Search Results

Search found 31606 results on 1265 pages for 'generate table'.

Page 473/1265 | < Previous Page | 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480  | Next Page >

  • Sub Query making Query slow.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please copy and paste following script. DECLARE @MainTable TABLE(MainTablePkId int) INSERT INTO @MainTable SELECT 1 INSERT INTO @MainTable SELECT 2 DECLARE @SomeTable TABLE(SomeIdPk int, MainTablePkId int, ViewedTime1 datetime) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 1, 1, DATEADD(dd, -10, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 2, 1, DATEADD(dd, -9, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 3, 2, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) DECLARE @SomeTableDetail TABLE(DetailIdPk int, SomeIdPk int, Viewed INT, ViewedTimeDetail datetime) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 1, 1, 1, DATEADD(dd, -7, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 2, 2, NULL, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 3, 2, 2, DATEADD(dd, -8, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 4, 3, 1, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) SELECT m.MainTablePkId, (SELECT COUNT(Viewed) FROM @SomeTableDetail), (SELECT TOP 1 s2.ViewedTimeDetail FROM @SomeTableDetail s2 INNER JOIN @SomeTable s1 ON s2.SomeIdPk = s1.SomeIdPk WHERE s1.MainTablePkId = m.MainTablePkId) FROM @MainTable m Above given script is just sample. I have long list of columns in SELECT and around 12+ columns in Sub Query. In my From clause there are around 8 tables. To fetch 2000 records full query take 21 seconds and if I remove Subquiries it just take 4 seconds. I have tried to optimize query using 'Database Engine Tuning Advisor' and on adding new advised indexes and statistics but these changes make query time even bad. Note: As I have mentioned that this is test data to explain my question the real data has lot of tables joins columns but without Sub-Query the results us fine. Any help thanks.

    Read the article

  • Hosting an Access DB

    - by Mitciv
    Hey, So I'm inexperienced in hosting DB's and I've always had the luxury of someone else getting the db setup. I was going to help a friend out with getting a webpage setup, I've got experience in Asp.Net MVC so I'm going with that. They want to setup a search page to query a db and display the results. My question I have is in getting the DB setup and hosted. They currently just have the Access DB on a local computer. There is basically only one table that would need to be queried for the search. What is the best approach to getting this table/db accessible? They would like to keep the main copy of the db on the local machine, so copying the entire db over to the hosted site would be time consuming, could the lone table needed be solely copied to the host? Should I try to convince them to make changes on the hosted db and just make copies of that for their local machines? Any suggestions are welcome, Again I'm a total noob when it comes to hosting databases. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How can I (is there a way to) convert an HRESULT into a system specific error message?

    - by Billy ONeal
    According to this, there's no way to convert a HRESULT error code into a Win32 error code. Therefore (at least to my understanding), my use of FormatMessage in order to generate error messages (i.e. std::wstring Exception::GetWideMessage() const { using std::tr1::shared_ptr; shared_ptr<void> buff; LPWSTR buffPtr; DWORD bufferLength = FormatMessageW( FORMAT_MESSAGE_FROM_SYSTEM | FORMAT_MESSAGE_ALLOCATE_BUFFER | FORMAT_MESSAGE_IGNORE_INSERTS, NULL, GetErrorCode(), 0, reinterpret_cast<LPWSTR>(&buffPtr), 0, NULL); buff.reset(buffPtr, LocalFreeHelper()); return std::wstring(buffPtr, bufferLength); } ) does not work for HRESULTs. How do I generate these kinds of system-specific error strings for HRESULTs?

    Read the article

  • Ajax response takes time and status is 503

    - by Suresh S
    guys, i have a html page where onclick of a button a ajax request is sent to server , the request calls a jsp page which runs an oracle procedure.The procedure runs the logic and places it in a temp table . once procedure is completed , the values are returned to the client by selecting values from tmp table. as the response is too late . the data is not received at the client side. solution: i tried to run the procedure in a separate thread using a ajax call. when the procedure is completed a global flag is set to indicate that the data is generated. if the response is 500 , a second ajax call invoked by timeout function after 10000 ms . the second call checks the global flag ,if true then reads from table and sends the response. if not again a timeout is set at the client side. this solution is not mature enough. , as the procedure may take long time to respond. please let me know a good solution for this problenm?

