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• Is there a point to have multiple VS projects for an ASP.NET MVC application?

  - by mare

  I'm developing MVC application where I currently have 3 projects in solution. Core (it is supposed to be for Repositories, Business Classes, Models, HttpModules, HttpFilters, Settings, etc.) Data access (Data provider, for instance SqlDataProvider for working with SQL Server datastore - implements Repository interfaces, XmlDataProvider - also implements Repository interfaces but for local XML files as datastore) ASP.NET MVC project (all the typical stuff, UI, controllers, content, scripts, resources and helpers). I have no Models in my ASP.NET MVC project. I've just run into a problem because of that coz I want to use the new DataAnnotation feature in MVC 2 on my Bussiness class, which are, as said in Core, however I have I want to be able to localize the error messages. This where my problem starts. I cannot use my Resources from MVC project in Core. The MVC project references Core and it cannot be vice-versa. My options as I see them are: 1) Move Resources out but this would require correcting a whole bunch of Views and Controllers where I reference them, 2) Make a complete restructure of my app What are your thoughts on this? Also, Should I just move everything business related into Models folder in MVC project?? Does it even make any sense to have it structured like that, because we can just make subfolders for everything under MVC project? The whole Core library is not intended to ever be used for anything else, so there actually no point of compiling it to a separate DLL. Suggestions appreciated.

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• Supersized, show a div depending on the slide

  - by Dlacrem

  EDIT: So, I want to take a different approach to try and clarify what I'm looking for, I've been reading as much as I could these last hours and I feel I have a better grasp of how the system works, but I still don't know how to accomplish my goal. Reference links: -SUPERSIZED API So, I have the following script: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document.body).ready(function () { if (vars.current_slide == 5){**-I want it to display a div if the slider is the number 5-** } }); </script> My questions are these: 1) What do I add in the - - area to display a div that only shows up when the slider is at the 5th slide? 2) Am I doing the rest right or am I missing something? I created that code so it could be terribly wrong lol, hopefuly I got something right :P That's all, hope this clarifies it. Thank you all for the help! I'm really excited to start creating my own scripts :D Alright, so I've uploaded the site with the code you posted and it still doesn't seem to work, I also tried reducing the code to the conditional and the result only but that didn't work either, mind checking it out? Click Here Thanks for giving it a thought!

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• Localization of DisplayNameAttribute

  - by PowerKiKi

  Hi, I am looking for a way to localize properties names displayed in a PropertyGrid. The property's name may be "overriden" using the DisplayNameAttribute attribute. Unfortunately attributes can not have non constant expressions. So I can not use strongly typed resources such as: class Foo { [DisplayAttribute(Resources.MyPropertyNameLocalized)] // do not compile string MyProperty {get; set;} } I had a look around and found some suggestion to inherit from DisplayNameAttribute to be able to use resource. I would end up up with code like: class Foo { [MyLocalizedDisplayAttribute("MyPropertyNameLocalized")] // not strongly typed string MyProperty {get; set;} } However I lose strongly typed resource benefits which is definitely not a good thing. Then I came across DisplayNameResourceAttribute which may be what I'm looking for. But it's supposed to be in Microsoft.VisualStudio.Modeling.Design namespace and I can't find what reference I am supposed to add for this namespace. Anybody know if there's a easier way to achieve DisplayName localization in a good way ? or if there is as way to use what Microsoft seems to be using for Visual Studio ?

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• Store data in tableview to NSUserDefaults

  - by Jozef Vrana

  Tricks.h file #import "Tricks.h" @implementation Tricks static NSMutableArray *trickList = nil; +(NSMutableArray *)trickList { if(!trickList){ trickList = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } return trickList; } @end Tricks.m file @interface Tricks : NSObject @property(strong, nonatomic) NSString *trickName; Method for adding objects to array -(IBAction)saveAction:(id)sender { Tricks *trick = [[Tricks alloc]init]; trick.trickName = self.trickLabel.text; [[Tricks trickList]insertObject:trick atIndex:0]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } In .h file of UITabelview class I am making a reference to tricks class, but I am sure there is error on this line. @property (strong, nonatomic) Tricks *tricks; In cellForRow method I am storing data _trick = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:trick,nil]; NSUserDefaults *defaults=[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setObject:_trick forKey:@"numberArray"]; [defaults synchronize]; NSLog(@"%@",_trick); In .m class of UITableview in viewDidLoad I want to retrieve data if([[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"numberArray"] != nil) { _tricks = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"numberArray"]; } Thanks for advices

