Search Results

Search found 13501 results on 541 pages for 'dimensional model'.

Page 480/541 | < Previous Page | 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487  | Next Page >

  • getting data from dynamic schema

    - by coure2011
    I am using mongoose/nodejs to get data as json from mongodb. For using mongoose I need to define schema first like this var mongoose = require('mongoose'); var Schema = mongoose.Schema; var GPSDataSchema = new Schema({ createdAt: { type: Date, default: Date.now } ,speed: {type: String, trim: true} ,battery: { type: String, trim: true } }); var GPSData = mongoose.model('GPSData', GPSDataSchema); mongoose.connect('mongodb://localhost/gpsdatabase'); var db = mongoose.connection; db.on('open', function() { console.log('DB Started'); }); then in code I can get data from db like GPSData.find({"createdAt" : { $gte : dateStr, $lte: nextDate }}, function(err, data) { res.writeHead(200, { "Content-Type": "application/json", "Access-Control-Allow-Origin": "*" }); var body = JSON.stringify(data); res.end(body); }); How to define scheme for a complex data like this, you can see that subSection can go to any deeper level. [ { 'title': 'Some Title', 'subSection': [{ 'title': 'Inner1', 'subSection': [ {'titile': 'test', 'url': 'ab/cd'} ] }] }, .. ]

    Read the article

  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

    Read the article

  • How can I go through a Set in JSP? (Hibernate Associations)

    - by Parris
    Hi All, So I am pretty new to JSP. I have tried this a few ways. Ways that would make sense in PHP or automagicy frameworks... I am probably thinking too much in fact... I have a hibernate one to many association. That is class x has many of class y. In class x's view.jsp. I would like to grab all of class y, where the foreign key of y matches the primary key of x and display them. It seems that hibernate properly puts this stuff into a set. Now, the question is how can I iterate through this set and then output it's contents... I am kind of stumped here. I tried to write a scriptlet, <% java.util.Iterator iter = aBean.getYs().iter(); // aBeans is the bean name // getYs would return the set and iter would return an iterator for the set while(iter.hasNext) { model.X a = new iter.next() %> <h1><%=a.getTitle()%></h1> <% } %> It would seem that that sort of thing should work? Hmmmmmm

    Read the article

  • Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

    - by Elisa
    When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

    Read the article

  • How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

    - by quakkels
    Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

    Read the article

  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

    Read the article

  • Alternative for table mark-up in ASP.NET not working properly

    - by yetanothercoder
    Using Visual WebDeveloper 2010 Express and ASP.NET 4.0 Don't know whether its relevant but the whole thing is in a ContentPlaceHolder and inside an UpdatePanel. To avoid using the old table tr td model, I have created a simple form like this <div class="admin-form"> <asp:Label ID="UserNameLabel" runat="server" CssClass="form-label" Text="User Name" /> <asp:TextBox ID="UserNameText" runat="server" Width="200px"/> <br /> <asp:Label ID="PasswordLabel" runat="server" CssClass="form-label" Text="Password" /> <asp:TextBox ID="PasswordText" runat="server" TextMode="Password" Width="200px"/> <br /> <asp:Label ID="ConfirmPasswordLabel" runat="server" CssClass="form-label" Text="Confirm Password" /> <asp:TextBox ID="ConfirmPasswordText" runat="server" TextMode="Password" Width="200px"/> <br /> <asp:Label ID="EmailLabel" runat="server" CssClass="form-label" Text="Email" /> <asp:TextBox ID="EmailText" runat="server" Width="200px"/> <br /> <br /> <br /> <span class="form-label"></span> <asp:Button ID="CreateUserButton" runat="server" CssClass="button blue" Text="Create New User"/> </div> And the CSS .form-label { width: 300px !important; } This renders incorrectly as I would like to have all textboxes vertically lined after taking 300px. What is wrong? P.S: I cannot use HTML Controls like label as I have resx for globalization

    Read the article

  • Select ID in table ...

