Search Results

Search found 109760 results on 4391 pages for 'ado net entity data model'.

Page 476/4391 | < Previous Page | 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483  | Next Page >

  • jQuery $(document).ready and UpdatePanels?

    - by Herb Caudill
    I'm using jQuery to wire up some mouseover effects on elements that are inside an UpdatePanel. The events are bound in $(document).ready . For example: $(function() { $('div._Foo').bind("mouseover", function(e) { // Do something exciting }); }); Of course, this works fine the first time the page is loaded, but when the UpdatePanel does a partial page update, it's not run and the mouseover effects don't work any more inside the UpdatePanel. What's the recommended approach for wiring stuff up in jQuery not only on the first page load, but every time an UpdatePanel fires a partial page update? Should I be using the ASP.NET ajax lifecycle instead of $(document).ready?

    Read the article

  • ModelName(django.contrib.auth.models.User) vs ModelName(models.Model)

    - by amr.negm
    I am developing a django project. I created some apps, some of those are related to User model, for instance, I have a feeds app that handles user feeds, and another app that deals with extra user data like age, contacts, and friends. for each of these, I created a table that should be connected to the User model, which I using for storing and authenticating users. I found two ways to deal with this issue. One, is through extending User model to be like this: ModelName(User): friends = models.ManyToMany('self') ..... Two, is through adding a foreign key to the new table like this: ModelName(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User, unique=True) friends = friends = models.ManyToMany('self') ...... I can't decide which to use in which case. in other words, what are the core differences between both?

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between IEditableObject and IRevertibleChangeTracking?

    - by open-collar
    What is the difference between IEditableObject and IRevertibleChangeTracking (both from the System.ComponentModel namespace)? It looks as if the first supports explicit transaction whilst the second is more implicit - but the net result is the same. How should I go about implementing this in code? At the moment I do nothing in BeginEdit and call RejectChanges and AcceptChanges in EndEdit and CancelEdit respectively. My problem is that this will also accept the changes made prior to the BeginEdit. Is that really what MS wanted or am I trying to implement two mutually exclusive interfaces?

    Read the article

  • Using Linq on a Dataset

    - by JasonMHirst
    Can someone enlighthen me with regards to Linq please? I have a dataset that is populated via a SQL Stored Procedure, the format of which is below: Country | Brand | Variant | 2004 | 2005 | 2006 | 2007 | 2008 The number of rows varies between 50 and several thousand. What I'm trying to do is use Linq to interrogate the dataset (there will be several Linq queries based on user options), but a simple example would be to SUM the year columns based on Brand. I have the following that I believe creates a template for me to work with: But from here on I'm absolutely stuck! sqlDA.Fill(ds, "Profiler") Dim brandsQuery = From cust In ds.Tables(0).AsEnumerable() Select _BrandName = cust.Item("BrandName"), _y0 = cust.Item("1999"), _y1 = cust.Item("2004"), _y2 = cust.Item("2005"), _y3 = cust.Item("2006"), _y4 = cust.Item("2007"), _y5 = cust.Item("2008") I'm tried to look at examples, but can't see any that are VB.Net based and/or show me how to Sum/Group. Can someone please provide an example so I can perhaps learn from it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why is new showat attribute required when using code generation?

    - by Patrick Karcher
    When I generate code using T4 templates in Visual Studio 2010, I get the following error for each of my asp controls when I try to compile: Control "ddState" is missing required attribute "showat". I have never gotten this error in previous versions of .NET. Further, I don't get this error when I manually construct my pages either by dragging/dropping, nor do I get it when I type out the control text myself. When I generate code, I have to manually add showat="client" to my tag for the compiler to be happy. It was my understanding that I never had to explicitly specify this tag. The following: <asp:dropdownlist id="ddState" runat="server" showat="client" /> solves the problem. Why do I have to add this to generated code but not other times? (It's a VS-2010 webforms project, using VB, in case that makes a difference.)

    Read the article

  • .Net Template Engine/Report Solution

    - by runxc1 Bret Ferrier
    I am looking to add custom reports/forms to a web application. I want users to be able to upload a report definition/template file and then be able to print out a PDF or word document (one or the other it doesn't need to be both) for each of their widgets based off of the template they uploaded. I can't install anything on the server and am looking for an open source/free solution. Data Source- The data will be in the form of a datatable or dataset that the application fetches itself. The report tool does will not be able to connect to any database.

    Read the article

  • Appengine Model SelfReferenceProperty and parent child relationship

    - by GeekTantra
    I have a scenario in which I need a self reference property as follow: class Post(db.Model): creator = db.UserProperty() post_title = db.StringProperty(required=True) post_status = db.StringProperty(required=True, choices=['draft', 'published']) post_parent = db.SelfReferenceProperty() Now, I want ensure that an entity shouldn't be its own parent and a child of an entity cannot be its parent. How can I ensure this kind of a relationship in the PostForm model form and the Post model.