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• Dynamically adding custom view to RemoteViews

  - by Naidu

  Could any help me to do this?My code is like: public CustomClass extends View { //uses ondraw() to do something } For displaying my custom view on HomeScreen i created a class to extend Broadcast Receiver public class customAppWidgetProvider extends BroadcastReceiver { public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); if (AppWidgetManager.ACTION_APPWIDGET_UPDATE.equals(action)) { RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.main); //Here i want to create my custom view class object and i want to add this view to linear layout in main.xml CustomClass object = new CustomClass(context) ; LinearLayout layout = new LinearLayout(context) ; layout.setLayoutParameters(new LayoutParameters(LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT,LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); layout.addView(object); views.addview(R.id.linearlayout, (ViewGroup) layout) ; views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.analog_appwidget, PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, new Intent(context, AlarmClock.class), PendingIntent.FLAG_CANCEL_CURRENT)); int[] appWidgetIds = intent.getIntArrayExtra( AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_IDS); AppWidgetManager gm = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(context); gm.updateAppWidget(appWidgetIds, views); } } } But adding viewgroup to RemoteView reference is not working... above main.xml contains only LinearLayout.I want to add custom view object to it.But after running this not showing anything on screen.. please help me to do this.Thanks in Advance.

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• C# XML Documentation Compiler Warning

  - by ImperialLion

  I am curious as to why I get a compiler warning in the following situation. /// <summary>This is class A /// </summary> public class A { /// <summary>This is the documentation for Method A /// </summary> public void MethodA() { //Do something } } /// <summary>This is class B /// </summary> public class B : A { /// <summary>This does something that I want to /// reference <see cref="MethodA"/> /// </summary> public void MethodB() { //Do something } } The warning states that "XML comment on 'B.MethodB()' has cref attribute 'MethodA' that could not be resolved." If B inherits from A shouldn't the compiler be able to see that method when generating the documentation without me specifying the parent class in the cref? If I change the cref to be cref="A.MethodA()" it works fine, but it seems like that's unnecessary and is a pain to do, especially if I have to go up more than one level. As a note to anyone testing this you have to be sure to "XML documentation file" checked in the Properties - Build in order to see the warning.

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• Java How to find a value in a linked list iteratively and recursively

  - by Roxy

  Hi I have a method that has a reference to a linked list and a int value. So, this method would count and return how often the value happens in the linked list. So, I decided to make a class, public class ListNode{ public ListNode (int v, ListNode n) {value = v; next = n;) public int value; public ListNode next; } Then, the method would start with a public static int findValue(ListNode x, int valueToCount){ // so would I do it like this?? I don't know how to find the value, // like do I check it? for (int i =0; i< x.length ;i++){ valueToCount += valueToCount; } So, I CHANGED this part, If I did this recursively, then I would have public static int findValue(ListNode x, int valueToCount) { if (x.next != null && x.value == valueToCount { return 1 + findValue(x, valueToCount);} else return new findvalue(x, valueToCount); SO, is the recursive part correct now?

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• Boost shared_ptr use_count function

  - by photo_tom

  My application problem is the following - I have a large structure foo. Because these are large and for memory management reasons, we do not wish to delete them when processing on the data is complete. We are storing them in std::vector<boost::shared_ptr<foo>>. My question is related to knowing when all processing is complete. First decision is that we do not want any of the other application code to mark a complete flag in the structure because there are multiple execution paths in the program and we cannot predict which one is the last. So in our implementation, once processing is complete, we delete all copies of boost::shared_ptr<foo>> except for the one in the vector. This will drop the reference counter in the shared_ptr to 1. Is it practical to use shared_ptr.use_count() to see if it is equal to 1 to know when all other parts of my app are done with the data. One additional reason I'm asking the question is that the boost documentation on the shared pointer shared_ptr recommends not using "use_count" for production code.

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• jQuery .ready() automatically assigning variables for each element with ID in DOM

  - by Greg

  I have noticed some unexpected behaviour when using the jQuery .ready() function, whereby afterwards you can reference an element in the DOM simply by using its ID without prior declaration or assignment: <html> <script src="jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function() { myowndiv.innerHTML = 'wow!' }); </script> <body> <div id="myowndiv"></div> </body> </html> I would have expected to have to declare and assign myowndiv with document.getElementById("myowndiv"); or $("#myowndiv"); before I could call innerHTML or anything else on it? Is this behaviour by design? Can anyone explain why? My fear is that if I refactor and end up not using .ready() or even using jQuery at all then my code will fail to execute. Cheers!

