Search Results

Search found 14764 results on 591 pages for 'interview questions'.

Page 474/591 | < Previous Page | 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481  | Next Page >

  • How to access generic property without knowing the closed generic type

    - by Martin Booka Weser
    I have a generic Type as follows public class TestGeneric<T> { public T Data { get; set; } public TestGeneric(T data) { this.Data = data; } } If i have now an object (which is coming from some external source) from which i know that it's type is of some closed TestGeneric<, but i don't know the TypeParameter T. Now I need to access the Data of my object. Problem is that i can't cast the object, since i don't know exactly to which closed TestGeneric. I use // thx to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/457676/c-reflection-check-if-a-class-is-derived-from-a-generic-class private static bool IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(Type rawGeneric, Type subclass) { while (subclass != typeof(object)) { var cur = subclass.IsGenericType ? subclass.GetGenericTypeDefinition() : subclass; if (rawGeneric == cur) { return true; } subclass = subclass.BaseType; } return false; } to make sure, my object is of the generic type. The code in question is as follows: public static void Main() { object myObject = new TestGeneric<string>("test"); // or from another source if (IsSubclassOfRawGeneric(typeof(TestGeneric<>), myObject.GetType())) { // the following gives an InvalidCastException // var data = ((TestGeneric<object>)myObject).Data; // if i try to access the property with reflection // i get an InvalidOperationException var dataProperty = typeof(TestGeneric<>).GetProperty("Data"); object data = dataProperty.GetValue(myObject, new object[] { }); } } I need the Data regardless of its type (well, if i could ask for its type using GetType() would be fine, but not necessary) since i just want to dump it in xml using ToString(). Any suggestions? Thanx.

    Read the article

  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are alot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Written as Pseudo code is perfect. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician.

    Read the article

  • How to implement properly plugins in C#?

    - by MartyIX
    I'm trying to add plugins to my game and what I'm trying to implement is this: Plugins will be either mine or 3rd party's so I would like a solution where crashing of the plugin would not mean crashing of the main application. Methods of plugins are called very often (for example because of drawing of game objects). What I've found so far: 1) http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cs/pluginsincsharp.aspx - simple concept that seems like it should work nicely. Since plugins are used in my game for every round I would suffice to add the Restart() method and if a plugin is no longer needed Unload() method + GC should take care of that. 2) http://mef.codeplex.com/Wikipage - Managed Extensibility Framework - my program should work on .NET 3.5 and I don't want to add any other framework separately I want to write my plugin system myself. Therefore this solution is out of question. 3) Microsoft provides: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.addin.aspx but according to a few articles I've read it is very complex. 4) Different AppDomains for plugins. According to Marc Gravell ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/665668/usage-of-appdomain-in-c ) different AppDomains allow isolation. Unloading of plugins would be easy. What would the performance load be? I need to call methods of plugins very often (to draw objects for example). Using Application Domains - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/yb506139.aspx A few tutorials on java2s.com Could you please comment on my findings? New approaches are also welcomed! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Pros/Cons of MySQL vs Postgresql for production Ruby on Rails environment?

    - by cakeforcerberus
    I will soon be switching from sqlite3 to either postgres or mysql. What should I consider when making this decision? Is mysql more suited for Rails than postgres in some areas and/or vice versa? Or, as I somewhat suspect, does it not really matter either way? Another factor that might play into my decision is the availability of tools to data pump my test data from the sqlite3 db to my new one. Is there anything that ActiveRecord provides natively to do this or any decent plugins/gems to help with this task? BONUS: How do I pronounce "Postgresql" and sound like I know what I'm talking about? :) Thanks Greg Smith for providing the following link that shows the most common pronunciations: http://www.postgresql.org/community/survey.33 UPDATE: Reference this question for more: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/110927/do-you-recommend-postgresql-over-mysql FYI: I ended up using MySQL. There is a neat plugin called yamldb that really saved me some time with the data transfer from my sqlite db to my new mysql one. Instructions on how to install and use it can be found here: http://accidentaltechnologist.com/ruby/change-databases-in-rails-with-yamldb/ Thanks Tom

