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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • Scrolling to the bottom of a div on page load: issue with syntaxhighlighter

    - by Rayne
    I've been using this code: var objDiv = document.getElementById("code"); objDiv.scrollTop = objDiv.scrollHeight; to scroll to the very bottom of the div. It worked perfectly in FF and Chrome (I asked a question about it not working in Chrome a few days ago, but it appears the guy who was testing it on Chrome was incorrect, so I tested it myself) until I started syntax highlighting the code that I put in the div with SyntaxHighlighter. Before, I was putting the code in a <p> and breaking lines with <br />, but the <br /> stuff doesn't fly with SyntaxHighlighter, so I replaced all of those with newlines (not entirely certain if this is important, but it's worth mentioning). Now, when the page loads, it does scroll, but not all the way down. It scrolls nearly to the bottom. I've tried all the methods listed in the other question I mentioned but they all do the same thing, or nothing at all. Is there anything else I can try? Here is the relevant piece of the generated HTML. Forgive the poor formatting, I'm not writing the HTML by hand, but rather using Hiccup with Clojure, and it doesn't bother with formatting. <div class="scroll" id="code"><pre class="brush: clojure">=> (doseq [x (range 1 100)] (println x)) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 nil </pre></div><script type="text/javascript">var objDiv = document.getElementById("code"); objDiv.scrollTop = objDiv.scrollHeight;</script>

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  • How to display default text "--Select Team --" in combo box on pageload in WPF?

    - by Aditya
    Hi, In a WPF app, in MVP app I have a combo box,for which I display the data fetched from Database. Before the items added to the Combo box, I want to display the default text such as " -- Select Team --" , so that on pageload it displays and on selecting it the text should be cleared and the items should be displayed. Selecting data from DB is happening. I need to display the default text until the user selects an item from combo box. Please guide me Thanks Ramm

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  • How do I dump the data of some SQLite3 tables?

    - by J. Pablo Fernández
    How do I dump the data, and only the data, not the schema, of some SQLite3 tables of a database (not all the tables)? The dump should be in SQL format, as it should be easily re-entered into the database latter and should be done from the command line. Something like sqlite3 db .dump but without dumping the schema and selecting which tables to dump.

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  • Debug irrelevant Wordpress search results

    - by konzepz
    On Wordpress, I keep getting irrelevant search results. Some search strings that do not exist on the DB yield All Posts as results. Some search strings that DO exist, works great. What could be the cause of that behavior? I've uninstalled all related plugins. Is there a way to debug the search? Thanks!

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  • Flex/Flash 4 ExternalInterface.call - trying to get a string from HTML to Actionscript.

    - by Setori
    Dear all, I need to obtain a string from HTML and put it into Actionscript. the actionscript: import flash.external.ExternalInterface; protected function getUserName():void{ var isAvailable:Boolean = ExternalInterface.available; var findUserName:String = "findUserName"; if(isAvailable){ var foundUserName:String = ExternalInterface.call(findUserName); Alert.show(foundUserName);}} the javascript: function findUserName() { var label = document.getElementById("username-label"); if(label.value != ""){ alert("the name in the box is: " + label.value); return label.value;} else return "nothing in the textbox";}} the JSP: <%IUserSession userSession = SessionManager.getSession();%> <logic:notEmpty name="userSession"> <logic:notEqual value="anonymous" name="userSession" property="userLoginId"> <td align="right" width="10%" > <input id="username-label" type="text" value="<bean:write name="userSession" property="userLoginId"/>" /> </td> </logic:notEqual> </logic:notEmpty> the rendered HTML: <td align="right" width="10%"> <input id="username-label" type="text" value="a-valid-username" /> </td> when the javascript execution hits var label = document.getElementById("username-label"); a null is returned and crashes, no alert shows no error message is shown. firfox 3.5 windows, container is Tomcat. Please advise, and thank you in advance.

