Search Results

Search found 14159 results on 567 pages for 'notes from the field'.

Page 478/567 | < Previous Page | 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485  | Next Page >

  • Calculation Conundrum - how do I influence another textfield?

    - by LawVS
    Hey! Basically I have a problem in that when certain parameters are used in my calculator app - it makes the result incorrect. The issue is that I have separate text fields for hours and minutes and say for example I have as the start time "13" in one text field and "30" in the other with the finish time "24" and "00" in their respective text fields. The answer should be 10 hours 30 minutes, but the answer I get is 11 hours 30 minutes. The code for this is the following. -(IBAction)done:(id)sender { int result = [finishHours.text intValue] - [startHours.text intValue]; totalHours.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", result]; if (result < 0) { totalHours.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", result + 24]; } -(IBAction)done2:(id)sender { int result = [startMinutes.text intValue] - [finishMinutes.text intValue]; totalMinutes.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", result]; if (result < 0) { totalMinutes.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", result + 60]; } } I want to make it so if certain parameters are met, then the totalHours.text is reduced by 1 hour to reflect the total minutes. How would I go about that calculation in code? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SEO on a Database Driven Website

    - by Ryan Giglio
    I have a question about a site I'm developing. It is a database driven directory site where people can make a profile and list themselves in one or many area codes and in one or many fields of work. When someone is looking for a person to hire, they enter one or more area codes to look in (or select them with checkboxes) and when the form submits, it saves these as a cookie so the site remembers what location you were searching in. You then narrow down your search by category and field (which are links) and get a listing of all the profiles that match your search. What I am concerned about is this: because a search engine can't type in or select area codes to search in, how is it going to find and index any of the profile pages? It doesn't allow the user to search for people without first selecting an area code, because there's no practical purpose to do so. There would also be no practical purpose from a user experience/usability standpoint of simply having a list of each area code as a link to the categories page, but as far as I know, isn't that the only way for search engines to see every person? How does a site like Facebook accomplish this? There isn't some sort of master directory with a link to ever single Facebook user's profile page, and yet they're often the #1 search result for a person's name.

    Read the article

  • Transaction Isolation Level of Serializable not working for me

    - by Shahriar
    I have a website which is used by all branches of a store and what it does is that it records customer purchases into a table called myTransactions.myTransactions table has a column named SerialNumber.For each purchase i create a record in the transactions table and assign a serial to it.The stored procedure that does this calls a UDF function to get a new serialNumber before inserting the record.Like below : Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2,Value3,...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) end Create function getTransactionNSerialNumber as begin RETURN isnull(SELECT TOP (1) SerialNumber FROM myTransactions READUNCOMMITTED ORDER BY SerialNumber DESC),0) + 1 end The website is being used by so many users in different stores at the same time and it is creating many duplicate serialNumbers(same SerialNumbers).So i added a Sql transaction with ReadCommitted level to the transaction and i still got duplicate transaction numbers.I changed it to SERIALIZABLE in order to lock the resources and i not only got duplicate transaction numbers(!!HOW!!) but i also got sporadic deadlocks between the same stored procedure calls.This is what i tried : (With ommissions of try catch blocks and rollbacks) Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRASNACTION ins insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2 , Value3, ...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) COMMIT TRANSACTION ins SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION READCOMMITTED end I even copied the function that gets the serial number directly into the stored procedure instead of the UDF function call and still got duplicate serialNumbers.So,How can a stored procedure line create something Like the c# lock() {} block. By the way,i have to implement the transaction serial number using the same pattern and i can't change the serialNumber to any other identity field or whatever.And for some reasons i need to generate the serialNumber inside the databse and i can't move SerialNumber generation to application level. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • how to insert multiple rows using cakephp

