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  • Using PHP's IMAP library triggers Kaspersky's Antivirus

    - by TMG
    Hello, I just started today working with PHP's IMAP library, and while imap_fetchbody or imap_body are called, it is triggering my Kaspersky antivirus. The viruses are Trojan.Win32.Agent.dmyq and Trojan.Win32.FraudPack.aoda. I am running this off a local development machine with XAMPP and Kaspersky AV. Now, I am sure there are viruses there since there is spam in the box (who doesn't need a some viagra or vicodin these days?). And I know that since the raw body includes attachments and different mime-types, bad stuff can be in the body. So my question is: are there any risks using these libraries? I am assuming that the IMAP functions are retrieving the body, caching it to disk/memory and the AV scanning it sees the data. Is that correct? Are there any known security concerns using this library (I couldn't find any)? Does it clean up cached message parts perfectly or might viral files be sitting somewhere? Is there a better way to get plain text out of the body than this? Right now I am using the following code (credit to Kevin Steffer): function get_mime_type(&$structure) { $primary_mime_type = array("TEXT", "MULTIPART","MESSAGE", "APPLICATION", "AUDIO","IMAGE", "VIDEO", "OTHER"); if($structure->subtype) { return $primary_mime_type[(int) $structure->type] . '/' .$structure->subtype; } return "TEXT/PLAIN"; } function get_part($stream, $msg_number, $mime_type, $structure = false, $part_number = false) { if(!$structure) { $structure = imap_fetchstructure($stream, $msg_number); } if($structure) { if($mime_type == get_mime_type($structure)) { if(!$part_number) { $part_number = "1"; } $text = imap_fetchbody($stream, $msg_number, $part_number); if($structure->encoding == 3) { return imap_base64($text); } else if($structure->encoding == 4) { return imap_qprint($text); } else { return $text; } } if($structure->type == 1) /* multipart */ { while(list($index, $sub_structure) = each($structure->parts)) { if($part_number) { $prefix = $part_number . '.'; } $data = get_part($stream, $msg_number, $mime_type, $sub_structure,$prefix . ($index + 1)); if($data) { return $data; } } // END OF WHILE } // END OF MULTIPART } // END OF STRUTURE return false; } // END OF FUNCTION $connection = imap_open($server, $login, $password); $count = imap_num_msg($connection); for($i = 1; $i <= $count; $i++) { $header = imap_headerinfo($connection, $i); $from = $header->fromaddress; $to = $header->toaddress; $subject = $header->subject; $date = $header->date; $body = get_part($connection, $i, "TEXT/PLAIN"); }

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  • Error at lapack cgesv when matrix is not singular

    - by Jan Malec
    This is my first post. I usually ask classmates for help, but they have a lot of work now and I'm too desperate to figure this out on my own :). I am working on a project for school and I have come to a point where I need to solve a system of linear equations with complex numbers. I have decided to call lapack routine "cgesv" from c++. I use the c++ complex library to work with complex numbers. Problem is, when I call the routine, I get error code "2". From lapack documentation: INFO is INTEGER = 0: successful exit < 0: if INFO = -i, the i-th argument had an illegal value > 0: if INFO = i, U(i,i) is exactly zero. The factorization has been completed, but the factor U is exactly singular, so the solution could not be computed. Therefore, the element U(2, 2) should be zero, but it is not. This is how I declare the function: void cgesv_( int* N, int* NRHS, std::complex* A, int* lda, int* ipiv, std::complex* B, int* ldb, int* INFO ); This is how I use it: int *IPIV = new int[NA]; int INFO, NRHS = 1; std::complex<double> *aMatrix = new std::complex<double>[NA*NA]; for(int i=0; i<NA; i++){ for(int j=0; j<NA; j++){ aMatrix[j*NA+i] = A[i][j]; } } cgesv_( &NA, &NRHS, aMatrix, &NA, IPIV, B, &NB, &INFO ); And this is how the matrix looks like: (1,-160.85) (0,0.000306796) (0,-0) (0,-0) (0,-0) (0,0.000306796) (1,-40.213) (0,0.000306796) (0,-0) (0,-0) (0,-0) (0,0.000306796) (1,-0.000613592) (0,0.000306796) (0,-0) (0,-0) (0,-0) (0,0.000306796) (1,-40.213) (0,0.000306796) (0,-0) (0,-0) (0,-0) (0,0.000306796) (1,-160.85) I had to split the matrix colums, otherwise it did not format correctly. My first suspicion was that complex is not parsed correctly, but I have used lapack functions with complex numbers before this way. Any ideas?

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  • How can I get image data from QTKit without color or gamma correction in Snow Leopard?

    - by Nick Haddad
    Since Snow Leopard, QTKit is now returning color corrected image data from functions like QTMovies frameImageAtTime:withAttributes:error:. Given an uncompressed AVI file, the same image data is displayed with larger pixel values in Snow Leopard vs. Leopard. Currently I'm using frameImageAtTime to get an NSImage, then ask for the tiffRepresentation of that image. After doing this, pixel values are slightly higher in Snow Leopard. For example, a file with the following pixel value in Leopard: [0 180 0] Now has a pixel value like: [0 192 0] Is there any way to ask a QTMovie for video frames that are not color corrected? Should I be asking for a CGImageRef, CIImage, or CVPixelBufferRef instead? Is there a way to disable color correction altogether prior to reading in the video files? I've attempted to work around this issue by drawing into a NSBitmapImageRep with the NSCalibratedColroSpace, but that only gets my part of the way there: // Create a movie NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys : nsFileName, QTMovieFileNameAttribute, [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO], QTMovieOpenAsyncOKAttribute, [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO], QTMovieLoopsAttribute, [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO], QTMovieLoopsBackAndForthAttribute, (id)nil]; _theMovie = [[QTMovie alloc] initWithAttributes:dict error:&error]; // .... NSMutableDictionary *imageAttributes = [NSMutableDictionary dictionary]; [imageAttributes setObject:QTMovieFrameImageTypeNSImage forKey:QTMovieFrameImageType]; [imageAttributes setObject:[NSArray arrayWithObject:@"NSBitmapImageRep"] forKey: QTMovieFrameImageRepresentationsType]; [imageAttributes setObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:QTMovieFrameImageHighQuality]; NSError* err = nil; NSImage* image = (NSImage*)[_theMovie frameImageAtTime:frameTime withAttributes:imageAttributes error:&err]; // copy NSImage into an NSBitmapImageRep (Objective-C) NSBitmapImageRep* bitmap = [[image representations] objectAtIndex:0]; // Draw into a colorspace we know about NSBitmapImageRep *bitmapWhoseFormatIKnow = [[NSBitmapImageRep alloc] initWithBitmapDataPlanes:NULL pixelsWide:getWidth() pixelsHigh:getHeight() bitsPerSample:8 samplesPerPixel:4 hasAlpha:YES isPlanar:NO colorSpaceName:NSCalibratedRGBColorSpace bitmapFormat:0 bytesPerRow:(getWidth() * 4) bitsPerPixel:32]; [NSGraphicsContext saveGraphicsState]; [NSGraphicsContext setCurrentContext:[NSGraphicsContext graphicsContextWithBitmapImageRep:bitmapWhoseFormatIKnow]]; [bitmap draw]; [NSGraphicsContext restoreGraphicsState]; This does convert back to a 'Non color corrected' colorspace, but the color values NOT are exactly the same as what is stored in the Uncompressed AVI files we are testing with. Also this is much less efficient because it is converting from RGB - "Device RGB" - RGB. Also, I am working in a 64-bit application, so dropping down to the Quicktime-C API is not an option. Thanks for your help.