    Read the article

  • Django updating a single model

    - by Hellnar
    Hello How can I use the update() method on a single model which I retrieved via Queryset.get() ? It seems like model. Model doesn't have an update() method yet I cannot invoke .save() as I have a pre-save signals which messes things up. EDIT: An idea would be passing some parameter to the save method and catching it at the pre_save signal, so that I can understand the purpose, how can this be done ? Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC and Paging - Search & Result Scenario

    - by devforall
    I have forms in my page a get and a post and i want add pager on my get form .. so i cant page through the results.. The problem that i am having is when i move to the second page it does not display anything.. I am using this library for paging .. http://stephenwalther.com/Blog/archive/2008/09/18/asp-net-mvc-tip-44-create-a-pager-html-helper.aspx this my actions code. [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult SearchByAttraction() { return View(); } [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult SearchByAttraction(int? id, FormCollection form) {.... } and this is what i am using on my get form to page through <%= Html.Pager(ViewData.Model)% //but when i do this it goes to this method [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult SearchByAttraction() instead of going to this this [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult SearchByAttraction(int? id, FormCollection form) which sort of makes sence .. but i cant really think of any other way of doing this Any help would be very appreciated.. Thanx

    Read the article

  • Insert problem using ADO with classic ASP

    - by Kemal Akcali
    ' Setting variables Dim con, sql_insert, data_source data_source = "project_db" sql_insert = "insert into cart ( UserID,Count,ProductName,ProductDescription,ProductPrice) values ('"&user_id&"','"&count&"','"&product_name&"','"&product_description&"','"&product_price&"')" ' Creating the Connection Object and opening the database Set con = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") con.Open data_source ' Executing the sql insertion code con.Execute sql_insert ' Done. Now Close the connection con.Close Set con = Nothing AS you can see , it is a simple code . and it worked in my local host for 5 or 6 times. but now it didn't work. What's the problem ? I think , it's about my database or memory. i setup 2 different iis in 2 different computer and they behave same... please help.. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Web service URL being overwritten with localhost

    - by Jay Heavner
    I have a reference to a web service on a remote server like such... http://10.5.1.121/PersonifyWebServicePPROD/UniversalWebService/default.wsdl The moment I invoke the web service and view its URL property it looks like... http://localhost/PersonifyWebServicePPROD/UniversalWebService/default.asmx Can anyone tell me why it's overwriting the remote server with localhost? The vendor that provided the web service said I have to reference the wsdl and not the asmx in order for it to work. I've tried running it both within IIS and as a web app on the filesystem and neither scenario work. This is on the .Net 3.5 framework.

    Read the article

  • Typed DataSet connection - required to have one in the .xsd file?

    - by Kyralessa
    In the .xsd file for a typed DataSet in .NET, there's a <Connections> section that contains a list of any data connections I've used to set up the DataTables and TableAdapters. There are times when I'd prefer not to have those there. For instance, sometimes I prefer to pass in a connection string to a custom constructor and use that rather than look for one in settings, .config, etc. But it seems like if I remove the connection strings from that section (leaving it empty), or remove the section entirely, the DataSet code-generation tool freaks out. Whereas if I don't remove them, the DataSet gripes when I put it in a different project because it can't find the settings for those connection strings. Is there any way I can tell a typed DataSet not to worry about any connections? (Obviously I'll have to give it a connection if I change any TableAdapter SQL or stored procs, but that should be my problem.)

    Read the article

  • How can I disable a model field in a django form

    - by jammon
    I have a model like this: class MyModel(models.Model): REGULAR = 1 PREMIUM = 2 STATUS_CHOICES = ((REGULAR, "regular"), (PREMIUM, "premium")) name = models.CharField(max_length=30) status = models.IntegerField(choices = STATUS_CHOICES, default = REGULAR) class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = models.MyModel In a view I initialize one field and try to make it non-editable: myform = MyForm(initial = {'status': requested_status}) myform.fields['status'].editable = False But the user can still change that field. What's the real way to accomplish what I'm after?

    Read the article

  • Errors not being redirected to an Http handler if redirectMode="ResponseRewrite"

    - by Luk
    I see similar questions, but it looks like there were due to an unrelated issue. in 3.5, I have a custom error handler that logs errors and redirects users. My web.config is set up as such: <httpHandlers> <add path="error.ashx" type="MySite.Tools.WebErrorLogger, MySite.Tools" verb="*"/> </httpHandlers> <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="error.ashx" redirectMode="ResponseRewrite"> </customErrors> When redirectMode is set to "ResponseRedirect", everything works fine (but Server.GetLastError() being null but that seems to be intended) However, when using ResponseRewrite, my handler is not called and I see ASP.Net default error pages. Any idea on how I could do this? (I unfortunately can't use either an aspx page or do my error handling in global.asax due to other constraints)

    Read the article

  • codeigniter - pass all form values to model

    - by Patrick
    I have a registration form that collects several parameters. i need to pass all these AND a confirmation code (generated by the controller) to the model for inserting in the DB. How can I do that? is there a way to pass the whole post to the model, eg like $this->model->insert($this->input->form(), $confirmation_code)?