    - by Paul
    In the cakePHP project I'm building, I want to insert a defined number of identical records. These will serve as placeholders records that will have additional data added later. Each record will insert the IDs taken from two belongs_to relationships as well as two other string values. What I want to do is be able to enter a value for the number of records I want created, which would equate to how many times the data is looped during save. What I don't know is: 1) how to setup a loop to handle a set number of inserts 2) how to define a form field in cakePHP that only sets the number of records to create. What I've tried is the following: function massAdd() { $inserts_required = 1; while ($inserts_required <= 10) { $this->Match->create(); $this->Match->save($this->data); echo $inserts_required++; } $brackets = $this->Match->Bracket->find('list'); $this->set(compact('brackets')); } What happens is: 1) at the top of the screen, above the doc type, the string 12345678910 is displayed, this is displayed on screen 2) a total of 11 records are created, and only the last record has the values passed in the form. I don't know why 11 records as opposed to 10 are created, and why only the last records has the entered form data? As always, your help and direction is appreciated. -Paul

    Read the article

  • Change Data Capture or Change Tracking - Same as Traditional Audit Trail Table?

    - by HardCode
    Before I delve into the abyss of Microsoft documentation any deeper, I'd like to know if someone experienced with Change Data Capture and Change Tracking know if one or both of these can be used to replace the traditional ... "Audit trail table copy of the 'real table' (all of the fields of the original table, plus date/time, user ID, and DML action field) inserted into by Triggers" ... setup for a database table audit trail, where the trigger populates the audit trail table (which is all manual work). The MSDN overview documentation explains at a high level what Change Data Capture and Change Tracking are, but it isn't clear enough to me, and doesn't state outright, that these tools can be used to replace the traditional audit trail tables we've made so often. Can someone with any experience using Change Data Capture and Change Tracking save me a lot of time, or confirm that I am spending time looking at the right tool? The critical part of our audit trail is capturing all changes to a table's fields (on INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE), when it happened, and who did it. These changes are commonly provided to an end user chronologically via an audit trail report. Which is another question ... Change Data Capture or Change Tracking is the solution, I'd assume that this data can be queried just like data from a normal table? EDIT: I need a permanent audit trail, irregardless of time. I see that Change Data Capture has to do with the transaction logs, so this sounds finite to me.

    Read the article

  • How to parse xml in sql server to process NULL value in DateTime DataType.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I have created a sample query in sql server to parse data from xml and to display it right now. Although I will be inserting this data in my table but before that I am facing a simple problem. I want to insert NULL in datetime field ADDED_DATE="NULL" as shown in xml given below. But when I executes this query. It gives me error Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string. What mistake am i doing. Please highlight my mistake. declare @xml varchar(1000) set @xml= ' <ROOT> <TX_MAP FK_GUEST_ID="1" FK_CATEGORY_ID="2" ATTRIBUTE="Test" DESCRIPTION="TestDesc" IS_ACTIVE="1" ADDED_BY="NULL" ADDED_DATE="NULL" MODIFIED_BY="NULL" MODIFIED_DATE="NULL"></TX_MAP> <TX_MAP FK_GUEST_ID="2" FK_CATEGORY_ID="1" ATTRIBUTE="Test2" DESCRIPTION="TestDesc2" IS_ACTIVE="1" ADDED_BY="NULL" ADDED_DATE="NULL" MODIFIED_BY="NULL" MODIFIED_DATE="NULL"></TX_MAP> </ROOT> ' declare @handle int exec sp_xml_preparedocument @handle output, @xml select * from OPENXML(@handle,'/ROOT/TX_MAP',1) with ( FK_GUEST_ID INT ,FK_CATEGORY_ID VARCHAR(10) ,ATTRIBUTE VARCHAR(100) ,[DESCRIPTION] VARCHAR(100) ,IS_ACTIVE VARCHAR(10) ,ADDED_BY VARCHAR(100) ,ADDED_DATE DATETIME NULL ,MODIFIED_BY VARCHAR(100) ,MODIFIED_DATE DATETIME NULL ) I am using Sql Server 2005.

