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• Implementations details of drag and drop of file path in cocoa.

  - by foo

  Hi, I'm trying to get a part of my window to react to drag and drop. In this case to copy the file path to the file being dropped on the view. I have looked over some documentation but I still have some problems to see exactly where I should implement my methods for drag and drop. I have seen some examples but almost all of them assumes that I want to drop an image on the view. I'm pretty new to cocoa and Xcode so, I have some problems with seeing the exact relation between interface builder and the generated code. I have created a subclass to NSView, called drop zone like this: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface dropZone : NSView { } @end I then use an NSRect to color it grey like this: #import "dropZone.h" @implementation dropZone - (void)drawRect:(NSRect)rect { NSRect bounds = [self bounds]; [[NSColor grayColor] set]; [NSBezierPath fillRect:bounds]; } @end I then drag this class to my window in interface builder. But I will need to implement the registerForDraggingTypes method, but where? I have also seen a convenience method in the Apple docs for file paths like this: dragFile:fromRect:slideBack:event: that might work.

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• std::bad_cast from parent to child?

  - by polyglot

  For simplicity, class Parent {} class Child1 : Parent {} class Child2 : Parent {} Elsewhere, I created instances of Child1 and Child2 and store it in same vector under Parent: // . . . in .h file, for example vector<Parent> vector_of_parent; // . . . in one particular method Child1 c1(); Child2 c2(); vector_of_parent.push_back(c1); vector_of_parent.push_back(c2); // . . . Then in another method which has access to vector_of_parent, I tried void doSomething(Parent& some_child) { // wrapped in a try block somehow... Child1& c = dynamic_cast<Child1&> some_child; // do something if the cast is successful } void otherMethod() { doSomething(vector_of_parent.at(0)); // vector_of_parent.at(0) is a Child1 } Why is there a std:bad_cast when I call otherMethod()?

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• Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

  - by Matt Rowles

  I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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• MemoryStream instance timing help

  - by rod

  Hi All, Is it ok to instance a MemoryStream at the top of my method, do a bunch of stuff to it, and then use it? For instance: public static byte[] TestCode() { MemoryStream m = new MemoryStream(); ... ... whole bunch of stuff in between ... ... //finally using(m) { return m.ToArray(); } } Updated code public static byte[] GetSamplePDF() { using (MemoryStream m = new MemoryStream()) { Document document = new Document(); PdfWriter.GetInstance(document, m); document.Open(); PopulateTheDocument(document); document.Close(); return m.ToArray(); } } private static void PopulateTheDocument(Document document) { Table aTable = new Table(2, 2); aTable.AddCell("0.0"); aTable.AddCell("0.1"); aTable.AddCell("1.0"); aTable.AddCell("1.1"); document.Add(aTable); for (int i = 0; i < 20; i++) { document.Add(new Phrase("Hello World, Hello Sun, Hello Moon, Hello Stars, Hello Sea, Hello Land, Hello People. ")); } } My point was to try to reuse building the byte code. In other words, build up any kind of document and then send it to TestCode() method.

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• Creating mock Objects in PHP unit

  - by Mike

  Hi, I've searched but can't quite find what I'm looking for and the manual isn't much help in this respect. I'm fairly new to unit testing, so not sure if I'm on the right track at all. Anyway, onto the question. I have a class: <?php class testClass { public function doSomething($array_of_stuff) { return AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); } } ?> Now, clearly I want the AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); to return the same thing every time. My question is, in my unit test, how do I mockup this object? I've tried adding the AnotherClass to the top of the test file, but when I want to test AnotherClass I get the "Cannot redeclare class" error. I think I understand factory classes, but I'm not sure how I would apply that in this instance. Would I need to write an entirely seperate AnotherClass class which contained test data and then use the Factory class to load that instead of the real AnotherClass? Or is using the Factory pattern just a red herring. I tried this: $RedirectUtils_stub = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('RedirectUtils'); $o1 = new stdClass(); $o1->id = 2; $o1->test_id = 2; $o1->weight = 60; $o1->data = "http://www.google.com/?ffdfd=fdfdfdfd?route=1"; $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('chooseRandomRoot') ->will($this->returnValue($o1)); $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('decodeQueryString') ->will($this->returnValue(array())); in the setUp() function, but these stubs are ignored and I can't work out whether it's something I'm doing wrong, or the way I'm accessing the AnotherClass methods. Help! This is driving me nuts.

