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  • Codeigniter - accessing variables from an array passed into a page.

    - by Matt
    Hello, I have a controller with an index function as follows: function index() { $this->load->model('products_model'); $data['product'] = $this->products_model->get(3); // 3 = product id $data['product_no'] = 3; $data['main_content'] = 'product_view'; //print_r($data['products']); $this->load->view('includes/template', $data); } This is the get function in the products_model file function get($id) { $results = $this->db->get_where('products', array('id' => $id))->result(); //get the first item $result = $results[0]; return $result; } The products table contains fields such as name, price etc. Please can you tell me how to output variables from $data['product'] after it is passed into the view? I have tried so many things but nothing is working, even though the print_r (commented out) shows the data - it is not being passed into the view. I thought it may have been because the view calls a template file which references the main_content variable: Template file contents: <?php $this->load->view('includes/header'); ?> <?php $this->load->view($main_content); ?> <?php $this->load->view('includes/footer'); ?> but i tried creating a flat view file and still couldn't access the variables. Many thanks,

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  • Understanding the singleton class when aliasing a instance method

    - by Backo
    I am using Ruby 1.9.2 and the Ruby on Rails v3.2.2 gem. I am trying to learn Metaprogramming "the right way" and at this time I am aliasing an instance method in the included do ... end block provided by the RoR ActiveSupport::Concern module: module MyModule extend ActiveSupport::Concern included do # Builds the instance method name. my_method_name = build_method_name.to_sym # => :my_method # Defines the :my_method instance method in the including class of MyModule. define_singleton_method(my_method_name) do |*args| # ... end # Aliases the :my_method instance method in the including class of MyModule. singleton_class = class << self; self end singleton_class.send(:alias_method, :my_new_method, my_method_name) end end "Newbiely" speaking, with a search on the Web I came up with the singleton_class = class << self; self end statement and I used that (instead of the class << self ... end block) in order to scope the my_method_name variable, making the aliasing generated dynamically. I would like to understand exactly why and how the singleton_class works in the above code and if there is a better way (maybe, a more maintainable and performant one) to implement the same (aliasing, defining the singleton method and so on), but "the right way" since I think it isn't so.

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  • How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

    - by devoured elysium
    When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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  • Mule ESB 3.2 Splitter destroys Enricher results

    - by Eddie
    Here is the snippet of my flow: <logger message="PRODUCT_ID = #[header:productID]" level="INFO" doc:name="Logger"/> <splitter evaluator="jxpath" expression="//*/BisacHeaderCodes" doc:name="Splitter"/> <logger message="PRODUCT_ID_POST_SPLITTER = #[header:productID]" level="INFO" doc:name="Logger"/> #[header:productID] was set up prior to Logger call. I tried #[variable:productID] and got the same result. When I run it, this is the out put I get: INFO 2012-04-05 23:12:47,865 [[bookinista_order_management].connector.http.mule.default.receiver.02] org.mule.api.processor.LoggerMessageProcessor: PRODUCT_ID = 72 ERROR 2012-04-05 23:12:47,871 [[bookinista_order_management].connector.http.mule.default.receiver.02] org.mule.exception.DefaultSystemExceptionStrategy: Caught exception in Exception Strategy: Expression Evaluator "header" with expression "outbound:productID" returned null but a value was required. org.mule.api.expression.RequiredValueException: Expression Evaluator "header" with expression "outbound:productID" returned null but a value was required. So, right before Splitter, I have a perfect value in my header, and right after Splitter, that value disappears! I understand that Splitter propagates only part of payloda, but shouldn't it leave headers and variables alone? Any ideas for a workaround?

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  • doubt in javascript name validation

    - by raja
    Hi: I am using the below validation for textbox which accepts only alphabets and maximum of 50 characters. I am passing the object directly in the parameter. The below case by giving the field name i.e "my_text" directly is working is working fine. But if i pass it in variable, that time it is not working(commented the if statement). Please help me. My requirement is each time when we enter the charater, the hardcode field name should not be used in the validation. <html><head> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_form,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); // if (my_form.fieldName.value.length >= maxLen) { if (my_form.my_text.value.length >= maxLen) { var msg = "You have reached your maximum limit of characters allowed"; alert(msg); my_form.my_text.value = my_form.my_text.value.substring(0, maxLen); } else{ var keyCode = window.event.keyCode; if ((keyCode < 65 || keyCode > 90) && (keyCode < 97 || keyCode > 123) && keyCode != 32) { window.event.returnValue = false; alert("Enter only Alphabets"); } my_form.text_num.value = maxLen - my_form.my_text.value.length;} } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onKeyPress=check_length(this.form,this.name); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • How do I use the Enum value from a class in another part of code?