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  • Objective-C NSArray NEWBIE Question:

    - by clearbrian
    Hi I have a weird problems with NSArray where some of the members of the objects in my array are going out of scope but not the others: I have a simple object called Section. It has 3 members. @interface Section : NSObject { NSNumber *section_Id; NSNumber *routeId; NSString *startLocationName; } @property(nonatomic,retain) NSNumber *section_Id; @property(nonatomic,retain) NSNumber *routeId; @property(nonatomic,retain) NSString *startLocationName; @end @implementation Section @synthesize section_Id; @synthesize routeId; @synthesize startLocationName; //Some static finder methods to get list of Sections from the db + (NSMutableArray *) findAllSections:{ - (void)dealloc { [section_Id release]; [routeId release]; [startLocationName release]; [super dealloc]; } @end I fill it from a database in a method called findAllSection self.sections = [Section findAllSections]; In find all sections I create some local variables fill them with data from db. NSNumber *secId = [NSNumber numberWithInt:id_section]; NSNumber *rteId = [NSNumber numberWithInt:id_route]; NSString *startName = @""; Then create a new Section and store these local variable's data in the Section Section *section = [[Section alloc] init]; section.section_Id = secId; section.routeId = rteId; section.startLocationName = startName; Then I add the section to the array [sectionsArray addObject:section]; Then I clean up, releasing local variables and the section I added to the array [secId release]; [rteId release]; [startName release]; [locEnd_name release]; [section release]; In a loop repeat for all Sections (release local variables and section is done in every loop) The method returns and I check the array and all the Sections are there. I cant seem to dig further down to see the values of the Section objects in the array (is this possible) Later I try and retrieve one of the Sections I get it from the array Section * section = [self.sections objectAtIndex:row]; Then check the value NSLog(@" SECTION SELECTED:%@",section.section_Id); BUT call to section.section_Id crashed as section.section_Id is out of scope. I check the other members of this Section object and theyre ok. After some trial and error I find that by commenting out the release of the member variable the object is OK. //[secId release]; [rteId release]; [startName release]; [locEnd_name release]; [section release]; My questions are: Am I cleaning up ok? Should I release the object added to an array and the local variable in the function? Is my dealloc ok in Section? Does this code look ok and should I be looking elsewhere for the problem? I'm not doing anything complicated just filling array from DB use it in Table Cell. If its a stupid mistake then tell me (I did put NEWBIE on the question so dont be shocked it was asked) I can comment out the release but would prefer to know why or if code looks ok then ill need further digging. the only place that secId is released is in the dealloc. Thanks

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  • Stack Overflow Exploit in C

    - by Fernando Gonzalez
    Hey there guys, the question is actually about stack overflows in C. I have an assigment that I can not get done for the life of me, i've looked at everything in the gdb and I just cant figure it. The question is the following: int i,n; void confused() { printf("who called me"); exit(0); } void shell_call(char *c) { printf(" ***Now calling \"%s\" shell command *** \n",c); system(c); exit(0); } void victim_func() { int a[4]; printf("[8]:%x\n", &a[8]); printf("Enter n: "); scanf("%d",&n); printf("Enter %d HEX Values \n",n); for(i=0;i<n;i++) scanf("%x",&a[i]); printf("Done reading junk numbers\n"); } int main() { printf("ls=736c --- ps = 7370 --- cal = 6c6163\n"); printf("location of confused %x \n", confused); printf("location of shell_call %x \n", shell_call); victim_func(); printf("Done, thank you\n"); } Ok, so I managed to get the first question correctly, which is to arbitrarily call one of the two functions not explicitly called in the main path. By the way, this has to be done while running the program without any modifications. I did this by running the program, setting N to 7, which gets me to the Function Pointer of the victim_func frame, I write a[7] with the memory address of confused or shell_call, and it works. (I have a 64 bit machine, thats why I have to get it to 7, since the EBI pointer is 2 ints wide, instead of 1) My question is the following, how could I control which argument gets passed to the shell_code funcion? ie. how do i write a string to char* c. The whole point is executing unix commands like "ps" etc, by running only the program. I figured writing the EBI pointer with the hex representation of "ps" and setting the arg list of shell_call to that, but that didn't work. I also tried inputing argsv arguments and setting the arg list of shell_call to the arg_list of main, but didnt work either. I think the second version should work, but i believe im not setting the arg list of the new stack frame correctly ( I did it by writing a[8] to 0, since its the first part of the functin pointer, and writing a[9]=736c and a[10]=0000, but its probably not right since those are the parameters of victim_func. So how do i access the parameters of shell_call?