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• Objective C Naming Convention for an object that owns itself

  - by Ed Marty

  With the latest releases of XCode that contain static analyzers, some of my objects are throwing getting analyzer issues reported. Specifically, I have an object that owns itself and is responsible for releasing itself, but should also be returned to the caller and possibly retained there manually. If I have a method like + (Foo) newFoo the analyzer sees the word New and reports an issue in the caller saying that newFoo is expected to return an object with retain +1, and it isn't being released anywhere. If I name it + (Foo) getFoo the analyzer reports an issue in that method, saying there's a potential leak because it's not deallocated before returning. My class basically looks like this: + (Foo *) newFoo { Foo *myFoo = [[[Foo new] retain] autorelease]; [myFoo performSelectorInBackground:@selector(bar) withObject:nil]; return myFoo; } - (void) bar { //Do something that might take awhile [self release]; } The object owns itself and when its done, will release itself, but there's nowhere that it's being stored, so the static analyzer sees it as a leak somewhere. Is there some naming or coding convention to help?

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• C# why unit test has this strange behaviour?

  - by 5YrsLaterDBA

  I have a class to encrypt the connectionString. public class SKM { private string connStrName = "AndeDBEntities"; internal void encryptConnStr() { if(isConnStrEncrypted()) return; ... } private bool isConnStrEncrypted() { bool status = false; // Open app.config of executable. System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenExeConfiguration(ConfigurationUserLevel.None); // Get the connection string from the app.config file. string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; status = !(connStr.Contains("provider")); Log.logItem(LogType.DebugDevelopment, "isConnStrEncrypted", "SKM::isConnStrEncrypted()", "isConnStrEncrypted=" + status); return status; } } Above code works fine in my application. But not in my unit test project. In my unit test project, I test the encryptConnStr() method. it will call isConnStrEncrypted() method. Then exception (null pointer) will be thrown at this line: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[connStrName].ConnectionString; I have to use index like this to pass the unit test: string connStr = config.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings[0].ConnectionString; I remember it worked several days ago at the time I added above unit test. But now it give me an error. The unit test is not integrated with our daily auto build yet. We only have ONE connectionStr. It works with product but not in unit test. Don't know why. Anybody can explain to me?

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• DRY jQuery for RESTful PUT/DELETE links

  - by Aupajo

  I'm putting together PUT/DELETE links, a la Rails, which when clicked create a POST form with an hidden input labelled _method that sends the intended request type. I want to make it DRYer, but my jQuery knowledge isn't up to it. HTML: <a href="/articles/1" class="delete">Destroy Article 1</a> <a href="/articles/1/publish" class="put">Publish Article 1</a> jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $('.delete').click(function() { if(confirm('Are you sure?')) { var f = document.createElement('form'); $(this).after($(f).attr({ method: 'post', action: $(this).attr('href') }).append('<input type="hidden" name="_method" value="DELETE" />')); $(f).submit(); } return false; }); $('.put').click(function() { var f = document.createElement('form'); $(this).after($(f).attr({ method: 'post', action: $(this).attr('href') }).append('<input type="hidden" name="_method" value="PUT" />')); $(f).submit(); return false; }); });

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• Interpreting item click in ListView

  - by Matt Huggins

  I'm working on my first Android project, and I created a menu via the XML method. My activity is pretty basic, in that it loads the main layout (containing a ListView with my String array of options). Here's the code inside my Activity: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // allow stuff to happen when a list item is clicked ListView ls = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.menu); ls.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { // @todo } }); } Within the onItemClick callback handler, I'd like to check which item was clicked, and load a new menu based upon that. Question 1: How do I go about figuring out which item was clicked? I can't find any straightforward examples on retrieving/testing the id value of the clicked item. Question 2: Once I have the id value, I assume I can just call the setContentView method again to change to another layout containing my new menu. Is that correct?