    - by Kris-I
    Hello, I have this code <% foreach (var item in Model.List) { %> <tr> <td><%: item.LastName %></td> <td><%: item.FirstName %></td> <td><%: item.IsEnable %></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerEdit">Edit</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDetail">Detail</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDelete">Delete</a></td> </tr> <% } %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".CustomerEdit").click(function () { alert("blabla"); //need id here }); }); </script> It's not in the code but I have an "Item.Id", it's not place anywhere because I don't know where place it ;-). I'd like when I click on the "Edit" hyperlink get the id (item.Id) of the current line. Any idea ? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Capture and handling the tab/Textchanged event in a textbox in asp.net MVC

    - by Icerman
    I have the following code th handle a user name validation on the server side. But the event seems not firing since break points in js or C# code didn't hit. Can anyone point out where I did wrong? Here is the user control which has a user name textbox: <%: Html.TextBox("UserName", Model.Username, new { maxlength = "40", size = "20", tabindex = "1", @onchange = "CheckAvailability()" })% CheckAvailability() is defined in the User.Validation.js and included in the above user control: $(document).ready(function () { function CheckAvailability() { $.post("/Home/Survey/CheckAvailability", { Username: $("#UserName").val() }, function (data) { var myObject = eval('(' + data + ')'); var newid = myObject; if (newid == 0) { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='green'>Available :-D</font>") } else { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='red'>Taken :-(</font>") } }); } }); Here is the survey controller function which will have server side validation: [HttpPost] public ActionResult CheckAvailability(string Username) { int Taken = 0; // This is where you add your database lookup if (Username == "abc") { Taken = 1; } return Json(Taken); }

    Read the article

  • Abstract factory pattern on top of IoC?

    - by Sergei
    I have decided to use IoC principles on a bigger project. However, i would like to get something straight that's been bothering me for a long time. The conclusion that i have come up with is that an IoC container is an architectural pattern, not a design pattern. In other words, no class should be aware of its presence and the container itself should be used at the application layer to stitch up all components. Essentially, it becomes an option, on top of a well designed object-oriented model. Having said that, how is it possible to access resolved types without sprinkling IoC containers all over the place (regardless of whether they are abstracted or not)? The only option i see here is to utilize abstract factories which use an IoC container to resolve concrete types. This should be easy enough to swap out for a set of standard factories. Is this a good approach? Has anyone on here used it and how well did it work for you? Is there anything else available? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • 2-Way databinding with Entity Framework and WPF DataGrid , is Possible ?

    - by Panindra
    i am working on POS application using SQL CE , WPF , Entity framework 3.5sp2 and iam trying to use data grid as my Order Entry Control for User to enter Products Order . Iam plannning to bind this to enitiy frmae work model , abd looking for 2 way updating ? private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { using (MasterEntities nwEntities = new MasterEntities()) { var users = from d in nwEntities.Companies select new { d.CompanyId, d.CompanyName, d.Place }; listBox1.DataContext = users; dataGrid1.DataContext = users; // foreach (String c in customers) // { // MessageBox.Show(c.ToString()); // } } } When try to double clikc on the datagrid it through s a error with Caption " Invalid Operation Execption was unhandled " and Message " A TwoWay or OneWayToSource binding cannot work on the read-only property 'CompanyId' of type '<f__AnonymousType0`3[System.Int32,System.String,System.String]'. whats wrong here and my xaml coding goes like this <Grid> <ListBox Name="listBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> <Button Content="Show " Name="button1" Click="button1_Click" /> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header=" ID" Binding="{Binding CompanyId}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Company Name" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Place" Binding="{Binding Place}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> EDITED : i made the changes shown by @vorrtex, But, then i added another button to save the chages and in button click event i added follwing code , butit showing Updating error private void button2_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { nwEntities.SaveChanges(); }

    Read the article

  • What could cause a PHP error on an include statement?

    - by J Jones
    I've got a bug in my PHP code that's been terrorizing me for several days now. I'm trying to clasp in a new module to an existing Magento (v1.4) site, though I'm very new to the Magento framework. I think I am pretty close to getting to "Hello, World" on a block that I want displayed in the backend, but I'm getting a 500 error when the menu item is selected. I managed to track it down (using echo stmts) to a line in the Layout.php file (app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Layout.php, line 472ish): if (class_exists($block, false) || mageFindClassFile($block)) { $temp = $block; echo "<p>before constructor: $temp</p>"; $block = new $block($attributes); echo "<p>after constructor: $temp</p>"; } For my block, this yields only "before constructor...", so I know this is what is failing. A little more debugging reveals that the class in $block (the new block I am trying to show) does not exist. I would have expected the __autoload function to take care of this, but none of my echos in __autoload are displaying. As a last ditch effort, I tried an include statement in Mage.php to the absolute location of the block class, but similar before and after echos reveal that that include statement becomes the breaking line. I'm tempted to start thinking "permissions", but I'm not well versed in the server management side of all this, and I have limited access to the test server (the test server belongs to the client). To anticipate the question: there are no errors reported in the PHP log file. I am actually not convinced that this site is reporting errors to the log file (I haven't seen anything from this site), though the client is certain that everything is turned on. IIS 7. Integrated mode, I'm pretty sure. Anyone know what could be causing this?

