to: StructureMap and configuration based on runtime parameters?

    - by user981375
    In a nutshell - I want to be able to instantiate object based on runtime parameters. In this particular case there are only two parameters but the problem is that I'm facing different permutations of these parameters and it gets messy. Here is the situation: I want to get an instance of an object specific to, say, given country and then, say, specific state/province. So, considering the US, there are 50 possible combinations. In reality it's less than that but that's the max. Think of it this way, I want to find out what's the penalty for smoking pot in a given country/state, I pass this information in and I get instantiated object telling me what it is. To the code (for reference only): interface IState { string Penalty { get; } } interface ICountry { IState State { get; set; } string Name { get; } } class BasePenalty : IState { virtual public string Penalty { get { return "Slap on a wrist"; } } } class USA : ICountry { public USA(IState state) { State = state; } public IState State { get; set; } public string Name { get { return "USA"; } } } class Florida: BasePenalty { public override string Penalty { get { return "Public beheading"; } } } // and so on ... I defined other states // which have penalties other than the "Slap on a wrist" How do I configure my container that when given country and state combination it will return the penalty? I tried combinations of profile and contextual binding but that configuration was directly proportional to the number of classes I've created. I have already gone thru trouble of defining different combinations. I'd like to avoid having to do the same during container configuration. I want to inject State into the Country. Also, I'd like to return UsaBasePenalty value in case state is not specified. Is that possible? Perhaps these is something wrong with the design.

    Read the article

  • Linq - reuse expression on child property

    - by user175528
    Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

    Read the article

  • PHP Function parameters - problem with var not being set

    - by Marty
    So I am obviously not a very good programmer. I have written this small function: function dispAdjuggler($atts) { extract(shortcode_atts(array( 'slot' => '' ), $atts)); $adspot = ''; $adtype = ''; // Get blog # we're on global $blog_id; switch ($blog_id) { case 1: // root blog HOME page if (is_home()) { switch ($slot) { case 'top_leaderboard': $adspot = '855525'; $adtype = '608934'; break; case 'right_halfpage': $adspot = '855216'; $adtype = '855220'; break; case 'right_med-rectangle': $adspot = '858222'; $adtype = '613526'; break; default: throw new Exception("Ad slot is not defined"); break; } When I reference the function on a page like so: <?php dispAdjuggler("top_leaderboard"); ?> The switch is throwing the default exception. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

    - by thornomad
    I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Unable to dismiss MFMailComposeViewController, delegate not called

    - by Rod
    HI, I am calling MFMailComposeViewController from UITableViewController. Problem is, delegate method mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController)controllerdidFinishWithResult* is never called when I select Cancel or Send button in Mail compose window. Here is the table view class: @implementation DetailsTableViewController - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.section==0 && indexPath.row==4){ //SEND MAIL MFMailComposeViewController *controller = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; controller.mailComposeDelegate = self; if ([MFMailComposeViewController canSendMail]) { [controller setSubject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Ref %@",[item objectForKey:@"reference"]]]; [controller setMessageBody:@" " isHTML:NO]; [controller setToRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[item objectForKey:@"email"]]]; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; } [controller release]; } } - (void)mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController*)controllerdidFinishWithResult:(MFMailComposeResult)result error:(NSError*)error { // NEVER REACHES THIS PLACE [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; NSLog (@"mail finished"); } The application don't crash. After Cancel or Send button is presses Compose Window stays on the screen with buttons disabled. I can exit application pressing Home key. I am able to open other Modal Views form TableView but not MailCompose.

    Read the article

  • Best practice for managing changes to 3rd party open source libraries?

    - by Jeff Knecht
    On a recent project, I had to modify an open source library to address a functional deficiency. I followed the SVN best practice of creating a "vendor source" repository and made my changes there. I also submitted the patch to the mailing list of that project. Unfortunately, the project only has a couple of maintainers and they are very slow to commit updates. At some point, I expect the library to be updated, and I expect that my project will want to use the upgraded library. But now I have a potential problem... I don't know whether my patch will have been applied to this future release of the 3rd party library. I also don't know whether my patch will even still be compatible with the internal implementation of the upgraded components. And in all likelihood, someone else will be maintaining my project by that point. Should I name the library in a special way so it is clear that we made special modifications (eg. commons-lang-2.x-for-my-project.jar)? Should I just document the patch and reference the SVN location and a link to the mailing list item in a README? No option that I can think of seems to be fool-proof in an upgrade scenario. What is the best practice for this?

    Read the article

  • What does P mean in Sort(Expression<Func<T, P>> expr, ListSortDirection direction)?