    Read the article

  • Programmatically Add Controls to WPF Form

    - by user210757
    I am trying to add controls to a UserControl dynamically (programatically). I get a generic List of objects from my Business Layer (retrieved from the database), and for each object, I want to add a Label, and a TextBox to the WPF UserControl and set the Position and widths to make look nice, and hopefully take advantage of the WPF Validation capabilities. This is something that would be easy in Windows Forms programming but I'm new to WPF. How do I do this (see comments for questions) Say this is my object: public class Field { public string Name { get; set; } public int Length { get; set; } public bool Required { get; set; } } Then in my WPF UserControl, I'm trying to create a Label and TextBox for each object: public void createControls() { List<Field> fields = businessObj.getFields(); Label label = null; TextBox textbox = null; foreach (Field field in fields) { label = new TextBox(); // HOW TO set text, x and y (margin), width, validation based upon object? // i have tried this without luck: // Binding b = new Binding("Name"); // BindingOperations.SetBinding(label, Label.ContentProperty, b); MyGrid.Children.Add(label); textbox = new TextBox(); // ??? MyGrid.Children.Add(textbox); } // databind? this.DataContext = fields; }

    Read the article

  • Why is iPdb not displaying STOUT after my input?

    - by BryanWheelock
    I can't figure out why ipdb is not displaying stout properly. I'm trying to debug why a test is failing and so I attempt to use ipdb debugger. For some reason my Input seems to be accepted, but the STOUT is not displayed until I (c)ontinue. Is this something broken in ipdb? It makes it very difficult to debug a program. Below is an example ipdb session, notice how I attempt to display the values of the attributes with: user.is_authenticated() user_profile.reputation user.is_superuser The results are not displayed until 'begin captured stdout ' In [13]: !python manage.py test Creating test database... < SNIP remove loading tables nosetests ...E.. /Users/Bryan/work/APP/forum/auth.py(93)can_retag_questions() 92 import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() ---> 93 return user.is_authenticated() and ( 94 RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or user.is_authenticated() user_profile.reputation user.is_superuser c F /Users/Bryan/work/APP/forum/auth.py(93)can_retag_questions() 92 import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() ---> 93 return user.is_authenticated() and ( 94 RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or c .....EE...... FAIL: test_can_retag_questions (APP.forum.tests.test_views.AuthorizationFunctionsTestCase) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Users/Bryan/work/APP/../APP/forum/tests/test_views.py", line 71, in test_can_retag_questions self.assertTrue(auth.can_retag_questions(user)) AssertionError: -------------------- begin captured stdout << --------------------- ipdb True ipdb 4001 ipdb False ipdb --------------------- end captured stdout << ---------------------- Ran 20 tests in 78.032s FAILED (errors=3, failures=1) Destroying test database... In [14]: Here is the actual test I'm trying to run: def can_retag_questions(user): """Determines if a User can retag Questions.""" user_profile = user.get_profile() import ipdb; ipdb.set_trace() return user.is_authenticated() and ( RETAG_OTHER_QUESTIONS <= user_profile.reputation < EDIT_OTHER_POSTS or user.is_superuser) I've also tried to use pdb, but that doesn't display anything. I see my test progress .... , and then nothing and not responsive to keyboard input. Is this a problem with readline?

    Read the article

  • Faster image loading

    - by nemiss
    I want to display about 5-8 images on my page, one by one, but I would like them to pre-load one and not loading them each time i switch to anohter image. I have seen some examples where they have all images (hidden) on the page something like: <a href=""><img id="img1" src="images/image1.png" class="image" alt="" /></a> <a href=""><img id="img2" src="images/image1.png" class="image" alt="" /></a> <a href=""><img id="img3" src="images/image1.png" class="image" alt="" /></a> And the unhide the current image. And what I have is one image that i change it's src attribute for path for new images from th array. SwitchNextImage: function(){ var theimg=document.getElementById("imgContainer"); this.currentIndex = this.currentIndex+ 1 == this.totalImageCount ? 0 : this.currentIndex + 1; theimg.src=this.slideimages[this.currentIndex].src; } The first method is obviously faster loading. But requies static links. My questions is how can I make my method more faster loading?