    Read the article

  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Django Many-to-Many Question

    - by DZ
    My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

    Read the article

  • How to load the SQL data into several ComboBox easily, am i doing the correctly or is there another way

    - by Dominic Deepan.d
    I have a Combobox to fill the data for City, State and PinCode these combobox is dopdown list and the user will pick it. and it loads once the form opens. Here is the CODE: /// CODE TO BRING A DATA FROM SQL INTO THE FORM DROP LIST /// To fill the sates from States Table cn = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=Nick-PC\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=AutoDB;Integrated Security=True"); cmd= new SqlCommand("select * from TblState",cn); cn.Open(); SqlDataReader dr; try { dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (dr.Read()) { SelectState.Items.Add(dr["State"].ToString()); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { cn.Close(); } //To fill the Cities from City Table cn1 = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=Nick-PC\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=AutoDB;Integrated Security=True"); cmd1 = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM TblCity", cn); cn.Open(); SqlDataReader ds; try { ds = cmd1.ExecuteReader(); while (ds.Read()) { SelectCity.Items.Add(ds["City"].ToString()); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { cn1.Close(); } // To fill the Data in the Pincode from the City Table cn2 = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=Nick-PC\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=AutoDB;Integrated Security=True"); cmd2 = new SqlCommand("SELECT (Pincode) FROM TblCity ", cn2); cn2.Open(); SqlDataReader dm; try { dm = cmd2.ExecuteReader(); while (dm.Read()) { SelectPinCode.Items.Add(dm["Pincode"].ToString()); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { cn2.Close(); } its kinda Big, i am doing the same steps for all the combo-box, but is there a way i can merge it in a simple way.

    Read the article

  • Code coverage with phpunit; can't get to one place.

    - by HA17
    In the xdebug code coverage, it shows the line "return false;" (below "!$r") as not covered by my tests. But, the $sql is basically hard-coded. How do I get coverage on that? Do I overwrite "$table" somehow? Or kill the database server for this part of the test? I guess this is probably telling me I'm not writing my model very well, right? Because I can't test it well. How can I write this better? Since this one line is not covered, the whole method is not covered and the reports are off. I'm fairly new to phpunit. Thanks. public function retrieve_all() { $table = $this->tablename(); $sql = "SELECT t.* FROM `{$table}` as t"; $r = dbq ( $sql, 'read' ); if(!$r) { return false; } $ret = array (); while ( $rs = mysql_fetch_array ( $r, MYSQL_ASSOC ) ) { $ret[] = $rs; } return $ret; }

    Read the article

  • Customized generation/filtering resources with maven

    - by zamza
    I wonder what is the Maven way in my situation. My application has a bunch of configuration files, let's call them profiles. Each profile configuration file is a *.properties file, that contains keys/values and some comments on these keys/values semantics. The idea is to generate these *.properties to have unified comments in all of them. My plan is to create a template.properties file that contains something like #Comments for key1/value1 key1=${key1.value} #Comments for key2/value2 key2=${key2.value} and a bunch of files like #profile_data_1.properties key1.value=profile_1_key_1_value key2.value=profile_1_key_2_value #profile_data_2.properties key1.value=profile_2_key_1_value key2.value=profile_2_key_2_value Then bind to generate-resources phase to create a copy of template.properties per profile_data_*, and filter that copy with profile_data_*.properties as a filter. The easiest way is probably to create an ant build file and use antrun plugin. But that is not a Maven way, is it? Other option is to create a Maven plugin for that tiny task. Somehow, I don't like that idea (plugin deployment is not what I want very much).

    Read the article

  • Most efficient way to LIMIT results in a JOIN?

    - by johnnietheblack
    I have a fairly simple one-to-many type join in a MySQL query. In this case, I'd like to LIMIT my results by the left table. For example, let's say I have an accounts table and a comments table, and I'd like to pull 100 rows from accounts and all the associated comments rows for each. Thy only way I can think to do this is with a sub-select in in the FROM clause instead of simply selecting FROM accounts. Here is my current idea: SELECT a.*, c.* FROM (SELECT * FROM accounts LIMIT 100) a LEFT JOIN `comments` c on c.account_id = a.id ORDER BY a.id However, whenever I need to do a sub-select of some sort, my intermediate level SQL knowledge feels like it's doing something wrong. Is there a more efficient, or faster, way to do this, or is this pretty good? By the way... This might be the absolute simplest way to do this, which I'm okay with as an answer. I'm simply trying to figure out if there IS another way to do this that could potentially compete with the above statement in terms of speed.