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  • Marshal.PtrToStructure (and back again) and generic solution for endianness swapping

    - by cgyDeveloper
    I have a system where a remote agent sends serialized structures (from and embedded C system) for me to read and store via IP/UDP. In some cases I need to send back the same structure types. I thought I had a nice setup using Marshal.PtrToStructure (receive) and Marshal.StructureToPtr (send). However, a small gotcha is that the network big endian integers need to be converted to my x86 little endian format to be used locally. When I'm sending them off again, big endian is the way to go. Here are the functions in question: private static T BytesToStruct<T>(ref byte[] rawData) where T: struct { T result = default(T); GCHandle handle = GCHandle.Alloc(rawData, GCHandleType.Pinned); try { IntPtr rawDataPtr = handle.AddrOfPinnedObject(); result = (T)Marshal.PtrToStructure(rawDataPtr, typeof(T)); } finally { handle.Free(); } return result; } private static byte[] StructToBytes<T>(T data) where T: struct { byte[] rawData = new byte[Marshal.SizeOf(data)]; GCHandle handle = GCHandle.Alloc(rawData, GCHandleType.Pinned); try { IntPtr rawDataPtr = handle.AddrOfPinnedObject(); Marshal.StructureToPtr(data, rawDataPtr, false); } finally { handle.Free(); } return rawData; } And a quick example structure that might be used like this: byte[] data = this.sock.Receive(ref this.ipep); Request request = BytesToStruct<Request>(ref data); Where the structure in question looks like: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi, Pack = 1)] private struct Request { public byte type; public short sequence; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValArray, SizeConst = 5)] public byte[] address; } What (generic) way can I swap the endianness when marshalling the structures? My need is such that the locally stored 'public short sequence' in this example will be little-endian for displaying to the user. I don't want to have to swap the endianness on a structure-specific way. My first thought was to use Reflection, but I'm not very familiar with that feature. Also, I hoped that there would be a better solution out there that somebody could point me towards. Thanks in advance :)

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  • Strange behavior with Powershell scriptblock variable scope and modules, any suggestions?

    - by DanMan
    NOTE: I'm using PowerShell 2.0 on Windows Vista. I'm trying to add support for specifying build arguments to psake, but I've run into some strange PowerShell variable scoping behavior dealing specifically with calling functions that have been exported using Export-ModuleMember (which is how psake exposes it's main method). Following is a simple PowerShell module to illustrate (named repoCase.psm1): function Test { param( [Parameter(Position=0,Mandatory=0)] [scriptblock]$properties = {} ) $defaults = {$message = "Hello, world!"} Write-Host "Before running defaults, message is: $message" . $defaults #At this point, $message is correctly set to "Hellow, world!" Write-Host "Aftering running defaults, message is: $message" . $properties #At this point, I would expect $message to be set to whatever is passed in, #which in this case is "Hello from poperties!", but it isn't. Write-Host "Aftering running properties, message is: $message" } Export-ModuleMember -Function "Test" To test the module, run the following sequence of commands (be sure you're in the same directory as the repoCase.psm1): Import-Module .\repoCase.psm1 #Note that $message should be null Write-Host "Before execution - In global scope, message is: $message" Test -properties { "Executing properties, message is $message"; $message = "Hello from properties!"; } #Now $message is set to the value from the script block. The script block affected only the global scope. Write-Host "After execution - In global scope, message is: $message" Remove-Module repoCase The behavior I expected was for the script block I passed to Test to affect the local scope of Test. It is being 'dotsourced' in, so any changes it makes should be within the scope of the caller. However, that's not what's happening, it seems to be affecting the scope of where it was declared. Here's the output: Before execution - In global scope, message is: Before running defaults, message is: Aftering running defaults, message is: Hello, world! Executing properties, message is Aftering running properties, message is: Hello, world! After execution - In global scope, message is: Hello from properties! Interestingly, if I don't export Test as a module and instead just declare the function and invoke it, everything works just like I would expect it to. The script block affects only Test's scope, and does not modify the global scope. I'm not a PowerShell guru, but can someone explain this behavior to me?

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  • Subroutine & GoTo design

    - by sub
    I have a strange question concerning subroutines: As I'm creating a minimal language and I don't want to add high-level loops like while or for I was planning on just adding gotos to keep it Turing-Complete. Now I thought, eww - gotos - I wouldn't want to program in that language if I had to use gotos so often. So I thought about adding subroutines instead. I see the difference as the following: gotos Go to (captain obvious) a previously defined point and continue executing the program from there. Leads to hardly understandable and buggy code, I think that's a fact. subroutines Similiar: You define their starting point somewhere, as you call them the program jumps there - but the subroutine can go back to the point it was called from with return. Okay. Why didn't I just add the more function-like, nice looking subroutines? Because: In order to make return work if I call subroutines from within subroutines from within other subroutines, I'd have to use a stack containing the point where the currently running subroutine came from at top. That would then mean that I would, if I create loops using the subroutines, end up with an extremely memory-eating, overflowing stack with return locations. Not good. Don't think of my subroutines as functions. They are just gotos that return to the point they were called from, they don't actually give back values like the return x; statement in nearly all today's languages. Now to my actual questions: How can I solve the above problem with the stack overflow on loops with subroutines? Do I have to add a separate goto language construct without the return option? Assembler doesn't have loops but as I have seen myJumpPoint:, jnz, jz, retn. That means to me that there must also be a stack containing all the return locations. Am I right with that? What about long running loops then? Don't they overflow the stack/eat memory then? Am I getting the retn symbol in assembler totally wrong? If yes, please explain it to me.

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  • DOM Elements with same id and jQuery

    - by Steve
    Hi I have multiple elements with the same structure in my application. Second div element's id varies as per the comment id in the db which is unique. There are elements with the id 'vote_up' and 'vote_down'. This gets repeated for each comment.What happens is that, as I mentioned, there are multiple comments. I want to perform an Ajax request. First of this structure functions properly using ajax, but the rest does an http request. Btw I am developing a rails application and I am using jQuery. <div id="post_comment"> john<i> says </i> Comment<br/> <div id="comment_10_div"> **<form action="/comments/vote_up" id="vote_up" method="post">** <div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"> <input name="authenticity_token" type="hidden" value="w873BgYHLxQmadUalzMRUC+1ql4AtP3U7f78dT8x9ho=" /> </div> <input id="Comment_place_id" name="Comment[post_id]" type="hidden" value="3" /> <input id="Comment_id" name="Comment[id]" type="hidden" value="10" /> <input id="Comment_user_id" name="Comment[user_id]" type="hidden" value="2" /> <input name="commit" type="submit" value="Vote up" /> </form> <label id="comment_10">10</label> **<form action="/comments/vote_down" id="vote_down" method="post">** <div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"> <input name="authenticity_token" type="hidden" value="w873BgYHLxQmadUalzMRUC+1ql4AtP3U7f78dT8x9ho=" /> </div> <input id="Comment_place_id" name="Comment[place_id]" type="hidden" value="3" /> <input id="Comment_id" name="Comment[id]" type="hidden" value="10" /> <input id="Comment_user_id" name="Comment[user_id]" type="hidden" value="2" /> <input name="commit" type="submit" value="Vote Down" /> </form> </div> Can you please help me to solve this Thanks

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  • jquery ajax call in onsubmit function is not working