    Read the article

  • jQuery eval of ajax inline script not throwing errors

    - by Josh
    http://stackoverflow.com/questions/606794/debugging-ajax-code-with-firebug This question is quite similar, though old and without real answers. I'm currently putting together an app that has scripts that get loaded in with an ajax request. An example: var main = _main.get(); main.load( someurl ); Where someurl is a page that contains an inline script element: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ var activities = new activities(); activities.init(); }); </script> jQuery will do a line by line eval of js that lives in inline script tags. The problem is, I get no errors or any information whatsoever in firebug when something goes awry. Does anyone have a good solution for this? Or a better practice for loading pages which contain javascript functionality? Edit: A little progress... so at the top of the page that is being loaded in via ajax, I have another script that was being included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript/pages/activities.js"></script> When I moved the inline $(document).ready() code in the page to the end of this included file, instead, syntax errors were now properly getting thrown. As an aside, I threw a console.log() into the inline script tag, and it was being logged just fine. I also tried removing the $(document).ready() altogether, and also switching it out for a $(window).load() event. No difference. May have something to do with the inline scripts dependency on the included activities.js, I guess. :: shakes head :: javascript can be a nightmare.

    Read the article

  • even PHP has 'bugs' with IE

    - by silversky
    It's not a real bug BUT for sure it is not what you would expect. I have this sample code to upload images: <?php if($type=="image/jpg" || $type=="image/jpeg" || $type=="image/pjpeg" || $type=="image/tiff" || $type=="image/gif" || $type=="image/png") { // make upload else echo "Incorect format ...."; ?> The problem is that that if I modify the extention of an image, let's say to .jpgq or even .jpg% and i try to upload it FF and Chrome will say that the file"s type is "application/octet-stream" and normaly the condition will be false BUT since IE is 'smarter' that other brow. it will say that the file is "image/pjeg and the condition will be true and the file will be uploaded and of course latter any brow. will not be able to read / view the image. It is not a bug because on msdn.microsoft.com it says that: "If the "suggested" (server-provided) MIME type is unknown (not known and not ambiguous), FindMimeFromData immediately returns this MIME type" and "If the server-provided MIME type is either known or ambiguous, the buffer is scanned in an attempt to verify or obtain a MIME type from the actual content." plus others 'inovative solutions from Microsoft'. SO my questions are: Why is IE so 'smart' and when I upload the file to server it knows the real MIME type BUT it will fail to read it from the server ? How can i work around this issue (if the file doesn't have the right extention the condition has to be false)? Is it wise to check the extention format (and not the MIME type)? is any of the above extention not recomended to use ? Should I add others?

    Read the article

  • JQuery Cycle fails on Page Refresh

    - by Darknight
    In a similar issue as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1719475/jquery-cycle-firefox-squishing-images I've managed to overcome the initial problem using Jeffs answer in the above link. However now I have noticed a new bug, upon page refresh it simply does not work. I have tried a hard refresh (ctrl+F5) but this does not work. However when you come page to the page it loads fine. here is my modified version (taken from Jeff's): <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var imagesRemaining = $('#slideshow img').length; $('#slideshow img').bind('load', function(e) { imagesRemaining = imagesRemaining - 1; if (imagesRemaining == 0) { $('#slideshow').show(); $('#slideshow').cycle({ fx: 'shuffle', speed: 1200 }); } }); }); </script> Any ideas? I've also tried JQuery Live but could not implement it correctly. I've also tried Meta tags to force images to load. But it only works first time round.

    Read the article

  • x86_64 printf segfault after brk call

    - by gmb11
    While i was trying do use brk (int 0x80 with 45 in %rax) to implement a simple memory manager program in assembly and print the blocks in order, i kept getting segfault. After a while i could only reproduce the error, but have no idea why is this happening: .section .data helloworld: .ascii "hello world" .section .text .globl _start _start: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp movq $45, %rax movq $0, %rbx #brk(0) should just return the current break of the programm int $0x80 #incq %rax #segfault #addq $1, %rax #segfault movq $0, %rax #works fine? #addq $1, %rax #segfault again? movq $helloworld, %rdi call printf movq $1, %rax #exit int $0x80 In the example here, if the commented lines are uncommented, i have a segfault, but some commands (like de movq $0, %rax) work just fine. In my other program, the first couple printf work, but the third crashes... Looking for other questions, i heard that printf sometimes allocates some memory, and that the brk shouldn't be used, because in this case it corrupts the heap or something... I'm very confused, does anyone know something about that? EDIT: I've just found out that for printf to work you need %rax=0.

