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• IIS7 ASP.NET Session drops in seconds

  - by shxo

  For testing I have 1 isolated page - no masters, controls, …. My sessions are lost after about 30 seconds. I’ve tried setting timeout on the page itself, in web.config, both, and neither. Tried forms authentication with timeout and windows authentication. Recycle the AppPool after changes. I can response.write from the Session_Start , but I never get any response.writes from the Session_End. Some things I’ve tried: <sessionState mode="InProc" stateConnectionString="tcpip=127.0.0.1:42424" sqlConnectionString="data source=127.0.0.1;" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> <sessionState mode="InProc" cookieless="false" timeout="20"/> <sessionState mode="InProc" timeout="20"/> <sessionState timeout="20"/> No luck. My runtime is set to: <httpRuntime useFullyQualifiedRedirectUrl="true" maxRequestLength="204800" requestLengthDiskThreshold="204800" executionTimeout="600" /> I don’t know what this would be relevant, but I can’t think of anything else to post! Thanks!

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• Record/Playback with AudioQueue on iPhone

  - by Biranchi

  Hi, I am currently using Audio Queues on the iPhone to record and playback audio. What I would like to be able to do is to record some audio, allow the user to pause the record queue, and to seek back and forward through the audio to select a position from where they can start recording from again. I have got over the seeking issue by making the playback AudioQueueBuffer sizes small enough so that the play audio queue callback happens at a rate that allows the user to use a slider control to hear the audio as they adjust the slider back and forth. I think I can achieve the recording at a new position by setting the inStartingPacket parameter of the AudioFileWritePackets function that I call from the Audio Recording Queue callback. The trouble is this only inserts audio over the previously recorded audio. The file length obviously doesn't change so if the user were to go backwards and record less audio than before, the old audio still remains after the end of the newly recorded audio. Is there a way I can get the AudioFile to truncate at the point the user starts to insert the new audio, is there some other way I can remove the old audio starting at the insert position or is there a better way about going about this task? Thanks

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• Creating a UIImage from a rotated UIImageView...

  - by Magic Bullet Dave

  I have a UIImageView with an image in it. I have rotated the image prior to display by setting the transform property of the UIImageView to CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(angle) where angle is the angle in radians. I want to be able to create another UIImage that corresponds to the rotated version that I can see in my view. I am almost there, by rotating the image context I get a rotated image: - (UIImage *) rotatedImageFromImageView: (UIImageView *) imageView { UIImage *rotatedImage; // Get image width, height of the bonuding rectangle CGRect boundingRect = [self getBoundingRectAfterRotation: imageView.bounds byAngle:angle]; // Create a graphics context the size of the boundinf rectangle UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(boundingRect.size); CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); // Rotate and translate the context CGAffineTransform ourTransform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; ourTransform = CGAffineTransformConcat(ourTransform, CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(angle)); CGContextConcatCTM(context, ourTransform); // Draw the image into the context CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 0, imageView.image.size.width, imageView.image.size.height), imageView.image.CGImage); // Get an image from the context rotatedImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage: CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context)]; // Clean up UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); return rotatedImage; } However the image is not rotated about its centre. I have tried all kinds of transforms concatenated with my rotate to get it to rotate around the centre but to no avail. Am I missing a trick? Is this even possible since I am rotating the context not the image? Getting desperate to make this work now, so any help would be appreciated. Dave

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• ruby nl2br outside <code> ... </code>

  - by Julien P.

  Hi everyone, I've been struggling on this thing for a week without being able to find what I'm looking for. Here is what I'd like to do: I'm setting up a wiki where I can post all my knowledge to (yes, I know a couple things :p) but I can't render it the way I'd like to. The bodies of my posts are text fields. In order to render them the right way I run the following command: @post.body.gsub("\n", "<br />") I also have some tags with some code inside that looks like this < code my code < /code. Here come's the issue. Every line between the < code and < /code tags are changed to but it doesn'r render properly since I'm using a code render template. Therefore, I'd like to know if there is a way to change all \n to < br / except for those between < code and < /code Thank you everyone for reading this and helping me out. PS: Please do not consider the spaces after the < in each tag. I had to do this to "espace" them. Julien

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• How to correctly set the ORACLE_HOME variable on Ubuntu 9.x?