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  • Changing the parameters of a Javascript function using GreaseMonkey

    - by Dave
    There are a lot of questions here about Greasemonkey, but I didn't see anything directly related to my question. I'm on a website that uses a text editor control, and it's really annoying that they don't allow horizontal resizing (only vertical). So if you are using a cheapo projector that only supports 1024x768, the text runs off of the screen and there's nothing you can do about it. I looked at the page source, and found the section of code that I want Greasemonkey to modify: <script type="text/javascript"> // TinyMCE instance type: CD_TinyMCE tinyMCE.init({ convert_urls : "", mode : "specific_textareas", editor_selector : "rte", theme : "advanced", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location : "bottom", theme_advanced_resizing : true, **theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : false**, ... I just want to change the boldfaced value to true. I tried to approach this the brute force way and replace the text this way: function allowHorizontalResize() { var search_string = "theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : false"; var replace_string = "theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : true"; var doc_text = document.body.innerHTML; document.body.innerHTML = doc_text.replace( search_string, replace_string); } ...but it doesn't work. However, I know the basic search and replace part works because I can use this script to replace text within the editor -- I just can't change the javascript code that initializes the text editor. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong? Is this even possible?

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  • How to auto generate id.

    - by user267047
    hello Dear i just need to auto generate id like abc101,abc102,abc103,....abc10n and it should be store in DB table. and also it should be show in any textbox at runtime . Please give a proper solution.... Special Thanks in advance :) Regards. Pradeep Kodley

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  • jQuery add() function and the context of jQuery objects

    - by patrick
    Given the following HTML example... <div id='div1'>div one</div> <div id='div2'>div two</div> ...I found that the following jQuery code... $('#div1').click(function() { var $d = $(this); // Using 'this' instead of '#div1' $d.add('#div2').remove(); }); ...would not add #div2 to the set referenced by $d, but this code... $('#div1').click(function() { var $d = $('#div1'); // Using '#div1' instead of 'this' $d.add('#div2').remove(); }); ...successfully added #div2. Upon consulting firebug, I found that using $(this) gave the jQuery object a context of #div1, but doing $('#div1') gave the object a context of document. Given this information I tried... var $d = $(this, document); ...and the add() function worked as expected. So here's the question. Could someone please explain to my why a different context is assigned when using $(this) vs $('#div1')? Thanks much!

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  • javascript plugin - singleton pattern?

    - by Adam Kiss
    intro Hello, I'm trying to develop some plugin or/*and* object in javascript, which will control some properties over some object. It will also use jQuery, to ease development. idea This is in pseudocode to give you an idea, since I can't really describe it in english with the right words, it's impossible to go and use google to find out what I want to use (and learn). I will have plugin (maybe object?) with some variables and methods: plugin hideshow(startupconfig){ var c, //collection add: function(what){ c += what; }, do: function(){ c.show().hide().stop(); //example code } } and I will use it this way (or sort-of): var p = new Plugin(); p .add($('p#simple')) .add($('p#simple2')) .do(); note I'm not really looking for jQuery plugin tutorials - it's more like usage of singleton pattern in document in javascript, jQuery is mentione only because it will be used to modify dom and simplify selectors, jQuery plugin maybe just for that one little function add. I'm looking for something, that will sit on top of my document and call functions from itselft based on timer, or user actions, or whatever. problems I don't really know where to start with construction of this object/plugin I'm not really sure how to maintain one variable, which is collection of jQuery objects (something like $('#simple, #simple2');) I would maybe like to extedn jQuery with $.fn.addToPlugin to use chaining of objects, but that should be simple (really just each( p.add($(this)); )) I hope I make any sense, ideas, links or advices appreciated.

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  • Use cases for NoSQL

    - by seengee
    NoSQL has been getting a lot of attention in the industry recently. Really interested in peoples thoughts on the best use-cases for its use over relational database storage. What should trigger a developer into thinking that particular datasets are more suited to a NoSQL solution like Redis/CouchDB/MongoDB/Cassandra etc. Would also be really interested to hear what people have ported from relational db's to NoSQL and what improvements they have seen.