    Read the article

  • Controlling read and write access width to memory mapped registers in C

    - by srking
    I'm using and x86 based core to manipulate a 32-bit memory mapped register. My hardware behaves correctly only if the CPU generates 32-bit wide reads and writes to this register. The register is aligned on a 32-bit address and is not addressable at byte granularity. What can I do to guarantee that my C (or C99) compiler will only generate full 32-bit wide reads and writes in all cases? For example, if I do a read-modify-write operation like this: volatile uint32_t* p_reg = 0xCAFE0000; *p_reg |= 0x01; I don't want the compiler to get smart about the fact that only the bottom byte changes and generate 8-bit wide read/writes. Since the machine code is often more dense for 8-bit operations on x86, I'm afraid of unwanted optimizations. Disabling optimizations in general is not an option.

    Read the article

  • [jQuery] What would be the best way to perform a basic CRUD using AJAX

    - by rasouza
    I'm having trouble to make a simple CRUD in my site. I have a table of registries <table> <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a **href="<?php echo $this->baseUrl(); ?>/history/delete/id/<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>"** class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> </table> which I would like to perform a simple delete in these rows using AJAX (preferenciably with jQuery). The question is: do I have to create a function in JS and add onmouseclick event in the HTML? is there a more consistent way for doing this, like adding $('.delete').click() directly in the js file? If so, how do I pass the row ID for the ajax function? What I really want is to know how to pass the row ID to $.ajax() jQuery function through a clean! way

    Read the article

  • How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

    - by oscar.fimbres
    I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

    Read the article

  • hasAndBelongsToMany only working one way

    - by Cameron
    In my application I have users that are able to be friends with other users. This is controlled with a users table and a friends_users table. The friends_users table has the following columns: id, user_id, friend_id, status And the model User looks like: public $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Friend'=>array( 'className' => 'User', 'joinTable' => 'friends_users', 'foreignKey' => 'user_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'friend_id' ) ); This seems to work fine when viewing the Users for a user who is in the user_id column, but doesn't work the other way around, i.e. in reverse... Any ideas why? Here is the method I use to list the friends for a user: $user = $this->User->find('first', array( 'conditions' => array('User.id' => $this->Auth->user('id')), 'contain'=>'Profile' )); $friends = $this->User->find('first', array( 'conditions'=>array( 'User.id'=>$user['User']['id'] ), 'contain'=>array( 'Profile', 'Friend'=>array( 'Profile', 'conditions'=>array( 'FriendsUser.status'=>1 ) ) ) ) ); $this->set('friends', $friends);

    Read the article

  • JPA - Can an @JoinColumn be an @Id as well? SerializationException occurs.

    - by Shivago
    Hi everyone, I am trying to use an @JoinColumn as an @Id using JPA and I am getting SerializationExceptions, "Could not serialize." UserRole.java: @Entity @Table(name = "authorities") public class UserRole implements Serializable { @Column(name = "authority") private String role; @Id @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "username") private User owner; ... } User.java: @Entity @Table(name = "users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; @Column(name = "username") protected String email; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) protected Set<UserRole> roles = new HashSet<UserRole>(); .... } "username" is set up as a unique index in my Users table but not as the primary key. Is there any way to make "username" act as the ID for UserRole? I don't want to introduce a numeric key in UserRole. Have I totally lost the plot here? I am using MySQL and Hibernate under the hood.

    Read the article

  • How can a <label> completely fill its parent <td>?

    - by Shawn
    Here is the relevant code (doesn't work): <html> <head> <title>testing td checkboxes</title> <style type="text/css"> td { border: 1px solid #000; } label { border: 1px solid #f00; width: 100%; height: 100% } </style> </head> <body> <table> <tr><td>Some column title</td><td>Another column title</td></tr> <tr><td>Value 1<br>(a bit more info)</td><td><label><input type="checkbox" /> &nbsp;</label></td></tr> <tr><td>Value 2</td><td><input type="checkbox" /></td></tr> </table> </body> </html> The reason is that I want a click anywhere in the table cell to check/uncheck the checkbox.