    Read the article

  • Single Sign On with 3 applications

    - by John H.
    I'm building three web applications in .NET that will all share a users database and login information. Lets pretend that application 1 is the "parent" application and applications "A" and "B" are the "child" applications. All users have to be logged into application 1 to have access to applications A and B. Authorization, Authentication, and MachineKey sections of all web configs are present and work correctly. I have the correct web.config settings in all applications to achieve Single Sign On except one problem remains: what do I put in the "loginUrl" attribute of the forms tag in Applications A and B. Assume that the url for the login to application 1 is "www.johnsapp.com/login.aspx" How can I get applications A and B to send the user back to application 1 for authentication using only settings in web.config?

    Read the article

  • Exception when click DataGridview tab c#, .Net 4.0

    - by Nguyen Nam
    My winform app have two tab and multi thread, one is main tab and other is log tab. I only use log tab to show logs in a datagridview control. Exception is random occurred when click to log tab (Not click to row or colunm), i have try but can not find anyway to fix it. This is the error log: Message : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source : System.Windows.Forms TargetSite : System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewElementStates GetRowState(Int32) StackTrace : at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowCollection.GetRowState(Int32 rowIndex) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.ComputeHeightOfFittingTrailingScrollingRows(Int32 totalVisibleFrozenHeight) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.GetOutOfBoundCorrectedHitTestInfo(HitTestInfo& hti, Int32& mouseX, Int32& mouseY, Int32& xOffset, Int32& yOffset) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.OnMouseMove(MouseEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseMove(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) Message : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source : System.Windows.Forms TargetSite : Void ClearInternal(Boolean) StackTrace : at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewRowCollection.ClearInternal(Boolean recreateNewRow) at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.OnClearingColumns() at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumnCollection.Clear() at System.Windows.Forms.DataGridView.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.Windows.Forms.TabControl.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.ComponentModel.Component.Dispose() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Dispose(Boolean disposing) at System.Windows.Forms.Form.Dispose(Boolean disposing) Update status code: private void updateMessage(int index, string message) { try { this.dgForums.Rows[index].Cells["ColStatus"].Value = message; System.Windows.Forms.Application.DoEvents(); } catch { } }

    Read the article

  • CRM 2011 Plugin for CREATE (post-operational): Why is the value of "baseamount" zero in post entity image and target?

    - by Olli
    REFORMULATED QUESTION (Apr 24): I am using the CRM Developer Toolkit for VS2012 to create a CRM2011 plugin. The plugin is registered for the CREATE message of the "Invoice Product" entity. Pipeline-Stage is post-operational, execution is synchronous. I register for a post image that contains baseamount. The toolkit creates an execute function that looks like this: protected void ExecutePostInvoiceProductCreate(LocalPluginContext localContext) { if (localContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("localContext"); } IPluginExecutionContext context = localContext.PluginExecutionContext; Entity postImageEntity = (context.PostEntityImages != null && context.PostEntityImages.Contains(this.postImageAlias)) ? context.PostEntityImages[this.postImageAlias] : null; } Since we are in post operational stage, the value of baseamount in postImageEntity should already be calculated from the user input, right? However, the value of baseamountin the postImageEntity is zero. The same holds true for the value of baseamount in the target entity that I get using the following code: Entity targetEntity = (context.InputParameters != null && context.InputParameters.Contains("Target")) ? (Entity)context.InputParameters["Target"] : null; Using a retrieve request like the one below, I am getting the correct value of baseamount: Entity newlyCreated = service.Retrieve("invoicedetail", targetEntity.Id, new ColumnSet(true)); decimal baseAmount = newlyCreated.GetAttributeValue<Money>("baseamount").Value; The issue does not appear in post operational stage of an update event. I'd be glad to hear your ideas/explanations/suggestions on why this is the case... (Further information: Remote debugging, no isolation mode, plugin stored in database) Original Question: I am working on a plugin for CRM 2011 that is supposed to calculate the amount of tax to be paid when an invoice detail is created. To this end I am trying to get the baseamount of the newly created invoicedetail entity from the post entity image in post operational stage. As far as I understood it, the post entity image is a snapshot of the entity in the database after the new invoice detail has been created. Thus it should contain all properties of the newly created invoice detail. I am getting a "postentityimages" property of the IPluginExecutionContext that contains an entity with the alias I registered ("postImage"). This "postImage" entity contains a key for "baseamount" but its value is 0. Can anybody help me understand why this is the case and what I can do about it? (I also noticed that the postImage does not contain all but only a subset of the entities I registered for.) Here is what the code looks like: protected void ExecutePostInvoiceProductCreate(LocalPluginContext localContext) { if (localContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("localContext"); } // Get PluginExecutionContext to obtain PostEntityImages IPluginExecutionContext context = localContext.PluginExecutionContext; // This works: I get a postImage that is not null. Entity postImage = (context.PostEntityImages != null && context.PostEntityImages.Contains(this.postImageAlias)) ? context.PostEntityImages[this.postImageAlias] : null; // Here is the problem: There is a "baseamount" key in the postImage // but its value is zero! decimal baseAmount = ((Money)postImage["baseamount"]).Value; } ADDITION: Pre and post images for post operational update contain non-zero values for baseamount.