    Read the article

  • CSRF Protection in AJAX Requests using MVC2

    - by mnemosyn
    The page I'm building depends heavily on AJAX. Basically, there is just one "page" and every data transfer is handled via AJAX. Since overoptimistic caching on the browser side leads to strange problems (data not reloaded), I have to perform all requests (also reads) using POST - that forces a reload. Now I want to prevent the page against CSRF. With form submission, using Html.AntiForgeryToken() works neatly, but in AJAX-request, I guess I will have to append the token manually? Is there anything out-of-the box available? My current attempt looks like this: I'd love to reuse the existing magic. However, HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie is private and I don't want to hack around in MVC. The other option is to write an extension like public static string PlainAntiForgeryToken(this HtmlHelper helper) { // extract the actual field value from the hidden input return helper.AntiForgeryToken().DoSomeHackyStringActions(); } which is somewhat hacky and leaves the bigger problem unsolved: How to verify that token? The default verification implementation is internal and hard-coded against using form fields. I tried to write a slightly modified ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, but it uses an AntiForgeryDataSerializer which is private and I really didn't want to copy that, too. At this point it seems to be easier to come up with a homegrown solution, but that is really duplicate code. Any suggestions how to do this the smart way? Am I missing something completely obvious?

    Read the article

  • Understanding evaluation of expressions containing '++' and '->' operators in C.

    - by Leif Ericson
    Consider this example: struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ++ps->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 1 */ It prints 1. So I understand that it is because according to operators precedence, -> is higher than ++, so the value ps->num (which is 0) is firstly fetched and then the ++ operator operates on it, so it increments it to 1. struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ps++->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 0 */ In this example I get 0 and I don't understand why; the explanation of the first example should be the same for this example. But it seems that this expression is evaluated as follows: At first, the operator ++ operates, and it operates on ps, so it increments it to the next struct. Only then -> operates and it does nothing because it just fetches the num field of the next struct and does nothing with it. But it contradicts the precedence of operators, which says that -> have higher precedence than ++. Can someone explain this behavior? Edit: After reading two answers which refer to a C++ precedence tables which indicate that a prefix ++/-- operators have lower precedence than ->, I did some googling and came up with this link that states that this rule applies also to C itself. It fits exactly and fully explains this behavior, but I must add that the table in this link contradicts a table in my own copy of K&R ANSI C. So if you have suggestions as to which source is correct I would like to know. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Google Chrome Extension - Help needed

    - by Jim-Y
    Im new on Google Chrome Extensions coding, and i have some basic questions. I want to make a Chrome Extension, and the scheme is the following: -a popup window, containing buttons and result fields (popup.html) -when a button is clicked, i want to trigger an event, this event should connect to a webserver (i make the servlet too), and gather information from the server. (XMLHttpRequest()) -after that, i want my extension to load the gathered information into one of the result fields. Simple, isn't it? But i have several problems, right at the beginning:( I started developing with reading tutorials, but i have fog on the main structure of an extension. Now, i started an app, containing a popup.html, manifest.json ... In popup.html theres a result field, and a button <div id="extension_container"> <div id="header"> <p id="intro">Result here</p> <button type="button" id="button">Click Me!</button> </div> <!-- END header --> <div id="content"> </div> <!-- END content --> When button is clicked, i trigger an event, handeled with jquery, code here: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#button").click(function(){ $("#intro").text("Hello, im added"); alert("Clicked"); }); }); </script> And here comes the problem, in popup.html this doesnt work, if i load it to Chrome, nothing happens. Otherwise, if i open popup.html in browser, not as an extension, everything works fine. So, i think i have basic misunderstandings on extension structures, starting with background pages, background javascript and so on.. :( Could anyone help me?

    Read the article

  • Regressing panel data in SAS.

    - by John
    Hey Guys, thanks to your help I succesfully managed all my databases! I am now looking at a panel data set on which I have to regress. Since I only started my Phd this semester together with the econometrics courses I am still new to many statistic applications and regression methods. I want to do a simple regression as in Y = x1 x2 x3 etc, now I already browsed through some literature and found that for panel data it's common to do a fixed effects regression. Also, my Y variable only has positive values so I was thinking in the direction of a Tobit model? I'm doing some research concerning the coverage of analysts in the financial business. My independent variable is the coverage of analysts on a certain firm, so per observation i have 1 analyst and 1 firm, together with different characteristics(market cap and betas etc) of the firm. All this data is monthly. As coverage cannot become negative (only 0) I was thinking of a Tobit model? Do you guys have any ideas what would be a good regression method? Or have some good sources (e books, written books, through university I have access to almost anything concerning my field of work) of information (cause I do have to learn these things for future research)? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • message queue full error in blackberry