    - by Grasshopper
    I am attempting to use the answer in post: How do you sort an EntitySet<T> to expose an interface so that I can sort an EntitySet with a Binding list. I have created the class below and I get the following compiler error: "The type or namespace 'P' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or assembly reference?). Can someone tell me what the P means and which namespace I need to include to get the method below to compile? I am very new to delegates and lamba expressions. Also, can someone confirm that if I create a BindingList from my EntitySet that any modifications I make to the BindingList will be made to the EntitySet? Basically, I have an EntitySet that I need to sort and make changes to. Then, I will need to persist these changes using the original Entity that the BindingList came from. public class EntitySetBindingWrapper<T> : BindingList<T> { public EntitySetBindingWrapper(BindingList<T> root) : base(root) { } public void Sort(Expression<Func<T, P>> expr, ListSortDirection direction) { if (expr == null) base.RemoveSortCore(); MemberExpression propExpr = expr as MemberExpression; if (propExpr == null) throw new ArgumentException("You must provide a property", "expr"); PropertyDescriptorCollection descriptorCol = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(typeof(T)); IEnumerable<PropertyDescriptor> descriptors = descriptorCol.Cast<PropertyDescriptor>(); PropertyDescriptor descriptor = descriptors.First(pd => pd.Name == propExpr.Member.Name); base.ApplySortCore(descriptor, direction); } }

    Read the article

  • Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

    - by user354303
    Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

    Read the article

  • How to create a generic method in C# that's all applicable to many types - ints, strings, doubles et

    - by satyajit
    Let's I have a method to remove duplicates in an integer Array public int[] RemoveDuplicates(int[] elems) { HashSet<int> uniques = new HashSet<int>(); foreach (int item in elems) uniques.Add(item); elems = new int[uniques.Count]; int cnt = 0; foreach (var item in uniques) elems[cnt++] = item; return elems; } How can I make this generic such that now it accepts a string array and remove duplicates in it? How about a double array? I know I am probably mixing things here in between primitive and value types. For your reference the following code won't compile public List<T> RemoveDuplicates(List<T> elems) { HashSet<T> uniques = new HashSet<T>(); foreach (var item in elems) uniques.Add(item); elems = new List<T>(); int cnt = 0; foreach (var item in uniques) elems[cnt++] = item; return elems; } The reason is that all generic types should be closed at run time. Thanks for you comments

    Read the article

  • transaction handling in dataset based insert/update in c#

    - by user3703611
    I am trying to insert bulk records in a sql server database table using dataset. But i am unable to do transaction handling. Please help me to apply transaction handling in below code. I am using adapter.UpdateCommand.Transaction = trans; but this line give me an error of Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Code: string ConnectionString = "server=localhost\\sqlexpress;database=WindowsApp;Integrated Security=SSPI;"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString); conn.Open(); SqlTransaction trans = conn.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM Test ORDER BY Id", conn); SqlCommandBuilder builder = new SqlCommandBuilder(adapter); adapter.UpdateCommand.Transaction = trans; // Create a dataset object DataSet ds = new DataSet("TestSet"); adapter.Fill(ds, "Test"); // Create a data table object and add a new row DataTable TestTable = ds.Tables["Test"]; for (int i=1;i<=50;i++) { DataRow row = TestTable.NewRow(); row["Id"] = i; TestTable .Rows.Add(row); } // Update data adapter adapter.Update(ds, "Test"); trans.Commit(); conn.Close();

    Read the article

  • Parallel doseq for Clojure

    - by andrew cooke
    I haven't used multithreading in Clojure at all so am unsure where to start. I have a doseq whose body can run in parallel. What I'd like is for there always to be 3 threads running (leaving 1 core free) that evaluate the body in parallel until the range is exhausted. There's no shared state, nothing complicated - the equivalent of Python's multiprocessing would be just fine. So something like: (dopar 3 [i (range 100)] ; repeated 100 times in 3 parallel threads... ...) Where should I start looking? Is there a command for this? A standard package? A good reference? So far I have found pmap, and could use that (how do I restrict to 3 at a time? looks like it uses 32 at a time - no, source says 2 + number of processors), but it seems like this is a basic primitive that should already exist somewhere. clarification: I really would like to control the number of threads. I have processes that are long-running and use a fair amount of memory, so creating a large number and hoping things work out OK isn't a good approach (example which uses a significant chunk available mem). update: Starting to write a macro that does this, and I need a semaphore (or a mutex, or an atom i can wait on). Do semaphores exist in Clojure? Or should I use a ThreadPoolExecutor? It seems odd to have to pull so much in from Java - I thought parallel programming in Clojure was supposed to be easy... Maybe I am thinking about this completely the wrong way? Hmmm. Agents?

    Read the article

  • Implementing Tagging System with PHP and mySQL. Caching help!!!

    - by Hamid Sarfraz
    With reference to this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2122546/how-to-implement-tag-counting I have implemented the suggested 3 table tagging system completely. To count the number of Articles per tag, i am using another column named tagArticleCount in the tag definition table. (other columns are tagId, tagText, tagUrl, tagArticleCount). If i implement realtime editing of this table, so that whenever user adds another tag to article or deletes an existing tag, the tag_definition_table is updated to update the counter of the added/removed tag. This will cost an extra query each time any modification is made. (at the same time, related link entry for tag and article is deleted from tagLinkTable). An alternative to this is not allowing any real time editing to the counter, instead use CRONs to update counter of each tag after a specified time period. Here comes the problem that i want to discuss. This can be seen as caching the article count in database. Can you please help me find a way to present the articles in a list when a tag is explored and when the article counter for that tag is not up to date. For example: 1. Counter shows 50 articles, but there are infact 55 entries in the tag link table (that links tags and articles). 2. Counter shows 50 articles, but there are infact 45 extries in the tag link table. How to handle these 2 scenerios given in example. I am going to use APC to keep cache of these counters. Consider it too in your solution. Also discuss performance in the realtime / CRONNED counter updates.