  - by nowarninglabel

  I have the same problem as listed here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/52239/oracle-lost-sysdba-password although I did not lose the password, I entered it twice in the configure script originally, and then when I went to login (localhost:8080/apex, password not accepted. I don't have anything in the database, I just want to install and use Oracle-XE. I have tried apt-get removing it twice and reinstalling, but if I try to run /etc/init.d/oracle-xe configure again and I get "Oracle Database 10g Express Edition is already configured" despite the second time removing any folders I could find for Oracle XE. I tried running sqlplus "/ as sysdba" but all I get is: "Error 6 initializing SQL*Plus Message file sp1.msb not found SP2-0750: You may need to set ORACLE_HOME to your Oracle software directory" I tried setting the variable via export. (also tried set). Tried: "export ORACLE_HOME=/usr/lib/oracle/xe/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/server/bin/sqlplus" and all the subdirectories of that. Same error every time. What is the ORACLE_HOME supposed to be set to? The only reference I have seen either just say general or say the above up to the version number then "/db_1". I do no thave a db_1. Let me know if need any clarification. Don't understand what I did wrong in this process.

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• Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

  - by contactmatt

  I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ function calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have: Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is sufficient?

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• Can't get past "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected..." error

  - by joshb

  I'm doing my first ASP.NET MVC2 project and I can't get past the "A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected..." error when trying to submit a form. I've done this in MVC1 using the ValidateInputAttribute and I've read about the breaking change in .NET 4 that requires setting the request validation mode in the web.config. Basically I'm doing exactly what is outlined in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2019843/a-potentially-dangerous-request-form-value-in-mvc-2-asp-net-4-0. Nothing's working though so I must be missing something. Here's my code: Web.config <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add path="*" verb="*" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </httpHandlers> <httpRuntime requestValidationMode="2.0" /> <pages validateRequest="true" pageParserFilterType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewTypeParserFilter, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" pageBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" userControlBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <controls> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" namespace="System.Web.Mvc" tagPrefix="mvc" /> </controls> </pages> </system.web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <handlers> <remove name="BlockViewHandler"/> <add name="BlockViewHandler" path="*" verb="*" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> </configuration> Controller action [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [ValidateInput(false)] public ActionResult Edit(Page pageToEdit) { // do stuff.... } Any ideas on what I'm doing wrong here?

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• StackOverFlowException - but oviously NO recursion/endless loop

  - by user567706

  Hi there, I'm now blocked by this problem the entire day, read thousands of google results, but nothing seems to reflect my problem or even come near to it... i hope any of you has a push into the right direction for me. I wrote a client-server-application (so more like 2 applications) - the client collects data about his system, as well as a screenshot, serializes all this into a XML stream (the picture as a byte[]-array]) and sends this to the server in regular intervals. The server receives the stream (via tcp), deserializes the xml to an information-object and shows the information on a windows form. This process is running stable for about 20-25 minutes at a submission interval of 3 seconds. When observing the memory usage there's nothing significant to see, also kinda stable. But after these 20-25 mins the server throws a StackOverflowException at the point where it deserializes the tcp-stream, especially when setting the Image property from the byte[]-array. I thoroughly searched for recursive or endless loops, and regarding the fact that it occurs after thousands of sucessfull intervals, i could hardly imagine that. public byte[] ImageBase { get { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); _screen.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); return ms.GetBuffer(); } set { if (_screen != null) _screen.Dispose(); //preventing well-known image memory leak MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(value); try { _screen = Image.FromStream(ms); //<< EXCEPTION THROWING HERE } catch (StackOverflowException ex) //thx to new CLR management this wont work anymore -.- { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message + Environment.NewLine + ex.StackTrace); } ms.Dispose(); ms = null; } } I hope that more code would be unnecessary, or it could get very complex... Please help, i have no clue at all anymore thx Chris

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• object_getInstanceVariable works for float, int, bool, but not for double?