    Read the article

  • Enum exeeding the 65535 bytes limit of static initializer... what's best to do?

    - by Daniel Bleisteiner
    I've started a rather large Enum of so called Descriptors that I've wanted to use as a reference list in my model. But now I've come across a compiler/VM limit the first time and so I'm looking for the best solution to handle this. Here is my error : The code for the static initializer is exceeding the 65535 bytes limit It is clear where this comes from - my Enum simply has far to much elements. But I need those elements - there is no way to reduce that set. Initialy I've planed to use a single Enum because I want to make sure that all elements within the Enum are unique. It is used in a Hibernate persistence context where the reference to the Enum is stored as String value in the database. So this must be unique! The content of my Enum can be devided into several groups of elements belonging together. But splitting the Enum would remove the unique safety I get during compile time. Or can this be achieved with multiple Enums in some way? My only current idea is to define some Interface called Descriptor and code several Enums implementing it. This way I hope to be able to use the Hibernate Enum mapping as if it were a single Enum. But I'm not even sure if this will work. And I loose unique safety. Any ideas how to handle that case?

    Read the article

  • How to properly implement the Strategy pattern in a web MVC framework?

    - by jboxer
    In my Django app, I have a model (lets call it Foo) with a field called "type". I'd like to use Foo.type to indicate what type the specific instance of Foo is (possible choices are "Number", "Date", "Single Line of Text", "Multiple Lines of Text", and a few others). There are two things I'd like the "type" field to end up affecting; the way a value is converted from its normal type to text (for example, in "Date", it may be str(the_date.isoformat())), and the way a value is converted from text to the specified type (in "Date", it may be datetime.date.fromtimestamp(the_text)). To me, this seems like the Strategy pattern (I may be completely wrong, and feel free to correct me if I am). My question is, what's the proper way to code this in a web MVC framework? In a client-side app, I'd create a Type class with abstract methods "serialize()" and "unserialize()", override those methods in subclasses of Type (such as NumberType and DateType), and dynamically set the "type" field of a newly-instantiated Foo to the appropriate Type subclass at runtime. In a web framework, it's not quite as straightforward for me. Right now, the way that makes the most sense is to define Foo.type as a Small Integer field and define a limited set of choices (0 = "Number", 1 = "Date", 2 = "Single Line of Text", etc.) in the code. Then, when a Foo object is instantiated, use a Factory method to look at the value of the instance's "type" field and plug in the correct Type subclass (as described in the paragraph above). Foo would also have serialize() and unserialize() methods, which would delegate directly to the plugged-in Type subclass. How does this design sound? I've never run into this issue before, so I'd really like to know if other people have, and how they've solved it.

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter achor producing dodgy link in email inbox.. what could the problem be?

    - by Psychonetics
    My application is emailing out fine but the email I receive displays incorrectly. Rather than have text and a simple "click here to activate" link it doesn't. it shows this instead: Hi user1, please click the following link to activate your account <a href="http://mysite.com/activation/fzyZuyxVAzZS2koVg5UFjfVjlcLNcrzp">ssss</a> Here is the code from my model that sends email to user when they request activation email. $this->load->library('email'); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'my site'); $this->email->to($result[0]->email); $this->email->subject('my site - Activate your account'); $this->email->message('Hi ' . $result[0]->first_name . ', please click the following link to activate your account ' . anchor('http://mysite.com/activation/' . $new_activation_code, 'click here to activate')); $this->email->send(); Also the mail always ends up in my spam folder.

    Read the article

  • How to get the related_name of a many-to-many-field?