    - by ChiggenWingz
    Coming from a C# background from a night course at a local college, I've sort of started my way in C++. Having a lot pain getting use to the syntax. I'm also still very green when it comes to coding techniques. From my WinMain function, I want to be able to access a variable which is using an enum I declared in another class. (inside core.h) class Core { public: enum GAME_MODE { INIT, MENUS, GAMEPLAY }; GAME_MODE gameMode; Core(); ~Core(); ...OtherFunctions(); }; (inside main.cpp) Core core; int WINAPI WinMain(...) { ... startup code here... core.gameMode = Core.GAME_MODE.INIT; ...etc... } Basically I want to set that gameMode to the enum value of Init or something like that from my WinMain function. I want to also be able to read it from other areas. I get the error... expected primary-expression before '.' token If I try to use core.gameMode = Core::GAME_MODE.INIT;, then I get the same error. I'm not fussed about best practices, as I'm just trying to get the basic understanding of passing around variables in C++ between files. I'll be making sure variables are protected and neatly tucked away later on once I am use to the flexibility of the syntax. If I remember correctly, C# allowed me to use Enums from other classes, and all I had to do was something like Core.ENUMNAME.ENUMVALUE. I hope what I'm wanting to do is clear :\ As I have no idea what a lot of the correct terminology is.

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  • Creating PHP strings using other variables...works manually, can't figure out how automatically

    - by Matt
    Hello, I'm trying to get a variable to be formed automatically using data pulled from a mysql database. I know the data is being pulled from the database in some form resembling its original form, but that data does not act the same as data that is manually typed and assigned to a string. For example, if a cell in a mysql table says... I said "goodbye" before I left. She also said "goodbye." ...and I manually copy/paste it and add the necessary escapes... $string1 = " I said \"goodbye\" before I left. She also said \"goodbye.\" "; ...that does not equal... $string1 = $mysqlResultArray['specificCellWithQuoteShownAbove'] Interestingly, if I echo both versions of $string1 and view the output, they appear to be exactly the same. But they do not function the same when put through various functions I've created. The functions only work if I do the manual copy/paste method--which is not what I want, obviously. I'm not sure if it has to do with the line breaks or the escapes--or some combination of the two. But while both strings are superficially the same, they are apparently functionally different and I don't know why. So how can I create $string1 without manually copy/pasting the contents from the mysql entry and instead querying for the data and assigning it to $string1 in such a way that it's exactly functionally equivalent as the manual copy/pasted string?

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  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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  • Static Variables somehow maintaining state?

    - by gfoley
    I am working on an existing project, setup by another coder. I'm having some trouble understanding how state is being maintained between pages. There is a Class library which has some helper objects. Mostly these objects are just used for there static methods and rarely instantiated or inherited. This is an example class I'm testing with. public sealed class Application { public static string Test; } Now when i run something like the following in the base class of my page, I would expect the result to be "1: 2:Test" all the time (note that "1" is empty), but strangly its only this way the first time it is run. Then every time afterwards its "1:Test 2:Test". Somehow its maintaining the state of the static variable between pages and being refreshed?? Response.Write("1:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); SharedLibrary.Application.Test = "Test"; Response.Write(" 2:" + SharedLibrary.Application.Test); I need to create more classes like this, but want to understand why this is occurring in the first place. Many Thanks

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  • Constructor being called again?