    - by Rahul Varma
    Hi , I have coded to get the info from the user and send an email of clicking a button. The program is getting executed for a while and then the simulator is crashing showing error "DE427"-Message queue full... Here's the code that i have done... if(field==SendMail) { Message m = new Message(); Address a = null; try { a = new Address("[email protected]", "Rahul"); } catch (AddressException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Address[] addresses = {a}; try { m.addRecipients(net.rim.blackberry.api.mail.Message.RecipientType.TO, addresses); m.setContent("Name:"+Name.getText().toString()+"\n"+ "Phone :"+Phone.getText().toString()+ "\n"+ "Date & Time:"+DateShow.getText().toString()+"\n"+"Make:"+Make.getText().toString()+ "\n"+"Model:"+Model.getText().toString()+"\n"+"Miles:"+Miles.getText().toString()+"\n"); m.setSubject("Appointment Request (Via Blackberry app)"); } catch (MessagingException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Invoke.invokeApplication(Invoke.APP_TYPE_MESSAGES, new MessageArguments(m)); } Can anyone tell me what the error is and how to rectify the problem....Plz...

    Read the article

  • WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

    Read the article

  • Hibernate bit array to entity mapping

    - by teabot
    I am trying to map a normalized Java model to a legacy database schema using Hibernate 3.5. One particular table encodes a foreign keys in a one-to-many relationship as a bit array column. Consider tables 'person' and 'clubs' that describes people's affiliations to clubs: person .----.------. club: .----.---------.---------------------------. | id | name | | id | name | members | binary(members) | |----+------| |----+---------|---------+-----------------| | 1 | Bob | | 10 | Cricket | 0 | 000 | | 2 | Joe | | 11 | Tennis | 5 | 101 | | 3 | Sue | | 12 | Cooking | 7 | 111 | '----'------' | 13 | Golf | 3 | 100 | '----'---------'---------'-----------------' So hopefully it is clear that person.id is used as the bit index in the bit array club.members. In this example the members column tells us that: no one is a member of Cricket, Bob/Sue - Tennis, Bob/Sue/Joe - Cooking and Sue - Golf. In my Java domain I'd like to declare this with entities like so: class Person { private int id; private String name; ... } class Club { private Set<Person> members; private int id; private String name; ... } I am assuming that I must use a UserType implementation but have been unable to find any examples where the items described by the user type are references to entities - not literal field values - or composites thereof. Additionally I am aware that I'll have to consider how the person entities are fetched when a club instance is loaded. Can anyone tell me how I can tame this legacy schema with Hibernate?

    Read the article

  • add new option to dropdownlist after jquery dialog and post

    - by RememberME
    I have a form to enter subcontracts. On this form I have a dropdownlist of all companies in the system. Next to it is a button "Create Company". This button opens a jquery dialog which allows the user to create a new company. Once the dialog closes, the new company needs to be added to the dropdownlist and selected. If I refresh, it's there, but I need to do it without refreshing the form b/c I don't want the user to loose everything that they've entered into the other fields. I'm not sure how to do this b/c I don't have the guid of the new company. My jquery dialog: $('#popupCreateCompany').dialog( { autoOpen: false, modal: true, buttons: { 'Add': function() { var dialog = $(this); var form = dialog.find('input:text, select'); $.post('/company/create', $(form).serialize(), function() { dialog.dialog('close'); }) }, 'Cancel': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); $("#create-company").click(function() { $('#popupCreateCompany').dialog('open'); }); Company field: <label for="company">Company:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("company", Model.SelectCompanies, "** Select Company **") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Company", "*") %> <button type="button" id="create-company" >Create Company</button>