    - by amann
    I am trying to get the related_name of a many-to-many-field. The m2m-field is located betweeen the models "Group" and "Lection" and is declared in the group-model as following: lections = models.ManyToManyField(Lection, blank=True) The field looks like this: <django.db.models.fields.related.ManyToManyField object at 0x012AD690> The print of field.__dict__ is: {'_choices': [], '_m2m_column_cache': 'group_id', '_m2m_name_cache': 'group', '_m2m_reverse_column_cache': 'lection_id', '_m2m_reverse_name_cache': 'lection', '_unique': False, 'attname': 'lections', 'auto_created': False, 'blank': True, 'column': 'lections', 'creation_counter': 71, 'db_column': None, 'db_index': False, 'db_table': None, 'db_tablespace': '', 'default': <class django.db.models.fields.NOT_PROVIDED at 0x00FC8780>, 'editable': True, 'error_messages': {'blank': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC 7B50>, 'invalid_choice': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC7A50>, 'null': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x00FC7 A70>}, 'help_text': <django.utils.functional.__proxy__ object at 0x012AD6F0>, 'm2m_column_name': <function _curried at 0x012A88F0>, 'm2m_db_table': <function _curried at 0x012A8AF0>, 'm2m_field_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8970>, 'm2m_reverse_field_name': <function _curried at 0x012A89B0>, 'm2m_reverse_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8930>, 'max_length': None, 'name': 'lections', 'null': False, 'primary_key': False, 'rel': <django.db.models.fields.related.ManyToManyRel object at 0x012AD6B0>, 'related': <RelatedObject: mymodel:group related to lections>, 'related_query_name': <function _curried at 0x012A8670>, 'serialize': True, 'unique_for_date': None, 'unique_for_month': None, 'unique_for_year': None, 'validators': [], 'verbose_name': 'lections'} Now the field should be accessed via a lection-instance. So this is done by lection.group_set But i need to access it dynamically, so there is the need to get the related_name attribute from somewhere. Here in the documentation, there is a note that it is possible to access ManyToManyField.related_name, but this doesn't work for my somehow.. Help would be a lot appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

    Read the article

  • Out of memory while iterating through rowset

    - by Phliplip
    Hi All, I have a "small" table of 60400 rows with zipcode data. I wan't to iterate through them all, update a column value, and then save it. The following is part of my Zipcodes model which extends My_Db_Table that a totalRows function that - you guessed it.. returns the total number of rows in the table (60400 rows) public function normalizeTable() { $this->getAdapter()->setProfiler(false); $totalRows = $this->totalRows(); $rowsPerQuery = 5; for($i = 0; $i < $totalRows; $i = $i + $rowsPerQuery) { $select = $this->select()->limit($i, $rowsPerQuery); $rowset = $this->fetchAll($select); foreach ($rowset as $row) { $row->{self::$normalCityColumn} = $row->normalize($row->{self::$cityColumn}); $row->save(); } unset($rowset); } } My rowClass contains a normalize function (basicly a metaphone wrapper doing some extra magic). At first i tried a plain old $this-fetchAll(), but got a out of memory (128MB) right away. Then i tried splitting the rowset into chunks, only difference is that some rows actually gets updated. Any ideas on how i can acomplish this, or should i fallback to ye'olde mysql_query()

    Read the article

  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I unit test my custom validation attribute

    - by MightyAtom
    I have a custom asp.net mvc class validation attribute. My question is how can I unit test it? It would be one thing to test that the class has the attribute but this would not actually test that the logic inside it. This is what I want to test. [Serializable] [EligabilityStudentDebtsAttribute(ErrorMessage = "You must answer yes or no to all questions")] public class Eligability { [BooleanRequiredToBeTrue(ErrorMessage = "You must agree to the statements listed")] public bool StatementAgree { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please choose an option")] public bool? Income { get; set; } .....removed for brevity } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class)] public class EligabilityStudentDebtsAttribute : ValidationAttribute { // If AnyDebts is true then // StudentDebts must be true or false public override bool IsValid(object value) { Eligability elig = (Eligability)value; bool ok = true; if (elig.AnyDebts == true) { if (elig.StudentDebts == null) { ok = false; } } return ok; } } I have tried to write a test as follows but this does not work: [TestMethod] public void Eligability_model_StudentDebts_is_required_if_AnyDebts_is_true() { // Arrange var eligability = new Eligability(); var controller = new ApplicationController(); // Act controller.ModelState.Clear(); controller.ValidateModel(eligability); var actionResult = controller.Section2(eligability,null,string.Empty); // Assert Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actionResult, typeof(ViewResult)); Assert.AreEqual(string.Empty, ((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewName); Assert.AreEqual(eligability, ((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewData.Model); Assert.IsFalse(((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewData.ModelState.IsValid); } The ModelStateDictionary does not contain the key for this custom attribute. It only contains the attributes for the standard validation attributes. Why is this? What is the best way to test these custom attributes? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Launch a new page in Zend/php on button click

