Search Results

Search found 15423 results on 617 pages for 'uses clause'.

Page 482/617 | < Previous Page | 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489  | Next Page >

  • Ant: How to force java compilation if classpath jars have changed but sources have not

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have the following usecase: I have a java project (myProj) which uses a common.jar from a different project(common). I want the javac ant task to work even if the sources of myProj have not changed if the common.jar has changed (as the sources of myProj depend of it and might be invalid now). I have a task which copies the common.jar from a central location to the myProj lib if it has changed and I can use it to set a property whether or not to "force" compilation so that end is taken care of. I'm not sure how (or if) I can tell the javac task to try and compile anyway? I don't want to change myProj's sources (or timestamps) so that the task will start. Excerpt from the ant build.xml file: <path id="project.class.path"> <pathelement location... /> ... <fileset dir="lib" includes="**/*.jar" /> </path> <target name="copyLibs" > <copy file="${central.loc}/common.jar" todir="lib" /> ... </target> <target name="javac" > <javac srcdir="src" includes="**" excludes=... > <classpath refid="project.class.path"/> </javac> </target> Thanks in advance, Ittai

    Read the article

  • How to perform Linq select new with datetime in SQL 2008

    - by kd7iwp
    In our C# code I recently changed a line from inside a linq-to-sql select new query as follows: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Year.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Month.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Day.ToString() : "") To: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") The change makes the line smaller and cleaner. It also works fine with our SQL 2008 database in our development environment. However, when the code deployed to our production environment which uses SQL 2005 I received an exception stating: Nullable Type must have a value. For further analysis I copied (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") into a string (outside of a Linq statement) and had no problems at all, so it only causes an in issue inside my Linq. Is this problem just something to do with SQL 2005 using different date formats than from SQL 2008? Here's more of the Linq: dt = FilteredOrders.Where(x => x != null).Select(p => new { Order = p.OrderId, link = "/order/" + p.OrderId.ToString(), StudentId = (p.PersonId.HasValue ? p.PersonId.Value : 0), FirstName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.FirstName, LastName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.LastName, DeliverBy = p.DeliverBy, OrderDate = p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : ""}).ToDataTable(); This is selecting from a List of Order objects. The FilteredOrders list is from another linq-to-sql query and I call .AsEnumerable on it before giving it to this particular select new query. Doing this in regular code works fine: if (o.OrderDate.HasValue) tempString += " " + o.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd");

    Read the article

  • Link doesnt work in FF

    - by venom
    Here is the link: <a href="javascript://" onClick="print_gonder();"><img src="/images/print.gif" title="Gönder" border="0"></a> and its function print_gonder: function print_gonder() { var satirsayisi=document.list_basketww.row_count.value; var amnt=new Array(satirsayisi); var prc=new Array(satirsayisi); var kdv=new Array(satirsayisi); var kon=new Array(satirsayisi); var yap=new Array(satirsayisi); var ona=new Array(satirsayisi); var ode=new Array(satirsayisi); var tes=new Array(satirsayisi); for (i=0; i<satirsayisi; i++) { amnt[i]=eval("document.getElementById('amount" + (i+1) + "')").value; prc[i]=filterNum(eval("document.getElementById('price" + (i+1) + "')").value); kdv[i]=eval("document.getElementById('tax_dif" + (i+1) + "')").value; kon=eval("document.getElementById('konu')").value; yap=eval("document.getElementById('yapan')").value; ona=eval("document.getElementById('onay')").value; ode=eval("document.getElementById('odeme')").value; tes=eval("document.getElementById('teslim')").value; } windowopen('<cfoutput>#request.self#?fuseaction=objects2.popup_sale_propose&print=true#page_code#&amnt='+amnt+'&prc='+prc+'&kdv='+kdv+'&konu='+kon+'&yapan='+yap+'&onay='+ona+'&odeme='+ode+'&teslim='+tes+'</cfoutput>','page'); } The problem is that this link doesnt work in FF but work in IE, but if i change the function into something like this: <a href="javascript://" onClick="<cfoutput>windowopen('#request.self#?fuseaction=objects2.popup_sale_propose&print=true#page_code#','page')</cfoutput"><img src="/images/print.gif" title="Gönder" border="0"></a> it perfectly works in all the browsers.. i think that the problem is in defining the values of the functions, the FF just doesnt understand them... btw, the system is Workcube and it uses the Cold Fusion.