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• DCI: How to implement Context with Dependency Injection?

  - by ciscoheat

  Most examples of a DCI Context are implemented as a Command pattern. When using Dependency Injection though, it's useful to have the dependencies injected in the constructor and send the parameters into the executing method. Compare the Command pattern class: public class SomeContext { private readonly SomeRole _someRole; private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Everything goes into the constructor for a true encapsuled command. public SomeContext(SomeRole someRole, IRepository<User> userRepository) { _someRole = someRole; _userRepository = userRepository; } public void Execute() { _someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } With the Dependency injected class: public class SomeContext { private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Only what can be injected using the DI provider. public SomeContext(IRepository<User> userRepository) { _userRepository = userRepository; } // Parameters from the executing method public void Execute(SomeRole someRole) { someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } The last one seems a bit nicer, but I've never seen it implemented like this so I'm curious if there are any things to consider.

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• Is it possible to cancel function override in parent class and use function from top level parent

  - by Anatoliy Gusarov

  class TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->bar(); } private function bar() { echo 'Bar'; } } class MidParent extends TopParent { protected function foo() { $this->midMethod(); parent::foo(); } public function midMethod() { echo 'Mid'; } public function generalMethod() { echo 'General'; } } Now the question is if I have a class, that extends MidParent because I need to call class Target extends MidParent { //How to override this method to return TopParent::foo(); ? protected function foo() { } } So I need to do this: $mid = new MidParent(); $mid->foo(); // MidBar $taget = new Target(); $target->generalMethod(); // General $target->foo(); // Bar UPDATE Top parent is ActiveRecord class, mid is my model object. I want to use model in yii ConsoleApplication. I use 'user' module in this model, and console app doesn't support this module. So I need to override method afterFind, where user module is called. So the Target class is the class that overrides some methods from model which uses some modules that console application doesn't support.

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• Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

  - by Greg

  I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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• Multiple forms + HAML + jQuery + Javascript submit

  - by Jay Godse

  Hi. I have a HAML page that lists some links to delete "things" that looks like this %div %a.form_submit Delete Thing 1 %form{:href=>"#", :id=>'comment_1', :method=>'post', :action=>'/thing/delete'} %input{:type=>'hidden', :name=>'thingid', :value=>'1'} %input{:type=>'submit', style='display:none'} %div %a.form_submit Delete Thing 22 %form{:href=>"#", :id=>'comment_22', :method=>'post', :action=>'/thing/delete'} %input{:type=>'hidden', :name=>'thingid', :value=>'22'} %input{:type=>'submit', style='display:none'} The intention is to have a link "Delete XX" which will delete something specific. A page could have a number of these links, and each link is for a specific "thing". I also have a piece of (unobtrusive) jQuery javascript that adds a click handler to each form as follows: $('a.form_submit').click(function(event) { $('form').submit(); event.preventDefauilt(); }); This works when there is one form on a page. However, if I have more than one form on a page, how do I ensure that clicking "Delete Thing 1" will trigger a submit() event only on the form with id='comment_1'?

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• Why does my plist file exist even when I've uninstalled an app and wiped the simulator?

  - by just_another_coder

  I am trying to detect the existence of a plist file on application start. When my data class (descendant of NSObject) is initialized, it loads the plist file. Before it loads, it checks to see if the file exists, and if it doesn't, it sets the data = nil instead of trying to process the array of data in the plist file. However, every time it starts it indicates the file exists. Even when I uninstall the app in the organizer and when wiping the simulator directory (iPhone Simulator/3.0/Applications). I have the following static method in a library class named FileIO: +(BOOL) fileExists:(NSString *)fileName { NSString *path = [FileIO getPath:fileName]; // gets the path to the docs directory if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:path]) return YES; else return NO; } In my data class: //if( [FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename] ) [FileIO deleteFile:kFavorites_Filename]; if ([FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename]) {NSLog(@"exists"); The "exists" is logged every time unless I un-comment the method to delete the file. How can the file exist if I've deleted the app? I've deleted the simulator directory and uninstalled on the device but both say it still exists. What gives???