  - by Russel West

  I've got object_getInstanceVariable to work as here however it seems to only work for floats, bools and ints not doubles. I do suspect I'm doing something wrong but I've been going in circles with this. float myFloatValue; float someFloat = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someFloat", (void*)&myFloatValue); works, and myFloatValue = 2.123 but when I try double myDoubleValue; double someDouble = 2.123f; object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); i get myDoubleValue = 0. If I try to set myDoubleValue before the function eg. double myDoubleValue = 1.2f, the value is unchanged when I read it after the object_getInstanceVariable call. setting myIntValue to some other value before the getinstancevar function above returns 2 as it should, ie. it has been changed. then I tried Ivar tmpIvar = object_getInstanceVariable(self, "someDouble", (void*)&myDoubleValue); if i do ivar_getName(tmpIvar) i get "someDouble", but myDoubuleValue = 0 still! then i try ivar_getTypeEncoding(tmpIvar) and i get "d" as it should be. So to summarize, if typeEncoding = float, it works, if it is a double, the result is not set but it correctly reads the variable and the return value (Ivar) is also correct. I must be doing something basic wrong that I cant see so I'd appreciate if someone could point it out.

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• WPF data validation is overriding theme on the interface

  - by black sensei

  Hello! Good People I built a WPF application and manage to get the validation working thanks to posts on stackoverflow.The only probblem i'm having is that it's overriding the theme i'm using. example the theme makes the textboxes look like a round rectangle but after setting the binding it look like the default textboxes. here is my code : <Button.Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="false" /> <Style.Triggers> <!-- Require the controls to be valid in order to press OK --> <MultiDataTrigger> <MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Condition Binding="{Binding ElementName=txtEmail, Path=(Validation.HasError)}" Value="false" /> </MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="true" /> </MultiDataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> code behind is : //Form loaded event code txtEmail.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty).UpdateSource(); I've tried to look into the theme file but i was quickly lost.i thought i could use that file like a web css file.Now i've disabled the data binding because of that.Is there any work around for this? thanks for reading this

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• jQuery set selected value in option box once the box has been loaded

  - by Maarten

  I want to preset the value of a selectbox based on a hidden field. I need this after an error has been detected in a form to avoid the user having to set the value themselves again. I do this by setting the value of a hidden field server side. The problem I have seems to be that the select box isn't done yet at the time I try to set the selected value. Anyone know how to solve this (possibly in a very different way?) <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(function(){ // this functions loads the state select box with states if a country with states is selected $("select#countries").change(function(){ $.getJSON("/ajax/exhibition/getstates.php?idCountry="+$("select#countries").val(), function(j){ var options = ''; $.each(j, function(key, value){ options += '<option value="' + key + '">' + value + '</option>'; }); $("select#state").html(options); }); }); }); $(document).ready(function(){ // preset the state select box on page ready $('select#countries').change(); // set the selected value of the state select box var foo = $('#statepreset').val(); $("select#state option[value="+foo+"]").attr('selected', 'selected'); }); </script>

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• STLport crash (race condition, Darwin only?)