    Read the article

  • How can I output my MySQL data into following structures?

    - by sky
    Here is the question, how can I output MySQL data into format like : userAge, userMid are the column name, table name Users. <script type="text/javascript"> userAge = new Array('21','36','20'), userMid = new Array('liuple','anhu','jacksen'); </script> Which I'll be using later with following code : var html = ' <table class="map-overlay"> <tr> <td class="user">' + '<a class="username" href="/' + **userMid[index]** + '" target="_blank"><img alt="" src="' + getAvatar(signImgList[index], '72x72') + '"></a><br> <a class="username" href="/' + **userMid[index]** + '" target="_blank">' + userNameList[index] + '</a><br> <span class="info">' + **userSex[index]** + ' ' + **userAge[index]** + '?<br> ' + cityList[index] + '</span>' + '</td> <td class="content">' + picString + somethings[index] + '<br> <span class="time">' + timeList[index] + picTips + '</span></td> </tr> </table> '; PS: I Just been told that i coulnt use JSON to output that format, so i have no idea now .< Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What are the hibernate annotations used to persist a Map with an enumerated type as a key?

    - by Jason Novak
    I am having trouble getting the right hibernate annotations to use on a Map with an enumerated class as a key. Here is a simplified (and extremely contrived) example. public class Thing { public String id; public Letter startLetter; public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } public enum Letter { A, B, C, D } Here are my current annotations on Thing @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) public Letter startLetter; @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name = "Thing_letterFrequencies", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "thingId")) @MapKey(columns = @Column(name = "letter", nullable = false)) @Column(name = "count") public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } Hibernate generates the following DDL to create the tables for my MySql database create table Thing (id varchar(255) not null, startLetter varchar(255), primary key (id)) type=InnoDB; create table Thing_letterFrequencies (thingId varchar(255) not null, count double precision, letter tinyblob not null, primary key (thingId, letter)) type=InnoDB; Notice that hibernate tries to define letter (my map key) as a tinyblob, however it defines startLetter as a varchar(255) even though both are of the enumerated type Letter. When I try to create the tables I see the following error BLOB/TEXT column 'letter' used in key specification without a key length I googled this error and it appears that MySql has issues when you try to make a tinyblob column part of a primary key, which is what hibernate needs to do with the Thing_letterFrequencies table. So I would rather have letter mapped to a varchar(255) the way startLetter is. Unfortunately, I've been fussing with the MapKey annotation for a while now and haven't been able to make this work. I've also tried @MapKeyManyToMany(targetEntity=Product.class) without success. Can anyone tell me what are the correct annotations for my letterCounts map so that hibernate will treat the letterCounts map key the same way it does startLetter?

    Read the article

  • Performance of inter-database query (between linked servers)

    - by Swoosh
    I have an import between 2 linked servers. I basically got to get the data from a multiple join into a table on my side. The current query is something like this: select a.* from db1.dbo.tbl1 a inner join db1.dbo.tbl2 on ... inner join db1.dbo.tbl3 on ... inner join db1.dbo.tbl4 on ... inner join db2.dbo.myside on ... db1 = linked server db2 = my own database After this one, I am using an insert into + select to add this data in my table which is located in db2. (usually few hundred records - this import running once a minute) My question is related to performance. The tables on the linked server (tbl1, tbl2, tbl3, tbl4) are huge tables, with millions of records, and it is slowing down the import process. I was told that, if I do the join on the "other" side (db1 - linked server) for example in a stored procedure, than, even if the query looks the same, it would run faster. Is that right? This is kinda hard to test. Note that the join contains a table from my database too. Also. are there other "tricks" I could use in order to make this run faster? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to configure multiple mappings using FluentHibernate?