    - by shilna mk
    I have form submission page add_sale.php and an ajax page ajx_check_sale.php.Ajax call is inthe onsubmit function.But ajax is not worikng.Anybody give any solution plz.. I have form submission page add_sale.php and an ajax page ajx_check_sale.php.Ajax call is inthe onsubmit function.But ajax is not worikng.Anybody give any solution plz.. add_sale.php function sale_credit(id) { var cust_name=$('#cust_name').val(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'ajx_typ1.php', data:'id='+id, success: function(msg) { $("#sale_type1").html(msg); } }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'ajx_typ3.php', data:'id='+id, success: function(msg) { $("#sale_type3").html(msg); } }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'ajx_typ2.php', data:'id='+id, success: function(msg) { $("#sale_type2").html(msg); } }); } function validate_form() { var cust_name= $('#cust_name').val(); var total= $('#total').val(); var sale_type= $('#sale_type').val(); if(sale_type=='return') { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'ajx_check_sale.php', data:'cust_name='+cust_name + '&total=' + total, success: function(msg) { alert(msg); /*if(msg==0) { alert("Return is greater then sale"); return false; } */ } }); } } <form action="" method="post" name="adFrm" onSubmit="return validate_form()"> <select name="sale_type" style="width:130px;" id="sale_type" onchange="sale_credit(this.value)" > <option value="">Select</option> <option value="credit">Credit</option> <option value="payment">Payment</option> <option value="return">Return</option> </select> </form> ajx_check_sale.php require_once("codelibrary/inc/variables.php"); require_once("codelibrary/inc/functions.php"); echo $cust_name=$_POST['cust_name']; echo $return=$_POST['total']; $cus="select sum(total) as total_sum from customer where id='$cust_id'"; $cus2=mysql_query($cus); $fet=mysql_fetch_array($cus2); $total=$fet['total_sum']; if($return>$total) { $status=0; echo $status; } else { $status=1; echo $status; }

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  • How to write this JavaScript code without eval?

    - by karlthorwald
    How to write this JavaScript code without eval? var typeOfString = eval("typeof " + that.modules[modName].varName); if (typeOfString !== "undefined") { doSomething(); } The point is that the name of the var that I want to check for is in a string. Maybe it is simple but I don't know how. Edit: Thank you for the very interesting answers so far. I will follow your suggestions and integrate this into my code and do some testing and report. Could take a while. Edit2: I had another look at the could and maybe itis better I show you a bigger picture. I am greatful for the experts to explain so beautiful, it is better with more code: MYNAMESPACE.Loader = ( function() { function C() { this.modules = {}; this.required = {}; this.waitCount = 0; this.appendUrl = ''; this.docHead = document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; } function insert() { var that = this; //insert all script tags to the head now! //loop over all modules: for (var modName in this.required) { if(this.required.hasOwnProperty(modName)){ if (this.required[modName] === 'required') { this.required[modName] = 'loading'; this.waitCount = this.waitCount + 1; this.insertModule(modName); } } } //now poll until everything is loaded or //until timout this.intervalId = 0; var checkFunction = function() { if (that.waitCount === 0) { clearInterval(that.intervalId); that.onSuccess(); return; } for (var modName in that.required) { if(that.required.hasOwnProperty(modName)){ if (that.required[modName] === 'loading') { var typeOfString = eval("typeof " + that.modules[modName].varName); if (typeOfString !== "undefined") { //module is loaded! that.required[modName] = 'ok'; that.waitCount = that.waitCount - 1; if (that.waitCount === 0) { clearInterval(that.intervalId); that.onSuccess(); return; } } } } } }; //execute the function twice a second to check if all is loaded: this.intervalId = setInterval(checkFunction, 500); //further execution will be in checkFunction, //so nothing left to do here } C.prototype.insert = insert; //there are more functions here... return C; }()); var myLoader = new MYNAMESPACE.Loader(); //some more lines here... myLoader.insert();

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  • Insertions into Zipper trees on XML files in Clojure

    - by ivar
    I'm confused as how to idiomatically change a xml tree accessed through clojure.contrib's zip-filter.xml. Should be trying to do this at all, or is there a better way? Say that I have some dummy xml file "itemdb.xml" like this: <itemlist> <item id="1"> <name>John</name> <desc>Works near here.</desc> </item> <item id="2"> <name>Sally</name> <desc>Owner of pet store.</desc> </item> </itemlist> And I have some code: (require '[clojure.zip :as zip] '[clojure.contrib.duck-streams :as ds] '[clojure.contrib.lazy-xml :as lxml] '[clojure.contrib.zip-filter.xml :as zf]) (def db (ref (zip/xml-zip (lxml/parse-trim (java.io.File. "itemdb.xml"))))) ;; Test that we can traverse and parse. (doall (map #(print (format "%10s: %s\n" (apply str (zf/xml-> % :name zf/text)) (apply str (zf/xml-> % :desc zf/text)))) (zf/xml-> @db :item))) ;; I assume something like this is needed to make the xml tags (defn create-item [name desc] {:tag :item :attrs {:id "3"} :contents (list {:tag :name :attrs {} :contents (list name)} {:tag :desc :attrs {} :contents (list desc)})}) (def fred-item (create-item "Fred" "Green-haired astrophysicist.")) ;; This disturbs the structure somehow (defn append-item [xmldb item] (zip/insert-right (-> xmldb zip/down zip/rightmost) item)) ;; I want to do something more like this (defn append-item2 [xmldb item] (zip/insert-right (zip/rightmost (zf/xml-> xmldb :item)) item)) (dosync (alter db append-item2 fred-item)) ;; Save this simple xml file with some added stuff. (ds/spit "appended-itemdb.xml" (with-out-str (lxml/emit (zip/root @db) :pad true))) I am unclear about how to use the clojure.zip functions appropriately in this case, and how that interacts with zip-filter. If you spot anything particularly weird in this small example, please point it out.