    Read the article

  • chrome extension login security with iframe

    - by Weaver
    I should note, I'm not a chrome extension expert. However, I'm looking for some advice or high level solution to a security concern I have with my chrome extension. I've searched quite a bit but can't seem to find a concrete answer. The situation I have a chrome extension that needs to have the user login to our backend server. However, it was decided for design reasons that the default chrome popup balloon was undesirable. Thus I've used a modal dialog and jquery to make a styled popup that is injected with content scripts. Hence, the popup is injected into the DOM o the page you are visiting. The Problem Everything works, however now that I need to implement login functionality I've noticed a vulnerability: If the site we've injected our popup into knows the password fields ID they could run a script to continuously monitor the password and username field and store that data. Call me paranoid, but I see it as a risk. In fact,I wrote a mockup attack site that can correctly pull the user and password when entered into the given fields. My devised solution I took a look at some other chrome extensions, like Buffer, and noticed what they do is load their popup from their website and, instead, embed an iFrame which contains the popup in it. The popup would interact with the server inside the iframe. My understanding is iframes are subject to same-origin scripting policies as other websites, but I may be mistaken. As such, would doing the same thing be secure? TLDR To simplify, if I embedded an https login form from our server into a given DOM, via a chrome extension, are there security concerns to password sniffing? If this is not the best way to deal with chrome extension logins, do you have suggestions with what is? Perhaps there is a way to declare text fields that javascript can simply not interact with? Not too sure! Thank you so much for your time! I will happily clarify anything required.

    Read the article

  • JAVA vs .NET - Choice for way to go further [closed]

    - by Sarang
    I have my subject .Net acedemically. I also learned core Java and did a project as well. I took training from a Java firm. Now, as a skill I do have knowledge as both language. But, it is creating a large problem to me that, which field I should chhose? Even if having better OOP fundamentals, will it be easier for me to transfer from one to another in the future ? Please suggest me a way. Also, we do have may technologies available at both side, like JSP, JSF, J2ME, Share Point, SilverLight etc. Which is better as per their reliabity point of view? Which are fast growing and useful technologies used mostly in current IT corporate world ? Are they easier to learn at fresher's point of view? Please answer. Perhaps, this answer may help me mostly to create my way to learn them and go further. Every IT developer, please help to find me my way.

    Read the article

  • Re-Convert timestamp DATE back to original format (when editing) PHP MySQL

    - by Jess
    Ok so I have managed to get the format of the date presented in HTML (upon display) to how I want (dd/mm/yyy)...However, the user also can change the date via a form. So this is how it's setup as present. Firstly, the conversion from YYYY-MM-DD to DD/MM/YYYY and then display in HTML: $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); echo date('d/m/Y', $timestamp); Now when the user selects to update the due date, the value already stored value is drawn up and presented in my text field (using exactly the same code as above).. All good so far. But when my user runs the update script (clicks submit), the new due date is not being stored, and in my DB its seen as '0000-00-00'. I know I need to convert it back to the correct format that MySQL wants to have it in, in order for it to be saved, but I'm not sure on how to do this. This is what I have so far in my update script (for the due date): $duedate = $_POST['duedate']; $timestamp = strtotime($duedate); date('Y/m/d', $timestamp); $query = "UPDATE films SET filmname= '".$filmname."', duedate= '".$duedate; Can somebody please point me in the right direction to have the new date, when processed, converted back to the accepted format by MySQL. I appreciate any help given! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Accessing class member variables inside a BackgroundWorker's DoWork event handler, and other Backgro

    - by Justin
    Question 1 In the DoWork event handler of a BackgroundWorker, is it safe to access (for both reading and writing) member variables of the class that contains the BackgroundWorker? Is it safe to access other variables that are not declared inside the DoWork event handler itself? Obviously DoWork should not be accessing any UI objects of, say, a WinForms application, as the UI should only be updated from the UI thread. But what about accessing other (not UI-related) member variables? The reason why I ask is that I've seen the occasional comment come up while Googling saying that accessing member variables is not allowed. The only example I can find at the moment is a comment on this MSDN page, which says: Note, that the BGW can cause exceptions if it attempts to access or modify class level variables. All data must be passed to it by delegates and events. And also: NEVER. NEVER. Never try to reference variables not declared inside of DoWork. It may seem to work at times, but in reality you are just getting lucky. As far as I know, MSDN itself does not document any restrictions of this kind (although if I'm wrong, I'd appreciate a link). But comments like these do seem to pop up every now and again. (Of course if DoWork does access/modify a member variable that could be accessed/modified by the main thread at the same time, it is necessary to synchronise access to that field, eg by using a locking object. But the above quotes seem to require a blanket ban of accessing member variables, rather than just synchronising access!) Question 2 To make this into a more general question, are there any other (not documented?) restrictions that users of the BackgroundWorker should be aware of, aside from the above? Any "best practices", perhaps?