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• Detect modification of variable at runtime in C/C++

  - by YuppieNetworking

  Hello, I am developing a library in C++ where users/programmer will extend a class BaseClass that has a method initArray. This method should be implemented by the user/programmer and it should normally initialize all elements of the array m_arr. Here is a snipplet, modified to this example: class BaseClass { public: BaseClass(int n) { m_arr = new double[n]; size = n; }; virtual ~BaseClass(); int size; double* m_arr; virtual int initArray(); }; Sometimes, the user/programmer implements a initArray that does not initialize some elements of m_arr. What I would like is to create a function in my library that checks if initArray did initialize all elements of m_arr. This function should be called by a sanity-check rutine at runtime. My question: is it possible to detect changes on this array? I can only think of initializing the array with some invalid values (like NaN or Inf), call initArray and check that all values have changed. Thanks for your ideas, David

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• android listview order changed when called notifyDataSetChanged

  - by 9nix00

  hi,all. when I use notifyDataSetChanged(), the listview display order will be change . like this 3 2 1 when current activy was created. but when I change the data. it will be 1 2 3 I don't want the order changed and i dont understand why its happening. This is a piece of code from my adapter class public static class ItemAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private String[] mData; private LayoutInflater mInflater; // I called this method to change data public void setEditText(int position, final String item) { mData[position] = item; notifyDataSetChanged(); } } I change data at some dialog like this builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(ct); builder.setTitle(R.string.pickStatus) .setView(edBuffer) .setPositiveButton(R.string.save, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick( DialogInterface dialog, int id) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub canPop = true; final String tmp = edBuffer.getText().toString(); KbonezLog.e(String.format( "set into key %d", key)); //use mData key to set value setEditText(key, tmp); dialog.dismiss(); }})

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• Linked List Inserting strings in alphabetical order

  - by user69514

  I have a linked list where each node contains a string and a count. my insert method needs to inset a new node in alphabetical order based on the string. if there is a node with the same string, then i increment the count. the problem is that my method is not inserting in alphabetical order public Node findIsertionPoint(Node head, Node node){ if( head == null) return null; Node curr = head; while( curr != null){ if( curr.getValue().compareTo(node.getValue()) == 0) return curr; else if( curr.getNext() == null || curr.getNext().getValue().compareTo(node.getValue()) > 0) return curr; else curr = curr.getNext(); } return null; } public void insert(Node node){ Node newNode = node; Node insertPoint = this.findIsertionPoint(this.head, node); if( insertPoint == null) this.head = newNode; else{ if( insertPoint.getValue().compareTo(node.getValue()) == 0) insertPoint.getItem().incrementCount(); else{ newNode.setNext(insertPoint.getNext()); insertPoint.setNext(newNode); } } count++; }

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• In Safari, using jQuery a Form Input Text Field does not receive focus after alert is displayed. Why

  - by Rob

  I have an ASPX web form. I use jQuery to simply my Javascript. I use a Javascript validation script to validate each of the form fields' values. If an error occurs, I popup an alert with an error message. Then I transfer focus to the underlying element. Here are examples I have tried. Using jQuery: var Form_FieldDef = function(name) { this.name = name; this.SetFocus = function() { $('#' + this.name)[0].focus(); } this.Validate = function() { var isvalid = true; if ( $.trim($('#' + this.name).val()) == '') { alert("Your entry is empty"); this.SetFocus(); isvalid = false; } return isvalid; } } This works on IE7, IE8, Opera, Chrome, and Firefox. It does not work on Safari 4 on PC. I don't have a Mac. So I changed the SetFocus method to this. this.SetFocus = function() { var fld = document.getElementById(this.name); if (fld != null) fld.focus(); } This works on IE7, IE8, Opera, Chrome, and Firefox. It does not work on Safari 4 on PC. I stepped through the code with VS 2008 debugger, and I'm calling the focus method on the underlying element.