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  • Can you have multiple clipping regions in an HTML Canvas?

    - by emh
    I have code that loads a bunch of images into hidden img elements and then a Javascript loop which places each image onto the canvas. However, I want to clip each image so that it is a circle when placed on the canvas. My loop looks like this: $$('#avatars img').each(function(avatar) { var canvas = $('canvas'); var context = canvas.getContext('2d'); var x = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.width); var y = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.height); context.beginPath(); context.arc(x+24, y+24, 20, 0, Math.PI * 2, 1); context.clip(); context.strokeStyle = "black"; context.drawImage(document.getElementById(avatar.id), x, y); context.stroke(); }); Problem is, only the first image is drawn (or is visible). If I remove the clipping logic: $$('#avatars img').each(function(avatar) { var canvas = $('canvas'); var context = canvas.getContext('2d'); var x = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.width); var y = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.height); context.drawImage(document.getElementById(avatar.id), x, y); }); Then all my images are drawn. Is there a way to get each image individually clipped? I tried resetting the clipping area to be the entire canvas between images but that didn't work.

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  • Fleunt NHibernate not working outside of nunit test fixtures

    - by thorkia
    Okay, here is my problem... I created a Data Layer using the RTM Fluent Nhibernate. My create session code looks like this: _session = Fluently.Configure(). Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard.UsingFile("Data.s3db")) .Mappings( m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductMap>(); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ProductLogMap>(); }) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory(); When I reference the module in a test project, then create a test fixture that looks something like this: [Test] public void CanAddProduct() { var product = new Product {Code = "9", Name = "Test 9"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); using (ISession session = OrmHelper.OpenSession()) { var fromDb = session.Get<Product>(product.Id); Assert.IsNotNull(fromDb); Assert.AreNotSame(fromDb, product); Assert.AreEqual(fromDb.Id, product.Id); } My tests pass. When I open up the created SQLite DB, the new Product with Code 9 is in it. the tables for Product and ProductLog are there. Now, when I create a new console application, and reference the same library, do something like this: Product product = new Product() {Code = "10", Name = "Hello"}; IProductRepository repository = new ProductRepository(); repository.AddProduct(product); Console.WriteLine(product.Id); Console.ReadLine(); It doesn't work. I actually get pretty nasty exception chain. To save you lots of head aches, here is the summary: Top Level exception: An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail.\r\n\r\n The PotentialReasons collection is empty The Inner exception: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Both the unit test library and the console application reference the exact same version of System.Data.SQLite. Both projects have the exact same DLLs in the debug folder. I even tried copying SQLite DB the unit test library created into the debug directory of the console app, and removed the build schema lines and it still fails If anyone can help me figure out why this won't work outside of my unit tests it would be greatly appreciated. This crazy bug has me at a stand still.

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  • C# Reading and Writing a Char[] to and from a Byte[]