  - by Jonas Byström

  When I run STLport on Darwin I get a strange crash. (Haven't seen it anywhere else than on Mac, but exactly same thing crash on both i686 and PowerPC.) This is what it looks like in gdb: Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: 13 at address: 0x0000000000000000 [Switching to process 21097] 0x000000010120f47c in stlp_std::__node_alloc_impl::_M_allocate () It may be some setting in STLport, I noticed that Mac.h and MacOSX.h seemed far behind on features. I also know that it it must be some type of race condition, since it doesn't occur just by calling this method (implicity called). The crash happens mainly when I push the system, running 10 simultaneous threads that do a lot of string handling. Other theories I come up with have to do with compiler flags (configure script) and g++ 4.2 bugs (seems like 4.4.3 isn't on Mac yet with Objective-C support, which I need to link with). HELP!!! :) Edit: I run unit tests, which do all sorts of things. This problem arise when I start 10 threads that push the system; and it always comes down to std::string::append which eventually boils down to _M_allocate. Since I can't even get a descent dump of the code that's causing the problem, I figure I'm doing something bad. Could it be so since it's trying to execute at instruction pointer 0x000...000? Are dynlibs built as DLLs in Windows with a jump table? Could it perhaps be that such a jump table has been overwritten for some reason? That would probably explain this behavior. (The code is huge, if I run out of other ideas, I'll post a minimum crashing sample here.)

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• Jsystem AutoITAgent does not work - java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/apache/xmlrpc/WebServer

  - by lasombra

  Even so the jar files exists and are in the correct folder, I get the NoClassDefFoundError. Why? What I am doing wrong? The Classpath definition is .\thirdparty\lib\;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\ant-jsystem.jar;C:jsystem\runner\lib\cli.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\commons-logging-1.1.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\embeddedCatalina.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\fileParser.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\filetransfer.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\j2autoit.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystem-launcher.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemAgent.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemApp.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemCommon.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\jsystemCore.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\snmp.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\stations.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\swing.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\tcl.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\vbshell.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\web.jar;C:\jsystem\runner\lib\wget.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-client-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-common-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\xmlrpc-server-3.1.3.jar; C:\jsystem\runner\lib\j2autoit\j2autoit.jar C:\jsystem\runner Setting J2AutoIt Agent to use the port: 8888 Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/apache/xmlrpc/WebServer at com.jsystem.j2autoit.AutoItAgent.startAutoItWebServer(AutoItAgent.java:665) at com.jsystem.j2autoit.AutoItAgent.main(AutoItAgent.java:348) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.apache.xmlrpc.WebServer at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) ... 2 more

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• SqlBulkCopy causes Deadlock on SQL Server 2000.

  - by megatoast

  I have a customized data import executable in .NET 3.5 which the SqlBulkCopy to basically do faster inserts on large amounts of data. The app basically takes an input file, massages the data and bulk uploads it into a SQL Server 2000. It was written by a consultant who was building it with a SQL 2008 database environment. Would that env difference be causing this? SQL 2000 does have the bcp utility which is what BulkCopy is based on. So, When we ran this, it triggered a Deadlock error. Error details: Transaction (Process ID 58) was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction. I've tried numerous ways to try to resolve it. like temporarily setting the connection string variable MultipleActiveResultSets=true, which wasn't ideal, but it still gives a Deadlock error. I also made sure it wasn't a connection time out problem. here's the function. Any advice? /// <summary> /// Bulks the insert. /// </summary> public void BulkInsert(string destinationTableName, DataTable dataTable) { SqlBulkCopy bulkCopy; if (this.Transaction != null) { bulkCopy = new SqlBulkCopy ( this.Connection, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock, this.Transaction ); } else { bulkCopy = new SqlBulkCopy ( this.Connection.ConnectionString, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock | SqlBulkCopyOptions.UseInternalTransaction ); } bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("FeeScheduleID", "FeeScheduleID"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("ProcedureID", "ProcedureID"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("AltCode", "AltCode"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("AltDescription", "AltDescription"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Fee", "Fee"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Discount", "Discount"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Comment", "Comment"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Description", "Description"); bulkCopy.BatchSize = dataTable.Rows.Count; bulkCopy.DestinationTableName = destinationTableName; bulkCopy.WriteToServer(dataTable); bulkCopy = null; }

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• Archive log transfer from Oracle 9i to Oracle 10g