    Read the article

  • How do I programmatically insert rows into a Silverlight DataGrid without binding?

    - by j0rd4n
    I am using a common Silverlight DataGrid to display results from a search. The "schema" of the search can vary from query to query. To accommodate this, I am trying to dynamically populate the DataGrid. I can set explicitly set the columns, but I am having trouble setting the ItemSource. All of the MSDN examples set the ItemSource to a collection with a strong type (e.g. a Custom type with public properties matching the schema). The DataGrid then uses reflection to scour the strong type for public properties that will match the columns. Since my search results are dynamic, I cannot create a strong type to represent what comes back. Can I not just give the DataGrid an arbitrary list of objects so long as the number of objects in each list matches the number of columns? Anyone know if this is possible? I would like to do something similar to this: List<List<object>> myResults = <voodoo that populates the result list> myDataGrid.ItemsSource = myResults;

    Read the article

  • FLV performance and garbage collection

    - by justinbach
    I'm building a large flash site (AS3) that uses huge FLVs as transition videos from section to section. The FLVs are 1280x800 and are being scaled to 1680x1050 (much of which is not displayed to users with smaller screens), and are around 5-8 seconds apiece. I'm encoding the videos using On2's hi-def codec, VP6-S, and playback is pretty good with native FLV players, Perian-equipped Quicktime, and simple proof-of-concept FLV playback apps built in AS3. The problem I'm having is that in the context of the actual site, playback isn't as smooth; the framerate isn't quite as good as it should be, and more problematically, there's occasional jerkiness and dropped frames (sometimes pausing the video for as long as a quarter of a second or so). My guess is that this is being caused by garbage collection in the Flash player, which happens nondeterministically and is therefore hard to test and control for. I'm using a single instance of FLVPlayback to play the videos; I originally was using NetStream objects and so forth directly but switched to FLVPlayback for this reason. Has anyone experienced this sort of jerkiness with FLVPlayback (or more generally, with hi-def Flash video)? Am I right about GC being the culprit here, and if so, is there any way to prevent it during playback of these system-intensive transitions?

    Read the article

  • Auto-resolving a hostname in WCF Metadata Publishing

    - by Mike C
    I am running a self-hosted WCF service. In the service configuration, I am using localhost in my BaseAddresses that I hook my endpoints to. When trying to connect to an endpoint using the WCF test client, I have no problem connecting to the endpoint and getting the metadata using the machine's name. The problem that I run into is that the client that is generated from metadata uses localhost in the endpoint URLs it wants to connect to. I'm assuming that this is because localhost is the endpoint URL published by metadata. As a result, any calls to the methods on the service will fail since localhost on the calling machine isn't running the service. What I would like to figure out is if it is possible for the service metadata to publish the proper URL to a client depending on the client who is calling it. For example, if I was requesting the service metadata from a machine on the same network as the server the endpoint should be net.tcp://MYSERVER:1234/MyEndpoint. If I was requesting it from a machine outside the network, the URL should be net.tcp://MYSERVER.mydomain.com:1234/MyEndpoint. And obviously if the client was on the same machine, THEN the URL could be net.tcp://localhost:1234/MyEndpoint. Is this just a flaw in the default IMetadataExchange contract? Is there some reason the metadata needs to publish the information in a non-contextual way? Is there another way I should be configuring my BaseAddresses in order to get the functionality I want? Thanks, Mike

    Read the article

  • Porting WebGL game to iPhone's native OpenGL?