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• Using unions to simplify casts

  - by Steven Lu

  I realize that what I am trying to do isn't safe. But I am just doing some testing and image processing so my focus here is on speed. Right now this code gives me the corresponding bytes for a 32-bit pixel value type. struct Pixel { unsigned char b,g,r,a; }; I wanted to check if I have a pixel that is under a certain value (e.g. r, g, b <= 0x10). I figured I wanted to just conditional-test the bit-and of the bits of the pixel with 0x00E0E0E0 (I could have wrong endianness here) to get the dark pixels. Rather than using this ugly mess (*((uint32_t*)&pixel)) to get the 32-bit unsigned int value, i figured there should be a way for me to set it up so I can just use pixel.i, while keeping the ability to reference the green byte using pixel.g. Can I do this? This won't work: struct Pixel { unsigned char b,g,r,a; }; union Pixel_u { Pixel p; uint32_t bits; }; I would need to edit my existing code to say pixel.p.g to get the green color byte. Same happens if I do this: union Pixel { unsigned char c[4]; uint32_t bits; }; This would work too but I still need to change everything to index into c, which is a bit ugly but I can make it work with a macro if i really needed to.

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• Exposing a C++ API to C#

  - by Siyfion

  So what I have is a C++ API contained within a *.dll and I want to use a C# application to call methods within the API. So far I have created a C++ / CLR project that includes the native C++ API and managed to create a "bridge" class that looks a bit like the following: ManagedBridge.h namespace ManagedAPIWrapper { public ref class Bridge { public: int bridge_test(void); int bridge_test2(api_struct* temp); } } ManagedBridge.cpp int Bridge::bridge_test(void) { return test(); } int Bridge::bridge_test2(api_struct* temp) { return test2(temp); } I also have a C# application that has a reference to the C++/CLR "Bridge.dll" and then uses the methods contained within. I have a number of problems with this: I can't figure out how to call bridge_test2 within the C# program, as it has no knowledge of what a api_struct actually is. I know that I need to marshal the object somewhere, but do I do it in the C# program or the C++/CLR bridge? This seems like a very long-winded way of exposing all of the methods in the API, is there not an easier way that I'm missing out? (That doesn't use P/Invoke!)

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• I need to move a dived CSS module into the center of the page...

  - by JackMcE

  I'm building a website for someone and they wanted the text and bulk of the information to be centered on the page. Problem is I can get everything contained in a tag and then assign the class, but I can't get the whole thing to center. It always hangs to the left even if I apply centering to the div class. I guess you could say that it is stuck on the left side of the page when I want everything to be centered. I would just make everything format larger but they want some space left in the background for the color and maybe some imagery later on. They haven't made up their minds. If you want to take a look here is the link where I'm building or testing stuff. I know the header and such needs to be re proportioned to fit with everything, but just as a frame of reference. Don't worry about the header, just know that I want the white text information area with the purple border to stay the same size, but just move to the center and if some one could tell me how to do that I would appreciate it greatly.

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• Should we use p(..) or (*p)(..) when p is a function pointer?

  - by q0987

  Reference: [33.11] Can I convert a pointer-to-function to a void*? #include "stdafx.h" #include <iostream> int f(char x, int y) { return x; } int g(char x, int y) { return y; } typedef int(*FunctPtr)(char,int); int callit(FunctPtr p, char x, int y) // original { return p(x, y); } int callitB(FunctPtr p, char x, int y) // updated { return (*p)(x, y); } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { FunctPtr p = g; // original std::cout << p('c', 'a') << std::endl; FunctPtr pB = &g; // updated std::cout << (*pB)('c', 'a') << std::endl; return 0; } Question Which way, the original or updated, is the recommended method? Thank you Although I do see the following usage in the original post: void baz() { FredMemFn p = &Fred::f; ? declare a member-function pointer ... }

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• UPDATE Table SET Field

  - by davlyo

  This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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• Creating a assertClass() method in JUnit

  - by Mike

  Hi, I'm creating a test platform for a protocol project based on Apache MINA. In MINA when you receive packets the messageReceived() method gets an Object. Ideally I'd like to use a JUnit method assertClass(), however it doesn't exist. I'm playing around trying to work out what is the closest I can get. I'm trying to find something similar to instanceof. Currently I have: public void assertClass(String msg, Class expected, Object given) { if(!expected.isInstance(given)) Assert.fail(msg); } To call this: assertClass("Packet type is correct", SomePacket.class, receivedPacket); This works without issue, however in experimenting and playing with this my interest was peaked by the instanceof operator. if (receivedPacket instanceof SomePacket) { .. } How is instanceof able to use SomePacket to reference the object at hand? It's not an instance of an object, its not a class, what is it?! Once establishing what type SomePacket is at that point is it possible to extend my assertClass() to not have to include the SomePacket.class argument, instead favouring SomePacket?