  - by Jamie Love

  Hi all, I have a situation where I need to transfer Oracle 9i archive logs to an Oracle 10g database, from where they are to be mined by a log-miner and then used by an Oracle streams capture/apply processes. (Oracle 9 archive logs can be read by the Oracle 10 logminer - I can manually copy the archive logs across, manually register them and have them mined, captured then applied). The difficulty is that the way Oracle does archive log transfer changed quite a bit between 9i and 10g and setting up the 9i database to transfer to the remote machine like so: log_archive_dest_state_2 = enable log_archive_dest_2 = "service=OTHERMACHINE arch optional" no longer works. I get this in the 9i logs: *** 2009-05-22 04:03:44.149 RFS network connection lost at host 'OTHERMACHINE' Error 3113 attaching RFS server to standby instance at host 'OTHERMACHINE' Error 3113 attaching to destination LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2 standby host 'OTHERMACHINE' Heartbeat failed to connect to standby 'OTHERMACHINE'. Error is 3113. *** 2009-05-22 04:03:44.150 kcrrfail: dest:2 err:3113 force:0 ORA-03113: end-of-file on communication channel And in the 10g log I get: Fri May 22 04:07:42 2009 WARNING: inbound connection timed out (ORA-3136) My question is: Does anyone know how I could configure my 9i or 10g server such that the 10g server will accept the 9i connection in such a way that I can transfer the 9i archive logs to the 10g server. It would be a bonus if the archive logs would be automatically registered in the 10g server. Note I have not set up a full DataGuard configuration here and the 10g database is not a secondary server. Thanks for any suggestions. Edit Note that I can log on to the 10g server from the 9i server via sqlplus, so connectivity is not the problem Edit 2 After a large amount of time searching for a solution, I've finally decided that such a mechanism doesn't work, and that a non-Oracle method of transferring archive logs from 9i to 10g will need to be used (e.g. rsync).

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• How to reliably send a request cross domain and cross browser on page unload

  - by Agmin

  I have javascript code that's loaded by 3rd parties. The javascript keeps track of a number of metrics, and when a user exits the page I'd like to send the metrics back to my server. Due to XSS checks in some browsers, like IE, I cannot do a simple jquery.ajax() call. Instead, I'm appending an image src to the page with jquery. Here's the code, cased by browser: function record_metrics() { //Arbitrary code execution here to set test_url $esajquery('#MainDiv').append("<img src='" + test_url + "' />"); } if ($esajquery.browser.msie) { window.onbeforeunload = function() { record_metrics(); } } else { $esajquery(window).unload( function(){ record_metrics(); } ); } FF aborts the request to "test_url" if I use window.onbeforeunload, and IE8 doesn't work with jquery's unload(). IE8 also fails to work if the arbitrary test_url setting code is too long, although IE8 seems to work fine if the is immediately appended to the DOM. Is there a better way to solve this issue? Unfortunately this really needs to execute when a user leaves the page.

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• Is it possible to make a persistent connection between a Python web service and a .Net WCF Client?

  - by Ad Hock

  I have a .Net 3.5 SOAP client written in C# using the WCF. It's expecting basicHTTPBinding and a persistent connection with HTTP/1.1. I'm trying to create a Python 2.6 application that will act as a web-service for the client. My problem is that the client keeps closing the connection and opening a new one for every command to the web service. How does the .Net WCF client know to stay open when connecting with a .Net Service? When I create a dummy .Net web service the client connects fine and the connection remains persistent. From what I can tell, when connected to a .Net server, there are no special HTTP headers being sent, that makes sense since HTTP/1.1 assumes a persistent connection unless otherwise specified (right?). However, with the python web service I accept/open a connection and eventually the client will send a TCP FIN and the connection will close (the client never sends a FIN or RST when connecting to a .Net service). The communication goes something like this: Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #1 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- Body of Command #1 Outgoing -- ACK Command #1 (HTTP headers and body) Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #2 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- TCP FIN <Connection closes> <New connection opens and SOAP command #2 (with full HTTP headers) is sent> I'm using a SocketServer.ThreadingTCPServer as the server and a BaseHTTPServer.BaseHTTPRequestHandler for any requests. The handler is actually a derived class of that with a do_POST method to handle the HTTP headers. I've looked at WireShark captures and I'm stumped. I've tried setting socket options to SO_KEEPALIVE and SO_REUSEADDR in the server but that didn't seem to change anything. What am I missing?