    - by Halo
    I have this constructor; public UmlDiagramEntity(ReportElement reportElement, int pageIndex, Controller controller) { super(reportElement.getX1(), reportElement.getY1(), reportElement.getX2(), reportElement.getY2()); setLayout(null); this.pageIndex = pageIndex; this.controller = controller; reportElements = reportElement.getInternalReportElements(); components = new ArrayList<AbstractEntity>(); changedComponentIndex = -1; PageListener p = new PageListener(); this.addMouseMotionListener(p); this.addMouseListener(p); setPage(); } And I have an update method in the same class; @Override public void update(ReportElement reportElement) { if (changedComponentIndex == -1) { super.update(reportElement); } else { reportElements = reportElement.getInternalReportElements(); if (components.size() == reportElements.size()) { if (!isCommitted) { if (reportElement.getType() == ReportElementType.UmlRelation) { if (checkInvolvementAndSet(changedComponentIndex)) { anchorEntity(changedComponentIndex); } else { resistChanges(changedComponentIndex); } return; } } ..................goes on When I follow the flow from the debugger, I see that when update is called, somewhere in the method, the program goes into the constructor and executes it all over again (super, pageIndex, etc.). Why does it go to the constructor :D I didn't tell it to go there. I can make a deeper analysis and see where it goes to the constructor if you want. By the way, changedComponentIndex is a static variable.

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  • Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

    - by Brian McCord
    I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Trouble determining onclick's target

    - by pwseo
    I've tried and tried... and I can't seem to make this work in IE (tested version 6) Can anybody help me? IE complains about an error but refuses to tell which error it is... var a = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { if (a[i].getAttribute("class") == "info-link") { a[i].onclick = function(e) { e = e || window.event; var target = e.srcElement || e.target; var info = target.parentNode.getElementsByTagName("div")[0]; if (info.style.display == "none" || info.style.display == "") { info.style.display = "block"; } else { info.style.display = "none"; } return false; } } } <div class="auxdata"> <a href="#" class="info-link">Esta questão possuí dados anexos. Clique para ver.</a> <div style="display: none;" class="info-inner"> <!-- variable stuff here --> </div> </div>

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  • WCF Custom SOAP Header Issues

    - by WayneC
    I'm trying to implement an endpoint behavior which injects a custom SOAP header into all messages to and from a service. I've gotten pretty close by implementing the approach from the accepted answer of this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/986455/wcf-wsdl-soap-header-on-all-operations/995951#995951 After implementing that solution, my custom SOAP header does indeed show up in the WSDL; however, when I try to call the methods on my service, I get the following exception/fault: <ExceptionDetail xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.ServiceModel" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <HelpLink i:nil="true" /> <InnerException i:nil="true" /> <Message>Index was outside the bounds of the array.</Message> <StackTrace> at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage(Message message, MessageDescription messageDescription, Object[] parameters, Boolean isRequest) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.OperationFormatter.SerializeReply(MessageVersion messageVersion, Object[] parameters, Object result) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.SerializeOutputs(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet)</StackTrace> <Type>System.IndexOutOfRangeException</Type> </ExceptionDetail> Looking in Reflector at the DataContractSerializerOperationFormatter.AddHeadersToMessage method thats throwing the exception, leads me to believe that the following snippet is causing the problem...but I'm not sure why. MessageHeaderDescription description = (MessageHeaderDescription) headerPart.Description; object parameterValue = parameters[description.Index]; I think the last line above is throwing the exception. The parameters variable is from IDispatchFormatter.SerializeReply What's going on?!?!! Any help would be greatly appreciated...

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  • callbacks via objective-c selectors

    - by codemonkey
    I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

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  • Basic C programming question

    - by Amit
    Hi all, I've just started to learn C and it's going pretty slow...I wanted to write a program that takes in an integer argument and returns it's doubled value (aka take in integer, multiply by 2, and printf that value). I purposely did not want to use the scanf function. Here's what I have so far and what is not compiling... #include <stdio.h> int main(int index) { if (!(index)) { printf("No index given"); return 1; } a = index*2; printf("Mult by 2 %d",a); return 0; } So basically when the program is executed I want to supply the index integer. So, in cygwin, I would write something like ./a 10 and 10 would be stored into the index variable. Also, I want to program to return "No index given" and exit if no index value was supplied... Anyone care to help what I'm doing wrong? EDIT: This code returns 1 error upon compilation and is based on the help by @James: #include <stdio.h> int main(int 1, char index) { int index, a; if (!(index)) { printf("No index given"); return 1; } a = index*2; printf("Mult by 2 %d",a); return 0; } Thanks! Amit

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  • How to cache code in PHP?