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• Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

  - by Dan Tao

  I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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• Upload to a PHP Server, using Ajax ( XMLHttp POST)

  - by Krishnanunni

  Right now i'm using the below method to Upload a file to PHP <form enctype="multipart/form-data" action="http://sserver.com/fileupload.php" method="POST"> <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="30000000" /> <input type="hidden" name="filename" value="file_uploaded.gif" /> <input type="hidden" name="username" value="foobar"/> Please choose a file: <input name="uploaded" type="file" /><br /> <input type="submit" value="Upload" /> </form> I read the $_POST and $_FILE in php to complete upload like this. $target = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']."/test/upload/"; $target = $target . basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']) ; echo $target; $ok=1; if(move_uploaded_file($_FILES['uploaded']['tmp_name'], $target)) { echo "The file ". basename( $_FILES['uploaded']['name']). " has been uploaded"; } else { echo "Sorry, there was a problem uploading your file."; } My questions is , can i change the above said code (HTML) to an Ajax XMLHttpRequest without changes in PHP.

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• Django Admin Running Same Query Thousands of Times for Model

  - by Tom

  Running into an odd . . . loop when trying to view a model in the Django admin. I have three related models (code trimmed for brevity, hopefully I didn't trim something I shouldn't have): class Association(models.Model): somecompany_entity_id = models.CharField(max_length=10, db_index=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ResidentialUnit(models.Model): building = models.CharField(max_length=10) app_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_description = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True) association = models.ForeignKey(Association) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) def __unicode__(self): return '%s: %s, Unit %s' % (self.association, self.building, self.unit_number) class Resident(models.Model): unit = models.ForeignKey(ResidentialUnit) type = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True, default='') lookup_key = models.CharField(max_length=200) jenark_id = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True) user = models.ForeignKey(User) is_association_admin = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) show_in_contact_list = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) _phones = {} home_phone = None work_phone = None cell_phone = None app_number = None account_cache_key = None def __unicode__(self): return '%s' % self.user.get_full_name() It's the last model that's causing the problem. Trying to look at a Resident in the admin takes 10-20 seconds. If I take 'self.association' out of the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit, a resident page renders pretty quickly. Looking at it in the debug toolbar, without the association name in ResidentialUnit (which is a foreign key on Resident), the page runs 14 queries. With the association name put back in, it runs a far more impressive 4,872 queries. The strangest part is the extra queries all seem to be looking up the association name. They all come from the same line, the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit. Each one is the exact same thing, e.g., SELECT `residents_association`.`id`, `residents_association`.`jenark_entity_id`, `residents_association`.`name` FROM `residents_association` WHERE `residents_association`.`id` = 1096 ORDER BY `residents_association`.`name` ASC I assume I've managed to create a circular reference, but if it were truly circular, it would just die, not run 4000x and then return. Having trouble finding a good Google or StackOverflow result for this.

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• JSF getter methods called BEFORE beforePhase fires

  - by Bill Leeper

  I got a recommendation to put all data lookups in the beforePhase for a given page, however, now that I am doing some deeper analysis it appears that some getter methods are being called before the beforePhase is fired. It became very obvious when I added support for a url parameter and I was getting NPEs on objects that are initialized in the beforePhase call. Any thoughts? Something I have set wrong. I have this in my JSP page: <f:view beforePhase="#{someController.beforePhaseSummary}"> That is only the 5th line in the JSP file and is right after the taglibs. Here is the code that is in the beforePhaseSummary method: public void beforePhaseSummary(PhaseEvent event) { logger.debug("Fired Before Phase Summary: " + event.getPhaseId()); if (event.getPhaseId() == PhaseId.RENDER_RESPONSE) { HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest)FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); if (request.getParameter("application_id") != null) { loadApplication(Long.parseLong(request.getParameter("application_id"))); } /* Do data fetches here */ } } The logging output above indicates that an event is fired. The servlet request is used to capture the url parameters. The data fetches gather data. However, the logging output is below: 2010-04-23 13:44:46,968 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 61 - Get Permit 2010-04-23 13:44:46,968 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 107 - Getting UnsubmittedCount 2010-04-23 13:44:46,984 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 61 - Get Permit 2010-04-23 13:44:47,031 [http-8080-4] DEBUG ...SomeController 133 - Fired Before Phase Summary: RENDER_RESPONSE(6) The logs indicate 2 calls to the getPermit method and one to getUnsubmittedCount before the beforePhase is fired.