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I have a byte array of around 10,000 bytes which is basically a blob from delphi that contains char, string, double and arrays of various types. This need to be read in and updated via C#. I've created a very basic reader that gets the byte array from the db and converts the bytes to the relevant object type when accessing the property which works fine. My problem is when I try to write to a specific char[] item, it doesn't seem to update the byte array. I've created the following extensions for reading and writing: public static class CharExtension { public static byte ToByte( this char c ) { return Convert.ToByte( c ); } public static byte ToByte( this char c, int position, byte[] blob ) { byte b = c.ToByte(); blob[position] = b; return b; } } public static class CharArrayExtension { public static byte[] ToByteArray( this char[] c ) { byte[] b = new byte[c.Length]; for ( int i = 1; i < c.Length; i++ ) { b[i] = c[i].ToByte(); } return b; } public static byte[] ToByteArray( this char[] c, int positon, int length, byte[] blob ) { byte[] b = c.ToByteArray(); Array.Copy( b, 0, blob, positon, length ); return b; } } public static class ByteExtension { public static char ToChar( this byte[] b, int position ) { return Convert.ToChar( b[position] ); } } public static class ByteArrayExtension { public static char[] ToCharArray( this byte[] b, int position, int length ) { char[] c = new char[length]; for ( int i = 0; i < length; i++ ) { c[i] = b.ToChar( position ); position += 1; } return c; } } to read and write chars and char arrays my code looks like: Byte[] _Blob; // set from a db field public char ubin { get { return _tariffBlob.ToChar( 14 ); } set { value.ToByte( 14, _Blob ); } } public char[] usercaplas { get { return _tariffBlob.ToCharArray( 2035, 10 ); } set { value.ToByteArray( 2035, 10, _Blob ); } } So to write to the objects I can do: ubin = 'C'; // this will update the byte[] usercaplas = new char[10] { 'A', 'B', etc. }; // this will update the byte[] usercaplas[3] = 'C'; // this does not update the byte[] I know the reason is that the setter property is not being called but I want to know is there a way around this using code similar to what I already have? I know a possible solution is to use a private variable called _usercaplas that I set and update as needed however as the byte array is nearly 10,000 bytes in length the class is already long and I would like a simpler approach as to reduce the overall code length and complexity. Thank

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  • Display all images from outside web root folder using PHP

    - by micmola
    Hello, I want to display all images that are stored outside my web root folder. Please help me. I am only able to display one image repeatedly. For example, if I have 5 images in my folder, only one image is displayed on my browser 5 times. Please help me on this. I've been working on this problem for over a month now. I'm a newbie. Help. Thank you. Here is the code I'm using. images.php <?php // Get our database connector require("includes/copta.php"); // Grab the data from our people table $sql = "select * from people"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die ("Could not access DB: " . mysql_error()); $imgLocation = " /uploadfile/"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $imgName = $row["filename"]; $imgPath = $imgLocation . $imgName; echo "<img src=\"call_images.php?imgPath=" . $imgName . "\" alt=\"\"><br/>"; echo $row['id'] . " " . $imgName. "<br />"; } ?> call_images.php <?php // Get our database connector require("includes/copta.php"); $imgLocation = '/ uploadz/'; $sql = "select * from people"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die ("Could not access DB: " . mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $imgName = $row["filename"]; $imgPath = $imgLocation . $imgName; // Make sure the file exists if(!file_exists($imgPath) || !is_file($imgPath)) { header('HTTP/1.0 404 Not Found'); die('The file does not exist'); } // Make sure the file is an image $imgData = getimagesize($imgPath); if(!$imgData) { header('HTTP/1.0 403 Forbidden'); die('The file you requested is not an image.'); } // Set the appropriate content-type // and provide the content-length. header("Pragma: public"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Content-Type: image/jpg"); header("Content-length: " . filesize($imgPath)); // Print the image data readfile($imgPath); exit(); } ?>

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  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

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  • How can I distinguish between overlapping segments of text using HTML?

    - by Siracuse
    Easy question, it is valid to have overlapping spans in html? Example: <span id="1">This is <span id="2"> some text </span> some other text </span> ^ ^ End1 End2 Edit: I see now that the spans closing tag would be ambiguous about which one it is closing, and that first </span> would close span id = 2, not 1 like I intended. My problem is, I have a block of text which I'm trying to highlight based on what the mouse hovers over. This block of text is composed of sections, some of which "overlap" eachother. I'm trying to use some jQuery and HTML to present this document so when I hover over the sections, the appropriate one will be highlighted. So, in my example above, the first span is meant to be ended with the first span close tag, and the second span is meant to be ended to with the second span close tag. This is because of the semantics of my document, these are two overlapping segments. I want it so when I hover to the left, it will only highlight up to span id = 1 and the first span close, if I hover between the two "overlapping" spans, it will highlight both of them, and if I hover to the right, it will highlight from span id=2 to the last span close. However, I'm starting to think this isn't possible. Is there any way I can distinguish segments of text in HTML that allows overlapping? So my jQuery script that highlights when I hover over different spans will highlight the correct portions. Should I alternate between div's and spans? Would that disambiguate what I'm closing then and allow me the do the proper highlighting with my jQuery hover script? I'm wondering about more than 2 segments overlapping now. Sigh, I wish I could just be explicate about what I'm closing.