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• Why does IIS respond to a secure(SSL) page request with a 302 to its non-secure version?

  - by ISawrub

  I have SSL installed at the root of a server. I have a page whose code behind code is supposed to redirect after certain validation to a secure page. Here's the redirect code: switch (PageBase2.GetParameterValue("Environment")) //Retrieves App Setting named Environment from web.config { case "Server": strURL = @"https://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; case "Local": strURL = @"http://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; default: strURL = @"https://" + HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority + "/checkout/payment.aspx"; break; } Response.Redirect(strURL, false); But the page that's been served by IIS is non-secure. I looked at the firebug console and it appears that the client does make a get request to https://server/checkout/payment.aspx but IIS responds with a 302 to http://server/checkout/payment.aspx Any clues, as to what could be causing it. I've even tried forcing SSL for the page, but it doesn't work I get 403.4 error. (SSL is required to view this resource.) And if i remove the redirection logic and code the payment page to redirect to its SSL version when the connection is not secure using Request.IsSecureConnection, i end up with an endless redirect loop, simply because IIS still won't serve the secure version without a 302. Any ideas?

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• How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

  - by Soul_Master

  I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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• Changing URI suffix in Joomla when adding child php pages

  - by Sleem

  I have added a new directory in my joomla website: http://sitedomain.tld/xxx/ then I have added index.php in that directory here is the code define( '_JEXEC', 1 ); define('JPATH_BASE', '..' ); define( 'DS', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR ); require_once ( '../includes/defines.php' ); require_once ( '../includes/framework.php' ); //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark( 'afterLoad' ) : null; /** * CREATE THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe =& JFactory::getApplication('site'); $template_name = $mainframe->getTemplate();; $mainframe->initialise(); JPluginHelper::importPlugin('system'); /** * ROUTE THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe->route(); // authorization $Itemid = JRequest::getInt( 'Itemid'); $mainframe->authorize($Itemid); // trigger the onAfterRoute events //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark('afterRoute') : null; //$mainframe->triggerEvent('onAfterRoute'); /** * DISPATCH THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $option = JRequest::getCmd('option'); //$mainframe->dispatch($option); // trigger the onAfterDispatch events //JDEBUG ? $_PROFILER->mark('afterDispatch') : null; //$mainframe->triggerEvent('onAfterDispatch'); /** * RENDER THE APPLICATION * * NOTE : */ $mainframe->render(); /** * RETURN THE RESPONSE */ var_dump($document->getHeadData()); echo JResponse::toString($mainframe->getCfg('gzip')); sdwdwd wdwd When I view this page in the browser, all the dynamic links like CSS, JS and images were suffixed by the /xxx/ path which make them broken ! How can I drop this suffix or how do I change this suffix from /xxx to / to it points to the original files location? I have tried setting the JDocument::setBase and also tried to play with the JURI object and changed its _path and _uri without any change Thanks

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• Thumbnail Provider not working