    Read the article

  • How do i transfer this unmanaged code from asp to asp.net 2/mvc?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, i'm a newbie to ASP.net interop features, so what i have right here is some unmanaged dll that i need to call from my asp.net mvc app. the dll name is CTSerialNumChecksum.dll set CheckSumObj = Server.CreateObject("CTSerialNumChecksum.CRC32API") validSno = CheckSumObj.ValidateSerialNumber(no) i know it's unmanaged because when i try to add reference to the dll it doesn't work. i try to follow some tutorials on interop and marshalling but thus far i wasn't able to get the code to work. i'm trying to wrap the object into another static class and just let the rest of the app to call the code. using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace OnlineRegisteration.Models { public static class SerialNumberChecksum { [DllImport("CTSerialNumChecksum")] public static extern int ValidateSerialNumber(string serialNo); } } Questions: How do i write the class? And what tool can i use to identify what type of dll a particular file is, i.e. unmanaged c++, etc? Also i intend to make use jquery to do ajax call later so i can use this to validate my form pre-submission. Is there a better way to handle this?

    Read the article

  • calloc v/s malloc and time efficiency

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hi, I've read with interest the post "c difference between malloc and calloc". I'm using malloc in my code and would like to know what difference I'll have using calloc instead. My present (pseudo)code with malloc: Scenario 1 int main() { allocate large arrays with malloc INITIALIZE ALL ARRAY ELEMENTS TO ZERO for loop //say 1000 times do something and write results to arrays end for loop FREE ARRAYS with free command } //end main If I use calloc instead of malloc, then I'll have: Scenario2 int main() { for loop //say 1000 times ALLOCATION OF ARRAYS WITH CALLOC do something and write results to arrays FREE ARRAYS with free command end for loop } //end main I have three questions: Which of the scenarios is more efficient if the arrays are very large? Which of the scenarios will be more time efficient if the arrays are very large? In both scenarios,I'm just writing to arrays in the sense that for any given iteration in the for loop, I'm writing each array sequentially from the first element to the last element. The important question: If I'm using malloc as in scenario 1, then is it necessary that I initialize the elements to zero? Say with malloc I have array z = [garbage1, garbage2, garbage 3]. For each iteration, I'm writing elements sequentially i.e. in the first iteration I get z =[some_result, garbage2, garbage3], in the second iteration I get in the first iteration I get z =[some_result, another_result, garbage3] and so on, then do I need specifically to initialize my arrays after malloc?

    Read the article

  • Declaring functors for comparison ??

    - by Mr.Gando
    Hello, I have seen other people questions but found none that applied to what I'm trying to achieve here. I'm trying to sort Entities via my EntityManager class using std::sort and a std::vector<Entity *> /*Entity.h*/ class Entity { public: float x,y; }; struct compareByX{ bool operator()(const GameEntity &a, const GameEntity &b) { return (a.x < b.x); } }; /*Class EntityManager that uses Entitiy*/ typedef std::vector<Entity *> ENTITY_VECTOR; //Entity reference vector class EntityManager: public Entity { private: ENTITY_VECTOR managedEntities; public: void sortEntitiesX(); }; void EntityManager::sortEntitiesX() { /*perform sorting of the entitiesList by their X value*/ compareByX comparer; std::sort(entityList.begin(), entityList.end(), comparer); } I'm getting a dozen of errors like : error: no match for call to '(compareByX) (GameEntity* const&, GameEntity* const&)' : note: candidates are: bool compareByX::operator()(const GameEntity&, const GameEntity&) I'm not sure but ENTITY_VECTOR is std::vector<Entity *> , and I don't know if that could be the problem when using the compareByX functor ? I'm pretty new to C++, so any kind of help is welcome.

    Read the article

  • Exponential regression : p-value and F significance

    - by Saravanan K
    I am new to statistics. I have a set of independent data and dependent data (X,Y), where I would like to do an exponential regression to obtain its p-value and significant F (already obtained R2 and also the coefficients through mathematical calculation). What is the natural evolution from the (X,Y) data to mathematically calculate those variables. Spent a week on the internet to study this but unable to find the right answer. Often an exponential data, y=be^(mx) will be converted first to a linear data, ln y = mx + ln b . Then a linear regression will done on the converted data, obtaining its p-value etc. Assume we use a statistical tool such as Excel's Analysis ToolPak: Data Analysis : Regression, it will produce a result such as below, I believe the p-value and Significant F value is representing the converted linear data and not the original exponential data. Questions: What is the approach/steps used by Excel to get the p-value and Significant F value for the converted linear data as shown in the statistic output in the image above? It is not clear in their help page or website. Can the p-value and Significant F could be mathematically calculated for exponential regression without using a statistical tool? Can you assist to point me to the right link if this has been answered before.