    - by ArtPulse
    We are developing a web game that uses WebGL for the two biggest parts of it. Working with HTML / CSS was too slow and too limited, so it's off the table. Thing is, iOS does not support WebGL publicly just yet, only on iAd. It is my guess Apple will eventually support it once the security issues they and Microsoft claim it has are fixed, and looks stable enough. Problem is, if Apple does not do this by the release of the next mayor iOS version, then we will have in our hands a mobile WebGL game that does not run. 6 months of development and testing to waste. So, questions: If that was the case, how viable (regarding amount of time) is it porting the WebGL part of the game to native iPhone OpenGL? I'm afraid that porting will take longer than the development of the game itself. I saw posts on Stack Overflow (like this) that suggested, on Android, adding the OpenGL interface manually to a WebKit element. It'd be slower than native. But either way... Is this something that could be accepted in the AppStore? Apple is very restrictive with these kind of stuff... Thank you all for your time!

    Read the article

  • Proper use of HttpRequestInterceptor and CredentialsProvider in doing preemptive authentication with

    - by Preston
    I'm writing an application in Android that consumes some REST services I've created. These web services aren't issuing a standard Apache Basic challenge / response. Instead in the server-side code I'm wanting to interrogate the username and password from the HTTP(S) request and compare it against a database user to make sure they can run that service. I'm using HttpClient to do this and I have the credentials stored on the client after the initial login (at least that's how I see this working). So here is where I'm stuck. Preemptive authenticate under HttpClient requires you to setup an interceptor as a static member. This is the example Apache Components uses. HttpRequestInterceptor preemptiveAuth = new HttpRequestInterceptor() { @Override public void process( final HttpRequest request, final HttpContext context) throws HttpException, IOException { AuthState authState = (AuthState) context.getAttribute(ClientContext.TARGET_AUTH_STATE); CredentialsProvider credsProvider = (CredentialsProvider) context.getAttribute( ClientContext.CREDS_PROVIDER); HttpHost targetHost = (HttpHost) context.getAttribute(ExecutionContext.HTTP_TARGET_HOST); if (authState.getAuthScheme() == null) { AuthScope authScope = new AuthScope(targetHost.getHostName(), targetHost.getPort()); Credentials creds = credsProvider.getCredentials(authScope); if (creds != null) { authState.setAuthScheme(new BasicScheme()); authState.setCredentials(creds); } } } }; So the question would be this. What would the proper use of this be? Would I spin this up as part of the application when the application starts? Pulling the username and password out of memory and then using them to create this CredentialsProvider which is then utilized by the HttpRequestInterceptor? Or is there a way to do this more dynamically?

    Read the article

  • How to minify JS in PHP easily...Or something else

    - by RickyAYoder
    I've done some looking around, but I'm still confused a bit. I tried Crockford's JSMin, but Win XP can't unzip the executable file for some reason. What I really want though is a simple and easy-to-use JS minifier that uses PHP to minify JS code--and return the result. The reason why is because: I have 2 files (for example) that I'm working between: scripts.js and scripts_template.js scripts_template is normal code that I write out--then I have to minify it and paste the minified script into scripts.js--the one that I actually USE on my website. I want to eradicate the middle man by simply doing something like this on my page: <script type="text/javascript" src="scripts.php"></script> And then for the contents of scripts.php: <?php include("include.inc"); header("Content-type:text/javascript"); echo(minify_js(file_get_contents("scripts_template.js"))); This way, whenever I update my JS, I don't have to constantly go to a website to minify it and re-paste it into scripts.js--everything is automatically updated. Yes, I have also tried Crockford's PHP Minifier and I've taken a look at PHP Speedy, but I don't understand PHP classes just yet...Is there anything out there that a monkey could understand, maybe something with RegExp? How about we make this even simpler? I just want to remove tab spaces--I still want my code to be readable. It's not like the script makes my site lag epically, it's just anything is better than nothing. Tab removal, anyone? And if possible, how about removing completely BLANK lines?