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  • showing errors from actions in table-based views

    - by enashnash
    I have a view where I want to perform different actions on the items in each row in a table, similar to this (in, say, ~/Views/Thing/Manage.aspx): <table> <% foreach (thing in Model) { %> <tr> <td><%: thing.x %></td> <td> <% using (Html.BeginForm("SetEnabled", "Thing")) { %> <%: Html.Hidden("x", thing.x) %> <%: Html.Hidden("enable", !thing.Enabled) %> <input type="submit" value="<%: thing.Enabled ? "Disable" : "Enable" %>" /> <% } %> </td> <!-- more tds with similar action forms here, a few per table row --> </tr> <% } %> In my ThingController, I have functions similar to the following: public ActionResult Manage() { return View(ThingService.GetThings()); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult SetEnabled(string x, bool enable) { try { ThingService.SetEnabled(x, enable); } catch (Exception ex) { ModelState.AddModelError("", ex.Message); // I know this is wrong... } return RedirectToAction("Manage"); } In the most part, this is working fine. The problem is that if ThingService.SetEnabled throws an error, I want to be able to display the error at the top of the table. I've tried a few things with Html.ValidationSummary() in the page but I can't get it to work. Note that I don't want to send the user to a separate page to do this, and I'm trying to do it without using any javascript. Am I going about displaying my table in the best way? How do I get the errors displayed in the way I want them to? I will end up with perhaps 40 small forms on the page. This approach comes largely from this article, but it doesn't handle the errors in the way I need to. Any takers?

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  • Xcache - No different after using it

    - by Charles Yeung
    Hi I have installed Xcache in my site(using xampp), I have tested more then 10 times on several page and the result is same as default(no any cache installed), is it something wrong with the configure? Updated [xcache-common] ;; install as zend extension (recommended), normally "$extension_dir/xcache.so" zend_extension = /usr/local/lib/php/extensions/non-debug-non-zts-xxx/xcache.so zend_extension_ts = /usr/local/lib/php/extensions/non-debug-zts-xxx/xcache.so ;; For windows users, replace xcache.so with php_xcache.dll zend_extension_ts = C:\xampp\php\ext\php_xcache.dll ;; or install as extension, make sure your extension_dir setting is correct ; extension = xcache.so ;; or win32: ; extension = php_xcache.dll [xcache.admin] xcache.admin.enable_auth = On xcache.admin.user = "mOo" ; xcache.admin.pass = md5($your_password) xcache.admin.pass = "" [xcache] ; ini only settings, all the values here is default unless explained ; select low level shm/allocator scheme implemenation xcache.shm_scheme = "mmap" ; to disable: xcache.size=0 ; to enable : xcache.size=64M etc (any size > 0) and your system mmap allows xcache.size = 60M ; set to cpu count (cat /proc/cpuinfo |grep -c processor) xcache.count = 1 ; just a hash hints, you can always store count(items) > slots xcache.slots = 8K ; ttl of the cache item, 0=forever xcache.ttl = 0 ; interval of gc scanning expired items, 0=no scan, other values is in seconds xcache.gc_interval = 0 ; same as aboves but for variable cache xcache.var_size = 4M xcache.var_count = 1 xcache.var_slots = 8K ; default ttl xcache.var_ttl = 0 xcache.var_maxttl = 0 xcache.var_gc_interval = 300 xcache.test = Off ; N/A for /dev/zero xcache.readonly_protection = Off ; for *nix, xcache.mmap_path is a file path, not directory. ; Use something like "/tmp/xcache" if you want to turn on ReadonlyProtection ; 2 group of php won't share the same /tmp/xcache ; for win32, xcache.mmap_path=anonymous map name, not file path xcache.mmap_path = "/dev/zero" ; leave it blank(disabled) or "/tmp/phpcore/" ; make sure it's writable by php (without checking open_basedir) xcache.coredump_directory = "" ; per request settings xcache.cacher = On xcache.stat = On xcache.optimizer = Off [xcache.coverager] ; per request settings ; enable coverage data collecting for xcache.coveragedump_directory and xcache_coverager_start/stop/get/clean() functions (will hurt executing performance) xcache.coverager = Off ; ini only settings ; make sure it's readable (care open_basedir) by coverage viewer script ; requires xcache.coverager=On xcache.coveragedump_directory = "" Thanks you

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  • WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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  • Referencing both an old version and new version of the same DLL (VB.Net)

    - by ckittel
    Consider the following situation: WidgetCompany produced a .NET DLL in 2006 called Widget.dll, version 1.0. I consumed this Widget.dll file throughout my VB.Net application. Over time, WidgetCompany has been updating Widget.dll, I never bothered to keep up, continuing to ship version 1.0 of Widget.dll with my software. It's now 2010, my project is now a VB.Net 3.5 application and WidgetCompany has come out with Widget.dll version 3.0. It looks and functions almost identical to Widget.dll version 1.0, using all the same namespaces and type names from before. However, Widget.dll version 3.0 has many run-time breaking changes since 1.0 and I cannot simply cut over to the new version; however, I don't want to continue developing against the 1.0 version and therefore keep digging myself deeper in the hole. What I want to do is do all new development in my project with Widget.dll version 3.0, whilst keeping Widget.dll version 1.0 around until I find time to convert all of my 1.0 consumption to the newer 3.0 code. Now, for starters, I obviously cannot simply reference both Widget.dll (Ver 1.0) and Widget.dll (Ver 3.0) in Visual Studio. Doing so gives me the following message: "A reference to 'Widget.dll' could not be added. A reference to the component 'Widget' already exists in the project." To work around that, I can simply rename version 3.0 Widget.dll to Widget.3.dll. But this is where I'm stuck. Any attempts to reference types found in "the dll" leads to ambiguity and the compiler obviously doesn't have any clue as to what I really want in this or that case. Is there something I can do that gives a DLL a new "root" Namespace or something? For example, if I could say "Widget.dll has a new root namespace of Legacy" then I could update existing code to reference the types found in Legacy.<RootNamespace> namespace while all new code could simply reference types from the <RootNamespace> namespace. Pipe dream or reality? Are there other solutions to situations this (besides "don't get in this situation in the first place")?