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net gridview customization

    - by Kunal
    Hi If you go to http://ifdefined.com/btnet/bugs.aspx you will see a long list of sample data in an asp.net gridview control. What I need to do is something similar. I need to implement the filtering system by placing dropdown controls with dynamic values on the headers and then filter the record according to them. If you look carefully they are filtering the data based on multiple drodown selections as well. Kindly help me out. Any kind of input is highly appreciated. Thanks in advance for your time.

    Read the article

  • Using Lambda Statements for Event Handlers

    - by lush
    I currently have a page which is declared as follows: public partial class MyPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //snip MyButton.Click += (o, i) => { //snip } } } I've only recently moved to .NET 3.5 from 1.1, so I'm used to writing event handlers outside of the Page_Load. My question is; are there any performance drawbacks or pitfalls I should watch out for when using the lambda method for this? I prefer it, as it's certainly more concise, but I do not want to sacrifice performance to use it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • User.Identity.Name returning NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE i want Domain\USER

    - by Jalvemo
    in my asp.net MVC project i have an database connection with connectionstring: Data Source=.;Initial Catalog=dbname;Integrated Security=True All users can execute Stored Procedures on that connection and i want to log those users. so after each execution I store "User.Identity.Name" to another database. This work great on my development machine but after deployment, to access the site i have to go through a VPN-connention and then remote desktop to the same server that the IIS is running on and use a web-browser there. Then i get User.Identity.Name: "NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE". i would expect it to be the credentials i entered in remote desktop that have access to the database. any idea how i can get this to work? iis6 authentication: "windows authentication: enabled" web.config:

    Read the article

  • The Report Application Server failed

    - by huMpty duMpty
    This is relevent to this question about Crystal reports exception: “The Report Application Server failed” I have a report which has a on demand subreport. Id been passed to the subreport from the main report. When I run in crystal report it works fine. But I am running on a application, which display the report using crystal reports viewer.(Winform application developed in vb.net) Most of the times when click on the link whick brings the sub-report it comes up with this message The Report Application Server failed It has no details about what the reason is. Can anyone help? Thanks

    Read the article

  • DataGridView formatting

    - by Vadim
    I have a DGV with columns "code" and "name". Depends of lenght of a code I want to add tabulation to the "name" cells, to show structure of a data. Like that in this picture: How is it better to do? I think there is a better way then just loop for all rows and add spaces in front of names, right?

    Read the article

  • Possible to have empty values with Html For Helpers such as Html.TextBoxFor()?

    - by chobo2
    Hi Is it possible to have to make a html for helper in asp.net mvc 2.0 have a default value of "empty string" Like if I do this Html.TextBoxFor( u => u.ProductName) would render to <input id ="ProductName" name="ProdcutName" type="text" value="Jim" /> Now I don't want the textbox to display jim. I want it to display nothing. <input id ="ProductName" name="ProdcutName" type="text" value="" /> I tried to do this Html.TextBoxFor( u => u.ProductName, new { @value = " "}) but that seems to do nothing. So how can I do this. I hope you can do something like this otherwise I think these new helpers have a great flaw since now I need to use like javascript to remove them since I hardly ever want a default value in the textbox especially when I have a label right beside the textbox saying what it is.

    Read the article

  • How would I initialize these two lists so that modifying one doesn't modify the other?

    - by Brandon
    I'm aware of why this is happening, but is there any way to do this without having to implement ICloneable or a Copy() method? Preferably .net 2.0, but 3.5 is fine if it is necessary. Essentially I'm trying to implement an undo method. In most cases I can just perform the reverse action in the Undo(), but for others that is not possible. So I want to keep two lists. One for the list of items that I will be modifying, and one for the original, unmodified list of items. This way if I need to do an undo, I just delete the modified items and replace them with the originals. Most of the ways I've tried to assign the _originalItems variable doesn't work, so what would I need to do? public MyClass(List<SelectedItems> selectedItems) { _selectedItems = new List<SelectedItems>(selectedItems); _originalItems = ?? }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483  | Next Page >