    - by Janis Peisenieks
    I am creating a custom form building system, which includes various tokens. These tokens are found using Regular Expressions, and depending on the type of toke, parsed. Some require simple replacement, some require cycles, and so forth. Now I know, that RegExp is quite resource and time consuming, so I would like to be able to parse the code for the form once, creating a php code, and then save the PHP code, for next uses. How would I go about doing this? So far I have only seen output caching. Is there a way to cache commands like echo and cycles like foreach()? Because of misunderstandings, I'll create an example. Unparsed template data: Thank You for Your interest, [*Title*] [*Firstname*] [*Lastname*]. Here are the details of Your order! [*KeyValuePairs*] Here is the link to Your request: [*LinkToRequest*]. Parsed template: "Thank You for Your interest, <?php echo $data->title;?> <?php echo $data->firstname;?> <?php echo $data->lastname;?>. Here are the details of Your order! <?php foreach($data->values as $key=>$value){ echo $key."-".$value }?> Here is the link to Your request: <?php echo $data->linkToRequest;?>. I would then save the parsed template, and instead of parsing the template every time, just pass the $data variable to the already parsed one, which would generate an output.

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  • jquery find() - how to exclude certain descendants, and their children?

    - by jammypeach
    I have markup similar to this: <div class='wrapper plugin'> //some content <div class='child-wrapper plugin'> //some more content <div> <ul> <li><div class='cliky'>clicky!</div></li> </ul> </div> </div> <div class='cliky'>clicky!</div> </div> I need to be able to select the first .clicky div only, not any .clicky divs inside a .plugin > .plugin div. The wrapper has .plugin class too - might seem counter-intuitive so another way to view it is this: I want to get the .clicky children of a given .plugin div, but not .plugin .plugin .clicky. Here's the problem - the depth of each .clicky element (or indeed, the number of them) is unknown and variable in relation to the wrappers. One could be immediately below the first wrapper, or inside 10 <ul>s. I've tried selectors like: $('.wrapper').find('.clicky').not('.plugin > .clicky'); But they still selected child .clicky. How would I be able to filter out .plugin and any children of .plugin from my selector before using find()?

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  • cmd.exe Command Line Parsing of Environment Variables

    - by Artefacto
    I can't figure how to have cmd.exe not interpret something like %PATH% as an environment variable. Given this program: #include<stdio.h> #include<windows.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int i; printf("cmd line: %s\n", GetCommandLine()); for (i = 0; i < argc; i++) { printf("%d: %s\n", i, argv[i]); } return 0; } I have these different outputs according to the position of the arguments: >args "k\" o" "^%PATH^%" cmd line: args "k\" o" "%PATH%" 0: args 1: k" o 2: %PATH% >args "^%PATH^%" "k\" o" cmd line: args "^%PATH^%" "k\" o" 0: args 1: ^%PATH^% 2: k" o I guess it's because cmd.exe doesn't recognize the escaped \" and sees the escaped double quote as closing the first, leaving in the first case %PATH% unquoted. I say this, because if I don't quote the argument, it always works: >args ^%PATH^% "k\" o" cmd line: args %PATH% "k\" o" 0: args 1: %PATH% 2: k" o but then I can have no spaces...

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  • Google Bar Chart Time Label Interval

    - by Alex Angelini
    Hi I am using Google Bar Chart through the visualization API on my site: http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/gallery/imagebarchart.html And my x-axis is time, and every time interval is a time of day in the format (HH:MM) Here is my code for the graph: <script type="text/javascript" src="https://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> %s google.load("visualization", "1", {packages:["imagebarchart"]}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawChart); function drawChart() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Date'); data.addColumn('number', 'Amount'); data.addRows({{Rows}}); %s var chart = new google.visualization.ImageBarChart(document.getElementById('chart_div')); chart.draw(data, {width: 900, height: 340, min: 0, isVertical:true, legend:'none'}); } </script> The rows of data are added later using a templating engine, but that is the jist of my chart. Because I have added my time variable as 'string' I cannot use the valueLabelsInterval option to only show every 4 labels. Because I can't do that the labels overlap and look ugly. Is there any other way to only show every other time label or every 4th one, I read through the docs but could not see how to do it. Any help would be greatly appreciated thanks