    Read the article

  • How do you use boost iterators

    - by Neil G
    It worked, and then I added the typedefs so that I could have a const_sparse_iterator as well. Now, when I compile this and try to use sparse_iterator, it says: /Users/neilrg/nn/src/./core/sparse_vector.h:331: error: invalid use of incomplete type 'struct sparse_vector<A>::sparse_iterator' Here's the code. More code here. tempalte<typename T> class sparse_vector { // There is more code at my previous question, but this might be enough...? private: template<typename base_type> class sparse_iterator_private : public boost::iterator_adaptor< sparse_iterator_private<base_type> // Derived , base_type // Base , value_type // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag // CategoryOrTraversal > { private: struct enabler {}; // a private type avoids misuse public: sparse_iterator_private() : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(0) {} explicit sparse_iterator_private(typename array_type::iterator&& p) : sparse_iterator_private<base_type>::iterator_adaptor_(p) {} private: friend class boost::iterator_core_access; reference dereference() const { return this->base()->value; } }; public: typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::iterator> sparse_iterator; typedef sparse_iterator_private<typename array_type::const_iterator> const_sparse_iterator; };

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Javascript inheritance: call super-constructor or use prototype chain?

    - by Jeremy S.
    Hi folks, quite recently I read about javascript call usage in MDC https://developer.mozilla.org/en/JavaScript/Reference/Global_Objects/Function/call one linke of the example shown below, I still don't understand. Why are they using inheritance here like this Prod_dept.prototype = new Product(); is this necessary? Because there is a call to the super-constructor in Prod_dept() anyway, like this Product.call is this just out of common behaviour? When is it better to use call for the super-constructor or use the prototype chain? function Product(name, value){ this.name = name; if(value >= 1000) this.value = 999; else this.value = value; } function Prod_dept(name, value, dept){ this.dept = dept; Product.call(this, name, value); } Prod_dept.prototype = new Product(); // since 5 is less than 1000, value is set cheese = new Prod_dept("feta", 5, "food"); // since 5000 is above 1000, value will be 999 car = new Prod_dept("honda", 5000, "auto"); Thanks for making things clearer

    Read the article

  • algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

    - by msalvadores
    I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

    Read the article

  • Does anyone still believe in the Capability Maturity Model for Software?

    - by Ed Guiness
    Ten years ago when I first encountered the CMM for software I was, I suppose like many, struck by how accurately it seemed to describe the chaotic "level one" state of software development in many businesses, particularly with its reference to reliance on heroes. It also seemed to provide realistic guidance for an organisation to progress up the levels improving their processes. But while it seemed to provide a good model and realistic guidance for improvement, I never really witnessed an adherence to CMM having a significant positive impact on any organisation I have worked for, or with. I know of one large software consultancy that claims CMM level 5 - the highest level - when I can see first hand that their processes are as chaotic, and the quality of their software products as varied, as other, non-CMM businesses. So I'm wondering, has anyone seen a real, tangible benefit from adherence to process improvement according to CMM? And if you have seen improvement, do you think that the improvement was specifically attributable to CMM, or would an alternative approach (such as six-sigma) have been equally or more beneficial? Does anyone still believe? As an aside, for those who haven't yet seen it, check out this funny-because-its-true parody

    Read the article

  • Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

    - by ropstah
    Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

    Read the article

  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Oddities in Linq-to-SQL generated code related to property change/changing events

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I'm working on creating my own Linq-to-Sql generated classes in order to learn the concepts behind it all. I have some questions, if anyone knows the answer to one or more of these I'd be much obliged. The code below, and thus the questions, are from looking at code generated by creating a .DBML file in the Visual Studio 2010 designer, and inspecting the .Designer.cs file afterwards. 1. Why is INotifyPropertyChanging not passing the property name The event raising method is defined like this: protected virtual void SendPropertyChanging() Why isn't the name of the property that is changing passed to the event here? It is defined to be part of the EventArgs descendant that is passed to the event handler, but the method only passes an empty such value to it. 2. Why are the EntitySet<X> attach/detach methods not raising property changed? For an EntitySet<X> reference, the following two methods are generated: private void attach_EmailAddress1s(EmailAddress1 entity) { this.SendPropertyChanging(); entity.Person1 = this; } private void detach_EmailAddress1s(EmailAddress1 entity) { this.SendPropertyChanging(); entity.Person1 = null; } Why isn't SendPropertyChanged also called here? I'm sure I have more questions later, but for now these will suffice :)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477  | Next Page >