    Read the article

  • SQL INSTR() using CSV. Need exact match rather than part

    - by Alastair Pitts
    This is a follow up issue relating to the answer for http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2445029/sql-placeholder-in-where-in-issue-inserted-strings-fail Quick background: We have a SQL query that uses a placeholder value to accept a string, which represents a unique tag/id. Usually, this is only a single tag, but we needed the ability to use a csv string for multiple tags, returning a combined result. In the answer we received from the vendor, they suggested the use of the INSTR function, ala: select * from pitotal where tag IN (SELECT tag from pipoint WHERE INSTR(?, tag) <> 0) and time between 'y' and 't' This works perfectly well 99% of the time, the issue is when the tag is also a subset of 2 parts of the CSV string. Eg the placeholder value is: 'northdom,southdom,eastdom,westdom' and possible tags include: north or northdom What happens, as north is a subset of northdom, is that the two tags are return instead of just northdom, which is actually what we want. I'm not strong on SQL so I couldn't work out how to set it as exact, or split the csv string, so help would be appreciated. Is there a way to split the csv string or make it look for an exact match?

    Read the article

  • Knowing the selections made on a 'multichooser' box in a mechanical turk hit (using Command Line Too

    - by gveda
    Hi All, I am new to Amazon Mechanical Turk, and wanted to create a hit with a qualification task. I am using the command line tools interface. One of the questions in my qualification task involves users selecting a number of options. I use a 'multichooser' selection type. Now I want to grade the responses based on the selections, where each selection has a different score. So for example, s1 has a score of 5, s2 of 10, s3 of 6, and so on. If the user selects s1 and s3, he/she gets a score of 11. Unfortunately, doing something like the following does not work: <AnswerOption> <SelectionIdentifier>s1</SelectionIdentifier> <AnswerScore>5</AnswerScore> </AnswerOption> <AnswerOption> <SelectionIdentifier>s2</SelectionIdentifier> <AnswerScore>10</AnswerScore> </AnswerOption> <AnswerOption> <SelectionIdentifier>s3</SelectionIdentifier> <AnswerScore>6</AnswerScore> </AnswerOption> If I do this, when I select multiple things, I get a score of 0. If I select only one option, say s1, then I get the appropriate score. Can you please help me on how to go about this? I could ask the same question 5 times with the same options, but then users might choose the same answer multiple times - something I wish to avoid. Thanks! Gaurav

    Read the article

  • PHP5 : Applying a method from an extended class on an object from the original (parent) class.

    - by Glauber Rocha
    Hello, I'm trying to extend two native PHP5 classes (DOMDocument and DOMNode) to implement 2 methods (selectNodes and selectSingleNode) in order to make XPath queries easier. I thought it would be rather straighforward, but I'm stuck in a problem which I think is an OOP beginner's issue. class nDOMDocument extends DOMDocument { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Then I tried to do extend DOMNode to implement the same methods so I can perform an XPath query directly on a node: class nDOMNode extends DOMNode { public function selectNodes($xpath){ $oxpath = new DOMXPath($this->ownerDocument,$this); return $oxpath->query($xpath); } public function selectSingleNode($xpath){ return $this->selectNodes($xpath)->item(0); } } Now if I execute the following code (on an arbitrary XMLDocument): $xmlDoc = new nDOMDocument; $xmlDoc->loadXML(...some XML...); $node1 = $xmlDoc->selectSingleNode("//item[@id=2]"); $node2 = $node1->selectSingleNode("firstname"); The third line works and returns a DOMNode object $node1. However, the fourth line doesn't work because the selectSingleNode method belongs to the nDOMNode class, not DOMNode. So my question: is there a way at some point to "transform" the returned DOMNode object into a nDOMNode object? I feel I'm missing some essential point here and I'd greatly appreciate your help. (Sorry, this is a restatement of my question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2573820/)