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• In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute cleaner temporary value or create a

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

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• Must JsUnit Cases Reside Under the Same Directory as JsUnit?

  - by chernevik

  I have installed JsUnit and a test case as follows: /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/testRunner.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/myTests/lineTestAbs.html /home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/lineTestAbs.html When I open the test runner in a browser as a file, and test lineTestAbs.html from the jsunit/myTests directory, it passes. When I test the same file from the JavaScript directory, the test runner times out, asking if the file exists or is a test page. Questions: Am I doing something wrong here, or is this the expected behavior? Is it possible to put test cases in a different directory structure, and if so what is the proper path reference to to JsUnitCore.js? Would JsUnit behave differently if the files were retrieved from an HTTP server? <html> <head> <title>Test Page line(m, x, b)</title> <script language="JavaScript" src="/home/chernevik/Programming/JavaScript/jsunit/app/jsUnitCore.js"></script> <script language="JavaScript"> function line(m, x, b) { return m*x + b; } function testCalculationIsValid() { assertEquals("zero intercept", 10, line(5, 2, 0)); assertEquals("zero slope", 5, line(0, 2, 5)); assertEquals("at x = 10", 25, line(2, 10, 5)); } </script> </head> <body> This pages tests line(m, x, b). </body> </html>

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• Generic Singleton Fasade design pattern

  - by Paul

  Hi I try write singleton fasede pattern with generics. I have one problem, how can I call method from generic variable. Something like this: T1 t1 = new T1(); //call method from t1 t1.Method(); In method SingletonFasadeMethod I have compile error: Error 1 'T1' does not contain a definition for 'Method' and no extension method 'Method' accepting a first argument of type 'T1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Any advace? Thank, I am beginner in C#. All code is here: namespace GenericSingletonFasade { public interface IMyInterface { string Method(); } internal class ClassA : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodA "; } } internal class ClassB : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodB "; } } internal class ClassC : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodC"; } } internal class ClassD : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodD"; } } public class SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> where T1 : class,new() where T2 : class,new() where T3 : class,new() { private static T1 t1; private static T2 t2; private static T3 t3; private SingletonFasade() { t1 = new T1(); t2 = new T2(); t3 = new T3(); } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> uniqueInstace = new SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3>(); } public static SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> UniqueInstace { get { return SingletonCreator.uniqueInstace; } } public string SingletonFasadeMethod() { //Problem is here return t1.Method() + t2.Method() + t3.Method(); } } }

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• help with basic MVC project

  - by Shrewd Demon

  hi, i am creating a demo MVC project and i am getting a Null Object Reference error for the following code. <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.ActionLink("Edit", "Edit", new { /* id=item.PrimaryKey */ }) %> | <%= Html.ActionLink("Details", "Details", new { /* id=item.PrimaryKey */ })%> | <%= Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { /* id=item.PrimaryKey */ })%> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.ContactEmail) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.YourQuery) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> i get an error in the first line itself (var item in Model) coz i am getting the Model object as null. Can anyone please help me. thanks.

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• Event-based interaction between two custom classes

  - by Antenka

  Hello everybody. I have such problem: I have 2 custom components, which have their own nesting hierarchy ... One is container for another. I have to "familiarize them" with each other. The way I'm trying to achieve that is using global events (one side is firing and the other one is catching): Application.application.addEventListener("Hello", function (data:Event):void{ // .. some actions }); //and Application.application.dispatchEvent(new Event(Hello)); Everything is pretty good, but there's one thingy .. when I'm trying to catch the event, I can't access the class, who is catching it. E.g.: Container fires the event. Child caughts it. Then should be created the connection between container and it's child. BUT, the only thing I could acheive is passing a reference to the Container in the DynamicEvent. Is there any chance that I could access the child at the event-handler function. Or maybe there's more elegant way to solve this problem ... Any help would be greately appreciated :)

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• Win32_Product InstallLocation (error)