    Read the article

  • How to make CFileDialog synchronize the displayed filename with the selected extension?

    - by RobH
    We have a class that derives from CFileDialog that overrides the OnTypeChange() method to allow it to change the filename to keep it in synch with the selected extension whenever the user selects a new extension from the filter combobox. (Our filters are set to contain only one extension per filter entry.) Unfortunately, the way we are doing this seems to have been broken by the Vista style dialogue. (We were using SetControlText() to set the filename edit box to the filename with the newly selected extension, but the control ID seems to be different for the Vista style dialogue, and the one that I found using Spy++ works just as well as the old ID (i.e., it doesn't)..) Is there a better way to tell the CFileDialog object to update the filename field to use the new extension when the user selects a new filter? It has to work with the old XP style dialogue as well. Failing that, how to I force the use of the XP style dialogue so that I get my functionality back without the dialogue crashing on me? (I'd rather not go that route if at all possible.) I've found a way to get it to fall back to the XP style. I still want to get the new style dialogue to do what I want though.

    Read the article

  • NSPredicate case-insensitive matching on to-many relationship

    - by Brian Webster
    I am implementing a search field where the user can type in a string to filter the items displayed in a view. Each object being displayed has a keywords to-many relationship, and I would like to be able to filter the objects based on their keywords. Each keyword object has a name property, so I've set up an NSPredicate to do the filtering that looks like this: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS %@", self.searchString]; This works, but the problem is that the search is case-sensitive, so if the keyword has a capital letter but the user types in all lowercase, no matches are found. I've tried the following modification: NSPredicate* predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"keywords.name CONTAINS[c] %@", self.searchString]; But that doesn't make any difference in the case sensitivity of the matching. Is there a way to do this case-insensitive matching using just a plain predicate? Or will I need to implement some sort of custom accessor on the keyword class, e.g. write a lowercaseName method and match against a lowercased version of the search string instead? Addendum: After further exploration, the workaround of adding a custom accessor works OK for manual use of NSPredicate, but does not work at all when using NSFetchRequest with Core Data, which only works when querying attributes defined in the Core Data model.

    Read the article

  • Dojo DataGrid, programmatic creation

    - by djna
    I'm trying to create a DataGrid dynamically. Declarative creation is working fine: A source of data: <span dojoType="dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore" jsId="theStore" url="dataonly001.json"> </span> a simple layout: <script type="text/javascript" > var layout = [ { field: 'custId', name: 'Id', } // more items elided ... ]; </script> The grid: <body class="tundra" id="mainbody"> <div id="grid" dojoType="dojox.grid.DataGrid" store="theStore" structure="layout" autoWidth="true" ></div> </body> And I get the grid displayed nicely. Instead, I want to create the grid dynamically. For the sake of figuring out what's broken I've tried to use exactly the same layout and store, removing just teh grid declaration and adding this script: <script type="text/javascript" djConfig="parseOnLoad: true, debugAtAllCosts: true"> dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ // initialise and lay out home page console.log("Have a store:" + theStore); console.log("Have a structure:" + layout); var grid = new dojox.grid.DataGrid({ id:"grid", store : theStore, clientSort : "true", structure : layout }); grid.startup(); dojo.place(grid.domNode, dojo.body(), "first"); }); </script> The effect that I get is a completely empty rectangle is displayed. Using FireBug I can see that the DataGrid widget is created but that it has no rows or columns. So my guess is that the datastore or layout are not being passed correctly. However, it does appear that at the point of creation the values of theStore and layout are correct. Suggestions please, or indeed a working example of a programmic grid might solve the problem.