    - by BlueMonster
    PHP & Zend Noob here I've downloaded the skeleton project from here: https://github.com/zendframework/ZendSkeletonApplication Say i want to open a new page that simply displays "hello world" text if click on the "ZF2 Development Portal" button(bottom left green button) on the page that launches --- how do i do this? See image: I've read through this tutorial, but i'm not sure how the model, view, or controller are actually launched? See tutorial: http://blog.wilgucki.pl/2012/07/tworzenie-modulw-w-zend-framework-2.html From looking at the code, i know that i will have to change this line of code: <div class="span4"> <h2><?php echo $this->translate('Follow Development') ?></h2> <p><?php echo sprintf($this->translate('Zend Framework 2 is under active development. If you are interested in following the development of ZF2, there is a special ZF2 portal on the official Zend Framework website which provides links to the ZF2 %swiki%s, %sdev blog%s, %sissue tracker%s, and much more. This is a great resource for staying up to date with the latest developments!'), '<a href="http://framework.zend.com/wiki/display/ZFDEV2/Home">', '</a>', '<a href="http://framework.zend.com/zf2/blog">', '</a>', '<a href="http://framework.zend.com/issues/browse/ZF2">', '</a>') ?></p> <p><a class="btn btn-success" href="http://framework.zend.com/zf2" target="_blank"><?php echo $this->translate('ZF2 Development Portal') ?> &raquo;</a></p> </div> More specifically this line: <p><a class="btn btn-success" href="http://framework.zend.com/zf2" target="_blank"><?php echo $this->translate('ZF2 Development Portal') ?> &raquo;</a></p> but i'm really confused as to what i'm supposed to change it to in order to launch a new page. Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • What makes an effective UI for displaying versioning of structured hierarchical data

    - by Fadrian Sudaman
    Traditional version control system are displaying versioning information by grouping Projects-Folders-Files with Tree view on the left and details view on the right, then you will click on each item to look at revision history for that configuration history. Assuming that I have all the historical versioning information available for a project from Object-oriented model perspective (e.g. classes - methods - parameters and etc), what do you think will be the most effective way to present such information in UI so that you can easily navigate and access the snapshot view of the project and also the historical versioning information? Put yourself in the position that you are using a tool like this everyday in your job like you are currently using SVN, SS, Perforce or any VCS system, what will contribute to the usability, productivity and effectiveness of the tool. I personally find the classical way for display folders and files like above are very restrictive and less effective for displaying deep nested logical models. Assuming that this is a greenfield project and not restricted by specific technology, how do you think I should best approach this? I am looking for idea and input here to add values to my research project. Feel free to make any suggestions that you think is valuable. Thanks again for anyone that shares their thoughts.

    Read the article

  • App crashes every second time a tableview row is selected in navigation controller setup

    - by Thaurin
    Disclaimer first: I'm pretty new to Objective-C and the retain model. I've been developing in a garbage collected .NET environment for the last five years, so I've been spoiled. I'm still learning. I'm having my iPhone app crash with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. It happens in a navigtation controller/tableview setup. When I select a row the first time, no problems. It switches in the child controller without problems. I go back and select the same row again. Program then proceeds to crash. Every other row works fine, but every second time a row is accessed, it's a crash. I've pinpointed the location where this happens. The child controller (which is a class that I reuse for every row of the same type) that's being switched into has an array of NSString's representing the rows that will be displayed. I set it before pushing the child viewcontroller. It's there where this apparently happens. I'm having a hard time debugging this problem, still wrestling with xcode and all. I fear there may be some vital information missing here, but maybe there is something you recognize here.

    Read the article

  • Fatal error with Custom Magento Module on one server but not the other

    - by Jack
    Hi, I am creating my own custom module in Magento and during testing on a Litespeed server (PHP v5.2.14) I am getting a Fatal Error: Call to a member function batch() on a non-object in ../../../BatchController.php on line 25 that was not appearing during testing on another linux server and a wamp server (PHP v5.2.11). This one has stumped me. I am guessing it has something to do with the server configuration rather than the code itself. But i am just guessing. I was hoping someone here could tell me. The only real major difference I could see, aside from the php versions and environment, is that the server that the error is on is using the Suhosin Patch. But would that be something that could cause this? The line in question is Mage::getModel('mymodule/mymodel')->batch(); which is enclosed in an IF statement. batch() is a public function located in my model file. If you need more code let me know. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487  | Next Page >