    - by chris.baglieri
    First time rocking it with NHibernate/Fluent so apologies in advance if this is a naive question. I have a set of Models I want to map. When I create my session factory I'm trying to do all mappings at once. I am not using auto-mapping (though I may if what I am trying to do ends up being more painful than it ought to be). The problem I am running into is that it seems only the top map is taking. Given the code snippet below and running a unit test that attempts to save 'bar', it fails and checking the logs I see NHibernate is trying to save a bar entity to the foo table. While I suspect it's my mappings it could be something else that I am simply overlooking. Code that creates the session factory (note I've also tried separate calls into .Mappings): Fluently.Configure().Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(c => c .Server(@"localhost\SQLEXPRESS") .Database("foo") .Username("foo") .Password("foo"))) .Mappings(m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<FooMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "foos")); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<BarMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "bars")); }) .BuildSessionFactory(); Unit test snippet: using (var session = Data.SessionHelper.SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var bar = new Bar(); session.Save(bar); Assert.NotNull(bar.Id); }

    Read the article

  • Which is better Span that runat server or default asp lable ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I have a simple asp.net web page that contain a table with about 5 TR and each row have 2 TD .. in the page load I get user data ( 5 property ) and view them in this page the following are first 2 rows : <table> <tr> <td> FullName </td> <td> <span id="fullNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Username </td> <td> <span id="userNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> </table> I always used <asp:Label to set value by code but i always notice that label converted in runtime to span so i decided to user span by making him runat=server to be accessed by code, so Which is better to use asp:label or span with runat=server ??

    Read the article

  • select nodes from a line of xml code with sql

    - by wondergoat77
    I have a table that stores a huge line/entire document of xml like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <RealQuestResponse xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org /2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Success>true</Success> <Subject> <AmbiguousMatches /> <Assessment> <LandValue>0</LandValue> <ImprovementsValue>0</ImprovementsValue> <TotalValue>0</TotalValue> </Assessment> <RecentSales /> <Warnings> <Score>0</Score> <TrusteesDeedRatio>0</Tr........etc Is there a way to pull any of these fields out of the xml? it is stored in a column in a table called AutomatedRequests That table looks like this: requestid Provider Date Success Response 1 test 1/2/2012 Y <?xml version..... <---this is the xml code stored> Ive seen a couple ways but nothing like this Id basically like something like select xmlnode1, xmlnode2, xmlnode3 from automatedrequests have tried this but not working: select xml.query('RealQuestResponse/Bedrooms/*') from automatedRequests where orderid = 1266162

    Read the article

  • jtable update data not visible

    - by Thomas n
    I am running into a problem similar to what I have read here about inserted data and added data not showing up on jtable. I have tried repaint() and revalidate(), but to no avail. Basically, I have two classes say A and B. A calls a function in class B to add a row of data to the table. Here is the code.(By the way I am using Netbeans 7.1.2 to add a table and then add some code to handle the update.) public void callUpdateTable(){ DefaultTableModel myModel = (DefaultTableModel)jTable1.getModel(); DateFormat dateFormate = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss"); Object[] str = new Object[3]; Date date = new Date(); str[0] = dateFormate.format(date); str[1] = "Robot"; str[2] = "hello"; // myModel.addRow(str); myModel.insertRow(1, str); myModel.setValueAt("Hello", 1, 2); System.out.println("count = " + myModel.getValueAt(1, 2)); jTable1.repaint(); } The funny thing is on system print it prints out the value at the cell(1,2) I set the value, but doesn't show up on the table. Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Inserting object and related object into 2 tables

    - by ile
    I have two tables: Users and UserOwners. Table UserOwners contains list of users that certain user created (list of child-users) - or to be more precise, it contains UserOwnerID and UserID fields. So, now I want to create a new user... in Controller I have something like this: var userOwner = accountRepository.GetUser(User.Identity.Name); var userOwnerID = userOwner.UserID; UserReference userReference = new UserReference(); userReference.UserOwnerID = userOwnerID; if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { //accountRepository.Add(user); //accountRepository.Save(); return View(); } catch { return View(); } } What is the easiest way to add new user to a table Users and matching UserOwner to UserOwners table. Is it suppose to be something like this? public void Add(User user) { db.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); db.UserReferences.InsertOnSubmit(user.UserReference); } ...or I will have to pass two objects and after adding user I must read it's ID and than assign it to userReference object and add that object to DB? If so, how to read ID of the last object added? Thanks, Ile

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480  | Next Page >