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  • How do I change a child's parent in NHibernate when cascade is delete-all-orphan?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have two entities in a bi-directional one-to-many relationship: public class Storage { public IList<Box> Boxes { get; set; } } public class Box { public Storage CurrentStorage { get; set; } } And the mapping: <class name="Storage"> <bag name="Boxes" cascade="all-delete-orphan" inverse="true"> <key column="Storage_Id" /> <one-to-many class="Box" /> </bag> </class> <class name="Box"> <many-to-one name="CurrentStorage" column="Storage_Id" /> </class> A Storage can have many Boxes, but a Box can only belong to one Storage. I have them mapped so that the one-to-many has a cascade of all-delete-orphan. My problem arises when I try to change a Box's Storage. Assuming I already ran this code: var storage1 = new Storage(); var storage2 = new Storage(); storage1.Boxes.Add(new Box()); Session.Create(storage1); Session.Create(storage2); The following code will give me an exception: // get the first and only box in the DB var existingBox = Database.GetBox().First(); // remove the box from storage1 existingBox.CurrentStorage.Boxes.Remove(existingBox); // add the box to storage2 after it's been removed from storage1 var storage2 = Database.GetStorage().Second(); storage2.Boxes.Add(existingBox); Session.Flush(); // commit changes to DB I get the following exception: NHibernate.ObjectDeletedException : deleted object would be re-saved by cascade (remove deleted object from associations) This exception occurs because I have the cascade set to all-delete-orphan. The first Storage detected that I removed the Box from its collection and marks it for deletion. However, when I added it to the second Storage (in the same session), it attempts to save the box again and the ObjectDeletedException is thrown. My question is, how do I get the Box to change its parent Storage without encountering this exception? I know one possible solution is to change the cascade to just all, but then I lose the ability to have NHibernate automatically delete a Box by simply removing it from a Storage and not re-associating it with another one. Or is this the only way to do it and I have to manually call Session.Delete on the box in order to remove it?

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  • Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

    - by user210119
    I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

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  • Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

    - by kanchirk
    Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

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  • How do i convert a string to a JSON object in JQuery?

    - by Rob
    I have a string in my db I want to pull into my page and convert to a json object. [ {id: 1,title: "Long Event", start: new Date(2009, 5, 6, 14, 0),end: new Date(2009, 5, 11)}, {id: 2,title: "Repeating Event", start: new Date(2009, 5, 2)}, {id: 3,title: "Meeting", start: new Date(2009, 5, 20, 9, 0)}, {id: 4,title: "Click for Facebook", start: new Date(2009, 5, 27, 16),end: new Date(2009, 5, 29), url: "http://facebook.com/"} ] How can I do this using JQuery?

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  • Run JavaScript code at ASP.NET page load

    - by vaibhav
    I have a radiobox <asp:RadioButtonList CssClass="list" Style="width: 150px" ID="rdo_RSD_ExcerciseRoT" runat="server" Font-Bold="false" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" RepeatLayout="Table" TextAlign="Left" > <asp:ListItem Text="Yes" onclick="en();" Value="Y"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="No" onclick="dis();" Value="N" Selected="True"></asp:ListItem> </asp:RadioButtonList> AS you may see second listitem is selected by default. But issue is, when my page is getting load dis() is not getting called. I want to run dis() on page load too. I tried google, some blogs suggest the use of Page.RegisterStartupScript Method. But I dont exactly know what is the problem and why we should use this above mentioned method. I would appreciate if someone please tell me why this function is not getting called and how to call it. Edit: I am giving Javascript code also, if it helps. <script type="text/javascript"> function dis() { ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=RequiredFieldValidator32.ClientID%>'), false); } function en() { ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=RequiredFieldValidator32.ClientID%>'), true); } </script>

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