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  • Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

    - by orokusaki
    In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

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  • MySQL SELECT Statement not working when executed from PHP

    - by Andrew K
    Hello all, I have the following piece of code, executing a pretty simple MySQL query: $netnestquery = 'SELECT (`nested`+1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<='.$adaddr.' AND `subnet`<='.$postmask.' AND `type`="net" AND `addr` NOT IN(SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<'.$adaddr.' AND `type`="broadcast") ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1'; $netnestresults = mysql_query($netnestquery); $netnestrow = mysql_fetch_array($netnestresults); $nestlvl = $netnestrow['nest']; echo '<br> NESTQ: '.$netnestquery; Now, when I execute this in PHP, I get no results; an empty query. However, when I copy and paste the query echoed by my code (for debug purposes) into the mysql command line, I get a valid result: mysql> SELECT (`nested` + 1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<=50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `subnet`<=36 AND `type`='net' AND `addr` NOT IN (SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `type`='broadcast') ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1; +------+ | nest | +------+ | 1 | +------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? I can't put quotes around my variables, as then MySQL will try to evaluate the variable as a string, when it is, in fact, a very large decimal. I think I might just be making a stupid mistake somewhere, but I can't tell where.

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  • Find all ways to insert zeroes into a bit pattern

    - by James
    I've been struggling to wrap my head around this for some reason. I have 15 bits that represent a number. The bits must match a pattern. The pattern is defined in the way the bits start out: they are in the most flush-right representation of that pattern. So say the pattern is 1 4 1. The bits will be: 000000010111101 So the general rule is, take each number in the pattern, create that many bits (1, 4 or 1 in this case) and then have at least one space separating them. So if it's 1 2 6 1 (it will be random): 001011011111101 Starting with the flush-right version, I want to generate every single possible number that meets that pattern. The # of bits will be stored in a variable. So for a simple case, assume it's 5 bits and the initial bit pattern is: 00101. I want to generate: 00101 01001 01010 10001 10010 10100 I'm trying to do this in Objective-C, but anything resembling C would be fine. I just can't seem to come up with a good recursive algorithm for this. It makes sense in the above example, but when I start getting into 12431 and having to keep track of everything it breaks down.

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  • Tokenizing numbers for a parser

    - by René Nyffenegger
    I am writing my first parser and have a few questions conerning the tokenizer. Basically, my tokenizer exposes a nextToken() function that is supposed to return the next token. These tokens are distinguished by a token-type. I think it would make sense to have the following token-types: SYMBOL (such as <, :=, ( and the like REMARK (or a comment) NUMBER IDENT (such as the name of a function or a variable) STRING (Something enclosed between "....") Now, do you think this makes sense? Also, I am struggling with the NUMBER token-type. Do you think it makes more sense to further split it up into a NUMBER and a FLOAT token-type? Without a FLOAT token-type, I'd receive NUMBER (eg 402), a SYMBOL (.) followed by another NUMBER (eg 203) if I were about to parse a float. Finally, what do you think makes more sense for the tokenizer to return when it encounters a -909? Should it return the SYMBOL - first, followed by the NUMBER 909 or should it return a NUMBER -909 right away?

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  • Property on business objects - getting and setting

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • javascript ajax help

    - by ngreenwood6
    I have the following code. var d3_ad = 1; function displayD3Ad(){ var query_string = '?d3_ad='+d3_ad; query_string += '&location='+escape(location); //document.write('<iframe src="index.php'+query_string+'"></iframe>'); var data = httpRequest('http://localhost/test/index.php','GET',query_string); document.write(data); } function httpRequest(strURL,type,query) { var request = false; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// Mozilla/Safari request = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { //Internet Explorer request= new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } request.open(type, strURL + query, true); request.setRequestHeader('Content-Type', 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); request.onreadystatechange = function() { if (request.readyState == 4) { return request.responseText; } } request.send(null); } displayD3Ad(); now when it writes out the data it is saying undefined. It seems like it isnt returning the data. I looked in firebug and it completes and shows the response that shoudl be there. Any help is appreciated. I just need to set the data variable so that I can use it later on.

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