    Read the article

  • jQuery + Jeditable - detect when select is changed

    - by Bryan Roth
    I'm using Jeditable for in-place editing. One the controls I am working with has the select type. When a user clicks on the field, the following select control is generated: <div id="status" class="editable_select"> <form> <select name="value"> <option value="Active">Active</option> <option value="Inactive">Inactive</option> </select> <button type="submit">Save</button> <button type="cancel">Cancel</button> </form> </div> What I am trying to figure out is how to use jQuery to detect when that select control is changed, especially since it doesn't have an ID attribute. This is what I have so far, but the event is not getting triggered: $(document).ready(function () { $('#status select').change(function () { alert("Change Event Triggered On:" + $(this).attr("value")); }); });

    Read the article

  • JQuery datepicker not working

    - by IniTech
    I'm completely new to JQuery and MVC. I'm working on a pet project that uses both to learn them and I've hit my first snag. I have a date field and I want to add the JQuery datepicker to the UI. Here is what I have done: Added <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> to the site.master Inside my Create.aspx (View), I have <asp:Content ID="Create" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2> Create a Task</h2> <% Html.RenderPartial("TaskForm"); %> </asp:Content> and inside "TaskForm" (a user control) I have: <label for="dDueDate"> Due Date</label> <%= Html.TextBox("dDueDate",(Model.Task.TaskID > 0 ? string.Format("{0:g}",Model.Task.DueDate) : DateTime.Today.ToString("MM/dd/yyyy"))) %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#dDueDate").datepicker(); }); </script> As you can see, the above checks to see if a task has an id 0 (we're not creating a new one) if it does, it uses the date on the task, if not it defaults to today. I would expect the datepicker UI element to show up, but instead I get: "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" on the $("#dDueDate").datepicker(); Ideas? It is probably a very simple mistake, so don't over-analyze. As I said, this is the first time I've dealt with MVC or JQuery so I'm lost as to where to start.

    Read the article

  • How to set default date in date_select helper in Rails

    - by brad
    I'm trying to set up a date of birth helper in my Rails app (2.3.5). At present it is like so. <%= f.date_select :date_of_birth, :start_year => Time.now.year - 110, :end_year => Time.now.year %> This generates a perfectly functional set of date fields that work just fine but.... They default to today's date which is not ideal for a date of birth field (I'm not sure what is but unless you're running a neonatal unit today's date seems less than ideal). I want it to read Jan 1 2010 instead (or 2011 or whatever year it happens to be). Using the :default option has proven unsuccessful. I've tried many possibilities including; <%= f.date_select :date_of_birth, :default => {:year => Time.now.year, :month => 'Jan', :day => 1}, :start_year => Time.now.year - 110, :end_year => Time.now.year %> and <%= f.date_select :date_of_birth, :default => Time.local(2010,'Jan',1), :start_year => Time.now.year - 110, :end_year => Time.now.year %> None of this changes the behaviour of the first example. Does the default option actually work as described? It seems that this should be a fairly straightforward thing to do. Ta.

    Read the article

  • How to run validator from javascript?

    - by David Shochet
    Here is a part of my code: <asp:ListBox ID="lbRD" runat="server" DataSourceID="RDSqlDataSource" onchange="JSFillDetail();" DataTextField="????????" DataValueField="ID" Width="188px" Height="200px"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDescription" runat="server" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="txtDescriptionRequiredFieldValidator" runat="server" ErrorMessage="???????? ???????? ???????????? ??? ??????????" ControlToValidate="txtDescription" /> I have a listbox, a textbox and a required field validator on my page. When the user selects something from the listbox, the selected item appears in the textbox using a javascript function. When the page is submitted, the validator reports an error in case the textbox is empty. If after that the user selects something from the listbox, the error message is still displayed, even though the textbox is not empty anymore. How can I make the validator validate the textbox, or even better, to clear the error message from the javascript function that fills the textbox? Thanks, David

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485  | Next Page >