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  • _heapwalk reports _HEAPBADNODE, causes breakpoint or loops endlessly

    - by Stefan Hubert
    I use _heapwalk to gather statistics about the Process' standard heap. Under certain circumstances i observe unexpected behaviours like: _HEAPBADNODE is returned some breakpoint is triggered inside _heapwalk, telling me the heap might got corrupted access violation inside _heapWalk. I saw different behaviours on different Computers. On one Windows XP 32 bit machine everything looked fine, whereas on two Windows XP 64 bit machines i saw the mentioned symptoms. I saw this behaviour only if LowFragmentationHeap was enabled. I played around a bit. I walked the heap several times right one after another inside my program. First time doing nothing in between the subsequent calls to _heapWalk (everything fine). Then again, this time doing some stuff (for gathering statistics) in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk. Depending upon what I did there, I sometimes got the described symptoms. Here finally a question: What exactly is safe and what is not safe to do in between two subsequent calls to _heapWalk during a complete heap walk run? Naturally, i shall not manipulate the heap. Therefore i doublechecked that i don't call new and delete. However, my observation is that function calls with some parameter passing causes my heap walk run to fail already. I subsequently added function calls and increasing number of parameters passed to these. My feeling was two function calls with two paramters being passed did not work anymore. However I would like to know why. Any ideas why this does not happen on some machines? Any ideas why this only happens if LowFragmentationHeap is enabled? Sample Code finally: #include <malloc.h> void staticMethodB( int a, int b ) { } void staticMethodA( int a, int b, int c) { staticMethodB( 3, 6); return; } ... _HEAPINFO hinfo; hinfo._pentry = NULL; while( ( heapstatus = _heapwalk( &hinfo ) ) == _HEAPOK ) { //doing nothing here works fine //however if i call functions here with parameters, this causes //_HEAPBADNODE or something else staticMethodA( 3,4,5); } switch( heapstatus ) { ... case _HEAPBADNODE: assert( false ); /*ERROR - bad node in heap */ break; ...

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  • How would you organize this Javascript?

    - by Anurag
    How do you usually organize complex web applications that are extremely rich on the client side. I have created a contrived example to indicate the kind of mess it's easy to get into if things are not managed well for big apps. Feel free to modify/extend this example as you wish - http://jsfiddle.net/NHyLC/1/ The example basically mirrors part of the comment posting on SO, and follows the following rules: Must have 15 characters minimum, after multiple spaces are trimmed out to one. If Add Comment is clicked, but the size is less than 15 after removing multiple spaces, then show a popup with the error. Indicate amount of characters remaining and summarize with color coding. Gray indicates a small comment, brown indicates a medium comment, orange a large comment, and red a comment overflow. One comment can only be submitted every 15 seconds. If comment is submitted too soon, show a popup with appropriate error message. A couple of issues I noticed with this example. This should ideally be a widget or some sort of packaged functionality. Things like a comment per 15 seconds, and minimum 15 character comment belong to some application wide policies rather than being embedded inside each widget. Too many hard-coded values. No code organization. Model, Views, Controllers are all bundled together. Not that MVC is the only approach for organizing rich client side web applications, but there is none in this example. How would you go about cleaning this up? Applying a little MVC/MVP along the way? Here's some of the relevant functions, but it will make more sense if you saw the entire code on jsfiddle: /** * Handle comment change. * Update character count. * Indicate progress */ function handleCommentUpdate(comment) { var status = $('.comment-status'); status.text(getStatusText(comment)); status.removeClass('mild spicy hot sizzling'); status.addClass(getStatusClass(comment)); } /** * Is the comment valid for submission */ function commentSubmittable(comment) { var notTooSoon = !isTooSoon(); var notEmpty = !isEmpty(comment); var hasEnoughCharacters = !isTooShort(comment); return notTooSoon && notEmpty && hasEnoughCharacters; } // submit comment $('.add-comment').click(function() { var comment = $('.comment-box').val(); // submit comment, fake ajax call if(commentSubmittable(comment)) { .. } // show a popup if comment is mostly spaces if(isTooShort(comment)) { if(comment.length < 15) { // blink status message } else { popup("Comment must be at least 15 characters in length."); } } // show a popup is comment submitted too soon else if(isTooSoon()) { popup("Only 1 comment allowed per 15 seconds."); } });

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  • architecture python question

    - by tom smith
    hi. creating a distributed crawling python app. it consists of a master server, and associated client apps that will run on client servers. the purpose of the client app is to run across a targeted site, to extract specific data. the clients need to go "deep" within the site, behind multiple levels of forms, so each client is specifically geared towards a given site. each client app looks something like main: parse initial url call function level1 (data1) function level1 (data) parse the url, for data1 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level2 (data) function level2 (data2) parse the url, for data2 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level3 function level3 (dat3) parse the url, for data3 use the required xpath to get the dom elements call the next function call level4 function level4 (data) parse the url, for data4 use the required xpath to get the dom elements at the final function.. --all the data output, and eventually returned to the server --at this point the data has elements from each function... my question: given that the number of calls that is made to the child function by the current function varies, i'm trying to figure out the best approach. each function essentialy fetches a page of content, and then parses the page using a number of different XPath expressions, combined with different regex expressions depending on the site/page. if i run a client on a single box, as a sequential process, it'll take awhile, but the load on the box is rather small. i've thought of attempting to implement the child functions as threads from the current function, but that could be a nightmare, as well as quickly bring the "box" to its knees! i've thought of breaking the app up in a manner that would allow the master to essentially pass packets to the client boxes, in a way to allow each client/function to be run directly from the master. this process requires a bit of rewrite, but it has a number of advantages. a bunch of redundancy, and speed. it would detect if a section of the process was crashing and restart from that point. but not sure if it would be any faster... i'm writing the parsing scripts in python.. so... any thoughts/comments would be appreciated... i can get into a great deal more detail, but didn't want to bore anyone!! thanks! tom

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  • Supplying a callback to Jeditable

    - by pjmorse
    Summary: When I try supplying a onsubmit or onreset callback to Jeditable, I get Object [function] has no method 'apply' errors. How I got here: I've been working on a rails plugin to supply Jeditable and jWYSIWYG for in-place WYSIWYG editing. Development is driven by a Rails project I'm working on which asks for specific functions. One of the options I added was the ability to trigger Jeditable's edit mode using a button instead of clicking on the editable text itself, following the pattern suggested in this answer. The next step, though, is to hide the button while in edit mode, and reveal it again when leaving edit mode. The hide is easy enough; I just added a line to the triggering function which sends .toggle() to the button. Reveal is trickier. I figure I need to .toggle() again on submit or cancel, and helpfully, Jeditable offers onsubmit and onreset callbacks. However, when I try using those callbacks, I get this Object [something] has no method 'apply' errors. What I'm trying: Because this is in the context of a Rails helper, the actual mechanics are a little more involved than this, but the upshot is that I'm trying to follow this pattern, handing Jeditable this in the args: "onsubmit":"showTrigger", and then including this script: function showTrigger(settings, original) { $(".edit_trigger[id='element_id']").toggle(); } However, on submitting changes or canceling an edit, I get the error Object showTrigger has no method 'apply' ...as described above. I also tried sending in a function directly as the "onsubmit" argument (i.e. "onsubmit": "function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();}" and then I just get Object function(settings, original){$(\".edit_trigger[id='element_id']\").toggle();} has no method 'apply' instead. There must be something wrong with how I'm handing in this callback. Any ideas? ETA: This answer suggests to me that somehow I'm providing a string to Jeditable when it expects a function instead. However, because I'm working within the context of a Rails helper, I'm not at all sure how to fix that - the "showTrigger" bit is set as a Ruby variable in the helper, and although window.showTrigger() is defined when the window is loaded, I don't know how to designate that function within a Ruby variable such that it will be recognized as a function at page load time.