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• How do I make a lock that allows only ONE thread to read from the resource ?

  - by mare

  I have a file that holds an integer ID value. Currently reading the file is protected with ReaderWriterLockSlim as such: public int GetId() { _fileLock.EnterUpgradeableReadLock(); int id = 0; try { if(!File.Exists(_filePath)) CreateIdentityFile(); FileStream readStream = new FileStream(_filePath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(readStream); string line = sr.ReadLine(); sr.Close(); readStream.Close(); id = int.Parse(line); return int.Parse(line); } finally { SaveNextId(id); // increment the id _fileLock.ExitUpgradeableReadLock(); } } The problem is that subsequent actions after GetId() might fail. As you can see the GetId() method increments the ID every single time, disregarding what happens after it has issued an ID. The issued ID might be left hanging (as said, exceptions might occur). As the ID is incremented, some IDs might be left unused. So I was thinking of moving the SaveNextId(id) out, remove it (the SaveNextId() actually uses the lock too, except that it's EnterWriteLock). And call it manually from outside after all the required methods have executed. That brings out another problem - multiple threads might enter the GetId() method before the SaveNextId() gets executed and they might all receive the same ID. I don't want any solutions where I have to alter the IDs after the operation, correcting them in any way because that's not nice and might lead to more problems. I need a solution where I can somehow callback into the FileIdentityManager (that's the class that handles these IDs) and let the manager know that it can perform the saving of the next ID and then release the read lock on the file containing the ID. Essentialy I want to replicate the relational databases autoincrement behaviour - if anything goes wrong during row insertion, the ID is not used, it is still available for use but it also never happens that the same ID is issued. Hopefully the question is understandable enough for you to provide some solutions..

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• Setting Cursor property has no effect (C#)

  - by Knarf Navillus

  Hello, I have a class that I've derived from System.Windows.Forms.Panel, and my application has a main form with one of these panels. On the whole, the panel works great! The only thing I'm having trouble with is setting the cursor. Whether I'm setting it to one of the static members of the Cursors class (Default, WaitCursor, etc.) or setting it to a custom cursor that I've loaded from a resource, the end result is the same: it does nothing. I still see the default mouse pointer, no matter what. This line of code is inside a method of my panel-derived class: this.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor; I can set a break point there, and see that this line is being hit when I expect it to. I've also created an override for the OnCursorChanged method, and set a breakpoint in there just to see if it's being triggered. I can verify that both breakpoints are being hit when I expect them to. However, the cursor just never changes. There must be something that I'm missing. Does anyone have any ideas? P.S. I also did try setting Current.Cursor as well, however that did not help.

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• Page_Load or Page_Init

  - by balexandre

  Let's take a really simple example on using jQuery to ajaxify our page... $.load("getOrders.aspx", {limit: 25}, function(data) { // info as JSON is available in the data variable }); and in the ASP.NET (HTML part) page (only one line) <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="getOrders.aspx.cs" Inherits="getOrders" %> and in the ASP.NET (Code Behind) page public partial class getOrders : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string lmt = Request["limit"]; List<Orders> ords = dll.GetOrders(limit); WriteOutput( Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(ords) ); } private void WriteOutput(string s) { Response.Clear(); Response.Write(s); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } } my question is Should it be protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) or protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) So we can save some milliseconds as we don't actually need to process the events for the page, or will Page_Init lack of some sorting of a method by the time it is called? P.S. Currently works fine in both methods, but I just want to understand the ins and outs of choosing one method over the other

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