    Read the article

  • Lightweight development web server with support for PHP v2

    - by David
    In line with this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/171655/lightweight-web-app-server-for-php The above question has been asked numerous times and answered exactly the same in all the cases I've found using google. My question is similar to a degree but with a different desired goal: On demand development instances. I have come up with a somewhat questionable solution to host arbitrary directories in my user account for the purpose of development testing. I am not interested in custom vhosts but looking to emulate the behaviour I get when using paster or mongrel for Python & Ruby respectively. Ubuntu 9.10 TOXIC@~/ APACHE_RUN_USER=$USER APACHE_RUN_GROUP=www-data apache2 -d ~/Desktop/ -c "Listen 2990" Is there a better solution, could I do something similar with nginix or lighttpd? Note: The above won't work correctly for stock environments without a copied & altered httpd.conf. Update: The ideal goal is to mimic Paster, Webbrick, and Mongrel for rapid local development hosting. For those light weight servers, it takes less then a minute to get a working instance running ( not factoring any DB support ). Apache2 vhost is great but I've been using Apache2 for over ten years and it would be some sort of abomination hack to setup a new entry in /etc/hosts unless you have your own DNS, in which case a wildcard subdomain setup would probably work great. EXCEPT one more problem, it's pretty easy for me to know what is being hosted ( ex. by paster or mongeral ) just doing a sudo netstat -tulpn while there would be a good possibility of confusion in figure out which vhost is what.

    Read the article

  • Save email as draft in php

    - by Yorian
    Hello, The past few days I've been trying to find out how I can save emails as drafts using php. I've created an emailaddress that uses imap (and resides on the same server). What I would like to do is to use php to create an email and store it in the drafts folder. These emails would then be recognized by the email client (ms office outlook in this case) so they can be editted and send from the email client. I've found some interesting information about the imap functions from php, they let you send mail, but I can't really figure out how to store them in the drafts folder (to which I have write access). I can actually find and read the emails, I save as drafts in my email client, using my ftp connection. However they make use of UID and message-ID's and such which I don't understand where they come from. My questions: - how could I create email drafts - How does a new UID or message-ID get created, and how would I use them for my email-draft file? Help is much appreciated, thanks. Yorian

    Read the article

  • process of connecting RTP with SIP via SDP & land lines

    - by TacB0sS
    Hello to everyone, I have a problem with starting a media session and to combine it with my SIP client. I've designed a recursive SIP client that reuse the same request template to send the next requests to server, according to the acceptable sequences noted in the RFC's, and examples that I read. as far as I could tell the SIP part is working fine registers to server invites, and authenticates. I didn't complete any calls to clients yet because of the content header needs to be filled up (which I didn't yet so I get a 503 from the server which is OK I guess). for a long time I didn't know where to start with the media session, and slowly learned how to use the JMF and I've constructed an object that handles RTP transmitting, now I'm standing at the cross road, on the one hand I have my SIP signaling but it needs the SDP content header to complete the invite, and on the other I have the RTP which is knows how to p2p. For me to complete my design I require your help with the following questions: Is there an easy//a simple//an implemented way to convert the Audio/Video format from the JMF into SDP media headers? or even a generator that I would input all the parameters for the content header, and it would generate a content header fast, or do I have to implement this myself? Once I've finished constructing the SDK and the SIP is up and running and I get an OK response from the server (after ringing and all), how do I start the media session? do I connect p2p according to caller details I send in the SIP invite? If 2 is correct, then how does a connection to land lines would be? does land lines knows that once they send an OK back to server they listen/start RTP session on a specific port? Or did I get everything wrong? :-/ I really appreciate any help I could I get, I looked every where for answers but they are not clear, they ignore question 2 as if it was an obvious thing, but for me it just isn't. Thank in advance, Adam Zehavi.

    Read the article

  • Kohana 3 ORM: How to get data from pivot table? and all other tables for that matter

    - by zenna
    I am trying to use ORM to access data stored, in three mysql tables 'users', 'items', and a pivot table for the many-many relationship: 'user_item' I followed the guidance from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1946357/kohana-3-orm-read-additional-columns-in-pivot-tables and tried $user = ORM::factory('user',1); $user->items->find_all(); $user_item = ORM::factory('user_item', array('user_id' => $user, 'item_id' => $user->items)); if ($user_item->loaded()) { foreach ($user_item as $pivot) { print_r($pivot); } } But I get the SQL error: "Unknown column 'user_item.id' in 'order clause' [ SELECT user_item.* FROM user_item WHERE user_id = '1' AND item_id = '' ORDER BY user_item.id ASC LIMIT 1 ]" Which is clearly erroneous because Kohana is trying to order the elements by a column which doesn't exist: user_item.id. This id doesnt exist because the primary keys of this pivot table are the foreign keys of the two other tables, 'users' and 'items'. Trying to use: $user_item = ORM::factory('user_item', array('user_id' => $user, 'item_id' => $user->items)) ->order_by('item_id', 'ASC'); Makes no difference, as it seems the order_by() or any sql queries are ignored if the second argument of the factory is given. Another obvious error with that query is that the item_id = '', when it should contain all the elements. So my question is how can I get access to the data stored in the pivot table, and actually how can I get access to the all items held by a particular user as I even had problems with that? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to deploy EJB on server?