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  • Form submits correctly in Chrome/FF, but fails altogether in IE/Safari

    - by culov
    I have a form with a css submit button. When a the submit button is clicked, i call a function that executes: document.forms["request"].onsubmit(); What should happen, then, is that the onsubmit method ought to be triggered. This works properly in Chrome/FF, but for some reason IE/Safari will bypass the onsubmit function and simply add the parameter "address=" onto the url as if it were submitting the form and ignoring the onsubmit function. Heres the code for the form: <form id="request" method="get" onsubmit="addLocation(this.address.value); return false;"> <br> <label style="position:relative;left:5px;" for="address">Enter an intersection or address: </label> <br> <br> <input style="height:35px; width:300px;position:relative;bottom:1px;left:10px;" id="address" name="address" class="required address"/> <a style="float:right;right:120px;position:relative;" class="button" onclick="submit();"> <span>Submit Request </span> </a> </form> and what follows are some relevant js functions: function addLocation(address) { if (geocoder) { geocoder.getLocations(address, function (point) { if (!point) { alert(address + " not found"); } else { if (point.Placemark[0].address != submittedString) { submittedString = point.Placemark[0].address; addRow(point.Placemark[0].address); req = "addrequest?truck=" + "coolhaus&address=" + point.Placemark[0].address; alert(req); addRequest(req); request.onreadystatechange = function () {} } } }); } } function addRequest(req) { try { request = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch (e) { try { request = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { alert("XMLHttpRequest error: " + e); } } request.open("GET", req, true); request.send(null); return request; } You can test the form here: http://la.truxmap.com/request?id=grillmastersla Thanks so much!

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  • Auto showing tips and closing popup when lost focus

    - by darkwindkey
    I have two elements: a TextBox, and a Popup, where the popup contains a tree view to show some tips according to text of TextBox. When the textBox got the KeyDown Event, the KeyDown directly executes pup.IsOpen=true to show the popup tips. However, I also want to show the popup tips when the mouse on clicking the TextBox, and auto closing the popups when the mouse click on any place (besides the TextBox and the TreeView in Popup). I have tried some cases but do not works fine. Case1: Add pup.IsOpen=true; in TextBox.PreviewMouseUp, the popup will stay opening, even if I click any other place in the window. Case2: Add pup.IsOpen=true in TextBox.PreviewMouseDown, the popup tips only shows on keep clicking the Mouse. Case3: Using CheckBox with Binding IsChecked to Popup.IsOpen works fine. but the tips is listed according to the content of the TextBox, therefore the checkbox is not editable for user... Here is my code now: <Window x:Class="popUpTesting.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Grid> <TextBox Name="SearchBox" HorizontalAlignment="Center" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="TextBox" VerticalAlignment="Center" KeyDown="SearchBox_KeyDown" PreviewMouseUp="SearchBox_PreviewMouseUp" /> <Popup Placement="Bottom" AllowsTransparency="True" PopupAnimation="Fade" StaysOpen="false" x:Name="pup" PlacementTarget="{Binding ElementName=SearchBox}" IsOpen="False" > <Grid> <TreeView HorizontalAlignment="Left" Height="200" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="200"> <TreeViewItem Header="A"> <TreeViewItem Header="A1"/> </TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="B"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="C"></TreeViewItem> <TreeViewItem Header="D"></TreeViewItem> </TreeView> </Grid> </Popup> </Grid> </Window> and the event functions: private void SearchBox_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { pup.IsOpen = true; } private void SearchBox_PreviewMouseUp(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { pup.IsOpen = true; }

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  • Remote Desktop Services Gateway Issue

    - by AVandelay05
    Alright fellow techies here's the rundown. I have installed Server 2008 r2 Remote Dekstop Services on a VM in my network. I installed the following RD role services: RD Session Host, Licensing, Connection Broker, Gateway, Web Access. When I set things up originally, the gateway server and RDWeb worked as it should locally. After getting things running locally (remoteserver.domainname.local) I wanted to test things externally. From the outside, I couldn't get things running (meaning I could connect to rdweb access externally, but when I tried to run an app I would get the message "can't connect/find computer"). Here's my setup for external access The VM has every RD Services role services installed on it, meaning it acts as gateway, rd web access, session host, licensing, the whole bit. I made a self-signed certificate on the gateway server (gateway.domainname.net is the cert name). Internally, I have a secondary forward-lookup zone called domainname.net with an A record gateway pointing to the local IP of the gateway server. On our public DNS (domainname.net) I have an A record gateway. This is to access the RDWeb externally. In IIS I have the following authentication settings RDWeb: All disabled except for anonymous authentication Rpc: All disabled except for basic and windows RpcWithCert: All disbled except for windows authentication I have the necessary web access config in our sonicwall tz210 (https and rdp, external ip pointing to local ip of rds server) RAP and CAP have the correct user and computer groups, authentication, and allowed devices After all of this, here's what happens accessing externally. I can login correctly to RDWeb Access (I've tried a bogus login, I can't login to it so that's working properly). I see the Apps for use. I click on an app, click connect, the credential window opens, I put in the correct user creds, it tries to connect to the gateway server, but then the cred window comes back in view. I tried to reach a limit of failed logins, but never reached one, haha. So from the same external client machine I try to connect to the gateway through a Remote Desktop connection. I put in the correct gateway settings in the RD window, try to connect and get the same results as I did in RDWeb access. I checked the event logs on the RD Services machine and saw the following event IDs around the time I tried to login externally: ID 6037 with the message "The program svchost.exe, with the assigned process ID 2168, could not authenticate locally by using the target name host/gateway.domainname.net. The target name used is not valid. A target name should refer to one of the local computer names, for example, the DNS host name. Try a different target name." ID 10 RADWebAccess "RD Web Access was unable to access gateway.domainname.net, which is the server that is specified as running the RemoteApp and Desktop Connection Management service. Ensure that the computer account of the RD Web Access server is a member of the TS Web Access Computers security group on gateway.domainname.net" ID 4625 "An account failed to log on. Subject: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: - Account Domain: - Logon ID: 0x0 Logon Type: 3 Account For Which Logon Failed: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: Administrator Account Domain: gateway.domainname.net Failure Information: Failure Reason: Unknown user name or bad password. Status: 0xc000006d Sub Status: 0xc000006a Process Information: Caller Process ID: 0x0 Caller Process Name: - Network Information: Workstation Name: USER-LAPTOP Source Network Address: External IP Source Port: 63125 Detailed Authentication Information: Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Transited Services: - Package Name (NTLM only): - Key Length: 0 This event is generated when a logon request fails. It is generated on the computer where access was attempted. The Subject fields indicate the account on the local system which requested the logon. This is most commonly a service such as the Server service, or a local process such as Winlogon.exe or Services.exe. The Logon Type field indicates the kind of logon that was requested. The most common types are 2 (interactive) and 3 (network). The Process Information fields indicate which account and process on the system requested the logon. The Network Information fields indicate where a remote logon request originated. Workstation name is not always available and may be left blank in some cases. The authentication information fields provide detailed information about this specific logon request. - Transited services indicate which intermediate services have participated in this logon request. - Package name indicates which sub-protocol was used among the NTLM protocols." I don't think the VM has a null SID. The SID of the VM and it's physical host have different SIDS. I can access the blank page for rpc externally using the external gateway name. It seems like authentication is a problem. Also, is it a problem that the external name of the gateway server doesn't match the local name? The external name (which the cert is based on) is gateway.domainname.net and the internal name is remoteserver.domainname.local. That's the only thing I can think of that would be the problem, but the external name has to be different from the local right? Internally, I ping gateway.domainname.net and it gives me the correct local IP of the server. Now, there isn't an actual computer name in AD, but I don't know how I would achieve that? I hope I've been clear....any help would be appreciated. I think I'm close to achieving this. :)