  - by andrew

  in C#, i'm trying to get some properties from the instances of Win32_Product, but i seem to have an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." here's the code: class Package { public string productName; public string installDate; public string installLocation; } class InstalledPackages { public static List<Package> get() { List<Package> packages = new List<Package>(); string query = "SELECT * FROM Win32_Product"; ManagementScope oMs = new ManagementScope(); ObjectQuery oQuery = new ObjectQuery(query); ManagementObjectSearcher oSearcher = new ManagementObjectSearcher(oMs, oQuery); ManagementObjectCollection installedPackages = oSearcher.Get(); foreach (ManagementObject package in installedPackages) { Package p = new Package(); p.productName = package["Name"].ToString(); p.installLocation = package["InstallLocation"].ToString(); p.installDate = package["InstallDate"].ToString(); packages.Add(p); } return packages; } } the exception appears when it gets to p.installLocation = package["InstallLocation"].ToString(); also, i get one if i try to do p.installLocation = package["InstallDate2"].ToString(); if i'm asking for InstallDate it works. (i'm using Windows 7 Ultimate x64)

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• please suggest mysql query for this

  - by I Like PHP

  I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, or if we use subquery value to main query? but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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• Parsing an XML string containing "&#x20;" (which must be preserved)

  - by Zoodor

  I have code that is passed a string containing XML. This XML may contain one or more instances of &#x20; (an entity reference for the blank space character). I have a requirement that these references should not be resolved (i.e. they should not be replaced with an actual space character). Is there any way for me to achieve this? Basically, given a string containing the XML: <pattern value="[A-Z0-9&#x20;]" /> I do not want it to be converted to: <pattern value="[A-Z0-9 ]" /> (What I am actually trying to achieve is to simply take an XML string and write it to a "pretty-printed" file. This is having the side-effect of resolving occurrences of &#x20; in the string to a single space character, which need to be preserved. The reason for this requirement is that the written XML document must conform to an externally-defined specification.) I have tried creating a sub-class of XmlTextReader to read from the XML string and overriding the ResolveEntity() method, but this isn't called. I have also tried assigning a custom XmlResolver.

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• Sharing class member data between sub components

  - by Tim Gradwell

  I have an aggregate 'main' class which contains some data which I wish to share. The main class also has other class members. I want to share the data with these other class members. What is the correct / neatest way to do this? The specific example I have is as follows. The main class is a .net Form. I have some controls (actually controls within controls) on the main form which need access to the shared data. Main Form - DataX - DataY - Control1 -- Subcontrol1 - Control2 -- SubControl2 SubControls 1 and 2 both wish to access DataX and DataY. The trouble is, I feel like better practice (to reduce coupling), would be that either subcontrols should not know about Main Form, or Main Form should not know about subcontrols - probably the former. For subcontrols not to know about Main Form, would probably mean Main Form passing references to both Controls 1 and 2, which in turn would pass the references on to SubControls 1 and 2. Lots of lines of code which just forward the references. If I later added DataZ and DataW, and Controls 3 and 4 and SubControls 3 and 4, I'd have to add lots more reference forwarding code. It seems simpler to me to give SubControls 1 and 2 member references to Main Form. That way, any sub control could just ask for MainForm.DataX or MainForm.DataY and if I ever added new data, I could just access it directly from the sub controls with no hassle. But it still involves setting the 'MainForm' member references every time I add a new Control or Subcontrol. And it gives me a gut feeling of 'wrong'. As you might be able to tell I'm not happy with either of my solutions. Is there a better way? Thanks

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• Java - How to pass a Generic parameter as Class<T> to a constructor

  - by Joe Almore

  I have a problem here that still cannot solve, the thing is I have this abstract class: public abstract class AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> entityClass; public AbstractBean(Class<T> entityClass) { this.entityClass = entityClass; }... Now I have another class that inherits this abstract: @Stateless @LocalBean public class BasicUserBean<T extends BasicUser> extends AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> user; public BasicUserBean() { super(user); // Error: cannot reference user before supertype contructor has been called. } My question is how can I make this to work?, I am trying to make the class BasicUserBean inheritable, so if I have class PersonBean which inherits BasicUserBean then I could set in the Generic the entity Person which also inherits the entity BasicUser. And it will end up being: @Stateless @LocalBean public class PersonBean extends BasicUserBean<Person> { public PersonBean() { super(Person.class); } ... I just want to inherit the basic functionality from BasicUserBean to all descendants, so I do not have to repeat the same code among all descendants. Thanks!.

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