    - by shekhar
    Hi, I am learning EJB3 from last few days. I have many questions regarding EJB, application servers and deployment of EJB. To start with, I have created one simple helloworld stateless session bean but I don't know how to deploy it on server. It has single bean class, bean interface and one servlet client. I have used eclipse to develop this project. None of the books that I read gives step by step details about how to put EJB on server and how to access those beans. I have JBoss 6 server and I also have JEE budle downloaded from sun website. Does this JEE bundle contains Glassfish server? or do I need to download it seperately? Can anyone please give me step by step details of how to put my bean and its client on server (JBoss or JEE)? and why do we need to include bean interface class in EJB client code? I mean either we need to keep client and bean in same package or if we keep them in seperate packages we need to import bean interfaces in client code. Am I right? Thanks and Regards, Chandrashekhar

    Read the article

  • Beginner SQL question: querying gold and silver tag badges in Stack Exchange Data Explorer

    - by polygenelubricants
    I'm using the Stack Exchange Data Explorer to learn SQL, but I think the fundamentals of the question is applicable to other databases. I'm trying to query the Badges table, which according to Stexdex (that's what I'm going to call it from now on) has the following schema: Badges Id UserId Name Date This works well for badges like [Epic] and [Legendary] which have unique names, but the silver and gold tag-specific badges seems to be mixed in together by having the same exact name. Here's an example query I wrote for [mysql] tag: SELECT UserId as [User Link], Date FROM Badges Where Name = 'mysql' Order By Date ASC The (slightly annotated) output is: as seen on stexdex: User Link Date --------------- ------------------- // all for silver except where noted Bill Karwin 2009-02-20 11:00:25 Quassnoi 2009-06-01 10:00:16 Greg 2009-10-22 10:00:25 Quassnoi 2009-10-31 10:00:24 // for gold Bill Karwin 2009-11-23 11:00:30 // for gold cletus 2010-01-01 11:00:23 OMG Ponies 2010-01-03 11:00:48 Pascal MARTIN 2010-02-17 11:00:29 Mark Byers 2010-04-07 10:00:35 Daniel Vassallo 2010-05-14 10:00:38 This is consistent with the current list of silver and gold earners at the moment of this writing, but to speak in more timeless terms, as of the end of May 2010 only 2 users have earned the gold [mysql] tag: Quassnoi and Bill Karwin, as evidenced in the above result by their names being the only ones that appear twice. So this is the way I understand it: The first time an Id appears (in chronological order) is for the silver badge The second time is for the gold Now, the above result mixes the silver and gold entries together. My questions are: Is this a typical design, or are there much friendlier schema/normalization/whatever you call it? In the current design, how would you query the silver and gold badges separately? GROUP BY Id and picking the min/max or first/second by the Date somehow? How can you write a query that lists all the silver badges first then all the gold badges next? Imagine also that the "real" query may be more complicated, i.e. not just listing by date. How would you write it so that it doesn't have too many repetition between the silver and gold subqueries? Is it perhaps more typical to do two totally separate queries instead? What is this idiom called? A row "partitioning" query to put them into "buckets" or something?

    Read the article

  • log4j vs. System.out.println - logger advantages?

    - by wishi_
    Hi! I'm newly using log4j in a project. A fellow programmer told me that using System.out.println is considered bas style and that log4j is something like standard for logging matters nowadays. We do lots of JUnit testing - System.out stuff turns out to be harder to test. Therefore I began utilizing log4j for a Console controller class, that's just handling commandline parameters. // some logger config org.apache.log4j.BasicConfigurator.configure(); Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Console.class); Category cat = Category.getRoot(); Seems to work: logger.debug("String"); Produces: 1 [main] DEBUG project.prototype.controller.Console - String I got two questions regarding this: From my basic understanding using this logger should provide me comfortable options to write a logfile with timestamps - instead of spamming the console - if debug mode is enabled at the logger? Why is System.out.println harder to test? I searched stackoverflow and found a testing recipe. So I wonder what kind of advantage I really get by using log4j.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481  | Next Page >