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  • How does MySQL's ORDER BY RAND() work?

    - by Eugene
    Hi, I've been doing some research and testing on how to do fast random selection in MySQL. In the process I've faced some unexpected results and now I am not fully sure I know how ORDER BY RAND() really works. I always thought that when you do ORDER BY RAND() on the table, MySQL adds a new column to the table which is filled with random values, then it sorts data by that column and then e.g. you take the above value which got there randomly. I've done lots of googling and testing and finally found that the query Jay offers in his blog is indeed the fastest solution: SELECT * FROM Table T JOIN (SELECT CEIL(MAX(ID)*RAND()) AS ID FROM Table) AS x ON T.ID >= x.ID LIMIT 1; While common ORDER BY RAND() takes 30-40 seconds on my test table, his query does the work in 0.1 seconds. He explains how this functions in the blog so I'll just skip this and finally move to the odd thing. My table is a common table with a PRIMARY KEY id and other non-indexed stuff like username, age, etc. Here's the thing I am struggling to explain SELECT * FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*30-40 seconds*/ SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*0.25 seconds*/ SELECT id, username FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*90 seconds*/ I was sort of expecting to see approximately the same time for all three queries since I am always sorting on a single column. But for some reason this didn't happen. Please let me know if you any ideas about this. I have a project where I need to do fast ORDER BY RAND() and personally I would prefer to use SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; SELECT * FROM table WHERE id=ID_FROM_PREVIOUS_QUERY LIMIT 1; which, yes, is slower than Jay's method, however it is smaller and easier to understand. My queries are rather big ones with several JOINs and with WHERE clause and while Jay's method still works, the query grows really big and complex because I need to use all the JOINs and WHERE in the JOINed (called x in his query) sub request. Thanks for your time!

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  • Receiving POST data in ASP.NET

    - by grast
    Hi, I want to use ASP for code generation in a C# desktop application. To achieve this, I set up a simple host (derived from System.MarshalByRefObject) that processes a System.Web.Hosting.SimpleWorkerRequest via HttpRuntime.ProcessRequest. This processes the ASPX script specified by the incoming request (using System.Net.HttpListener to wait for requests). The client-part is represented by a System.ComponentModel.BackgroundWorker that builds the System.Net.HttpWebRequest and receives the response from the server. A simplified version of my client-part-code looks like this: private void SendRequest(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // create request with GET parameter var uri = "http://localhost:9876/test.aspx?getTest=321"; var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(uri); // append POST parameter request.Method = "POST"; request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; var postData = Encoding.Default.GetBytes("postTest=654"); var postDataStream = request.GetRequestStream(); postDataStream.Write(postData, 0, postData.Length); // send request, wait for response and store/print content using (var response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse()) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8)) { _processsedContent = reader.ReadToEnd(); Debug.Print(_processsedContent); } } } My server-part-code looks like this (without exception-handling etc.): public void ProcessRequests() { // HttpListener at http://localhost:9876/ var listener = SetupListener(); // SimpleHost created by ApplicationHost.CreateApplicationHost var host = SetupHost(); while (_running) { var context = listener.GetContext(); using (var writer = new StreamWriter(context.Response.OutputStream)) { // process ASP script and send response back to client host.ProcessRequest(GetPage(context), GetQuery(context), writer); } context.Response.Close(); } } So far all this works fine as long as I just use GET parameters. But when it comes to receiving POST data in my ASPX script I run into trouble. For testing I use the following script: // GET parameters are working: var getTest = Request.QueryString["getTest"]; Response.Write("getTest: " + getTest); // prints "getTest: 321" // don't know how to access POST parameters: var postTest1 = Request.Form["postTest"]; // Request.Form is empty?! Response.Write("postTest1: " + postTest1); // so this prints "postTest1: " var postTest2 = Request.Params["postTest"]; // Request.Params is empty?! Response.Write("postTest2: " + postTest2); // so this prints "postTest2: " It seems that the System.Web.HttpRequest object I'm dealing with in ASP does not contain any information about my POST parameter "postTest". I inspected it in debug mode and none of the members did contain neither the parameter-name "postTest" nor the parameter-value "654". I also tried the BinaryRead method of Request, but unfortunately it is empty. This corresponds to Request.InputStream==null and Request.ContentLength==0. And to make things really confusing the Request.HttpMethod member is set to "GET"?! To isolate the problem I tested the code by using a PHP script instead of the ASPX script. This is very simple: print_r($_GET); // prints all GET variables print_r($_POST); // prints all POST variables And the result is: Array ( [getTest] = 321 ) Array ( [postTest] = 654 ) So with the PHP script it works, I can access the POST data. Why does the ASPX script don't? What am I doing wrong? Is there a special accessor or method in the Response object? Can anyone give a hint or even know how to solve this? Thanks in advance.

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