  - by Dan

  I'm trying to write a Windows Explorer thumbnail handler for our custom file type. I've got this working fine for the preview pane, but am having trouble getting it to work for the thumbnails. Windows doesn't even seem to be trying to call the DllGetClassObject entry point. Before I continue, note that I'm using Windows 7 and unmanaged C++. I've registered the following values in the registry: HKCR\CLSID\<my guid> HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32 (default value being path to my DLL) HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32\ThreadingModel (value = "Apartment") HKCR\.<my ext>\shellex\{E357FCCD-A995-4576-B01F-234630154E96} (value = my guid) I've also tried using the Win SDK sample, and that doesn't work. And also the sample project in this article (http://www.codemonkeycodes.com/2010/01/11/ithumbnailprovider-re-visited/), and that doesn't work. I'm new to shell programming, so not really sure the best way of debugging this. I've tried attaching the debugger to explorer.exe, but that doesn't seem to work (breakpoints get disabled, and none of my OutputDebugStrings get displayed in the output window). Note that I tried setting the "DesktopProcess" in the registry as described in the WinSDK docs for debugging the shell, but I'm still only seeing one explorer.exe in the task manager - so that "may" be why I can't debug it?? Any help with this would be greatly appreciated! Regards, Dan.

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• Precompiled headers question

  - by Kotti

  Hello! I am right now reorganizing my project and what recently was a simple application now became a pair of C++ projects - static library and real application. I would like to share one precompiled header between two projects, but face some troubles with setting up the .pdb file paths. Assume my first project is called Library and builds it's .lib file with a corresponding Library.pdb file. Now, the second project is called Application and builds everything into the same folder (.exe and another Application.pdb file). Right now my both projects create their own precompiled headers file (Library.pch and Application.pch) based on one actual header file. It works, but I think it's a waste of time and I also think there should be a way to share one precompiled header between two projects. If in my Application project I try to set the Use Precompiled Header (/Yu) option and set it to Library.pch, it wouldn't work, because of the following error: error C2858: command-line option 'program database name "Application.pdb" inconsistent with precompiled header, which used "Library.pdb". So, does anyone know some trick or way to share one precompiled header between two projects preserving proper debug information?

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• Fetch request error: no entity? Probably easy, but help!

  - by cksubs

  Hi, I'm going through the Stanford iPhone course. I'm on the second Paparazzi assignment. I'm getting this error: * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'executeFetchRequest:error: A fetch request must have an entity.' I've copied a lot of the code from this walkthrough site. Running his source code works perfectly, and at this point my code is pretty much exactly the same as his. But it throws that error. See below for the relavent bits: // Create FetchRequest NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Person" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; // Set the sort descriptor NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"personName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptors release]; [sortDescriptor release]; // set up NSFetchedResultsController to hold the fetch NSFetchedResultsController *frc = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"personCache"]; // execute the fetch NSError *error; NSLog(@"Prints Here"); [frc performFetch:&error]; NSLog(@"Doesn't Print Here"); I'm clearly setting the entity with [request setEntity:entity]. So the error has me stumped. Is there something I'm missing? Maybe in another file? I don't know. I'm still so confused with Objective-C.... Thanks.

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• Visual Studio 2008 project organization for executable and assembly

  - by user304582

  Hi - I am having a problem setting up the following in Visual Studio 2008: a parent project which includes the entrypoint Main() method class and which declares an interface, and a child project which has classes that implement the interface declared in the parent project. I have specified that Parent's Output type is a Console application, and Child's Output type is a Class library. In Child I have add a reference to the Parent as a project, and specified that Child depends on Parent and that the build order should be Parent, then Child. The build succeeds, and as far I can tell, the right things show up in the Child/bin/debug directory: Parent.exe and Child.dll. However, if I run Parent.exe, then at the point when it should load a class from the Child.dll, it fails with the error message: exception executing operation System.TypeLoadException: Could not load type 'Child.some.class' from assembly 'Parent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'. I guess I'm confused as to how to get the Parent and Child projects to play together. I plan on having more child projects that use the same framework that is set up in the Parent, and so I do not want to move the entrypoint class down into the Child project. If I try to specify that the Child project is also a Console application, then the build process fails because there is no Main() entrypoint class in the child (even though the Parent project is included as a reference). Any help would be welcome! Thanks, Martin

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• SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

  - by Nev_Rahd

  Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

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