    Read the article

  • Libtool versioning of a library that depends on other libraries.

    - by Artyom
    Hello, I have a framework that uses Boost and CgiCC in the core application and in its interface. How should I version the library binary interface (a.k.a. libtool -version-info)? I have no problems tracking the changes in library itself when I make various changes. As it is clear for me how should I version. But... Both Boost and CgiCC libraries do not provide any backward compatible API/ABI and my library may be linked with quite arbitrary versions Boost and CgiCC so I can't provide any promise about the interfaces, so I can't really specify -version-info because even the same library compiled against different versions of Boost and CgiCC would not be compatible. So... What should I do? How should I version library? I know that I should not depend on Boost and CgiCC interfaces in first place, but this is what I get so far for existing stable version. This issue is addressed in next major release but I still have and want to maintain current release as it is very valuable.

    Read the article

  • Email not sent until application closes

    - by Tester101
    I have an application that uses SmtpClient to send E-Mail, but the E-Mails are not sent until the application closes. I have searched and searched to find a solution to the problem, but I am not able to find one. The system does have Symantec anti-virus installed, which could possibly be the problem. Does anybody have a solution to this problem? Here is the code I am using. public class EMail { private string server; public string Server {get{return this.server;}set{this.server = value;}} private string to; public string To {get{return this.to;}set{this.to = value;}} private string from; public string From {get{return this.from;}set{this.from = value;}} private string subject; public string Subject {get{return this.subject;}set{this.subject = value;}} private string body; public string Body {get{return this.body;}set{this.body = value;}} public EMail() {} public EMail(string _server, string _to, string _from, string _subject, string _body) { this.Server = _server; this.To = _to; this.From = _from; this.Subject = _subject; this.Body = _body; } public void Send() { System.Net.Mail.MailMessage message = new System.Net.Mail.MailMessage(this.From, this.To, this.Subject, this.Body); message.IsBodyHtml = true; System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient client = new System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient(this.Server); client.DeliveryMethod = System.Net.Mail.SmtpDeliveryMethod.Network; //I have tried this, but it still does not work. //client.ServicePoint.ConnectionLeaseTimeout = 0; try { client.Send(message); } catch(System.Exception ex) { System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()); } message.Dispose(); } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET application - Error when trying to connect to a SQL Server 2008 instance

    - by Pablo Dami
    Hi everyone! Despite that I’m a regular reader of this great forum, this is my first post on it. I believe that this community can help me with the following problem that I have. I’m trying to publish an ASP.NET website over an IIS 6.0 (Windows 2003 Server), and I have some troubles trying to connect to the database. Curiously, I have installed another ASP.NET website into the same IIS 6.0 with the same properties and security parameters and can connect without problems with the same database. The application that works fine is almost the same that the one that can’t connect with SQL Server (actually is the same but with several modifications). I’ll enumarate some information related to the problem: S.O: Windows 2003 Server SQL Server Engine: SQL Server 2008 SQL Server accept remote connections? Yes. ASP.NET version: 2.0.50727 The connections via TCP/IP are enabled to the SQL Server instance? Yes. The corresponding user that I have in the connection string, actually exists into the database with the “owner” role? Yes. ORM Tool used: nHibernate I get the following error when I try to run the aplication into the browser: Error while establishing a connection to the server. When connecting to SQL Server 2005, this failure may occur because the default settings SQL Server does not allow remote connections. (provider: Shared Memory Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) In order to isolate the problem, I made some test. For example, using the web app that works fine I can connect without any problema with the database that uses the web app that can’t. With this evidence I concluded that the problem is within the web app and not into the SQL Server instance. I also google it my problem but sadly I can't find nothing usefull to solve it. If someone can help me I’ll appreciate that. Thank you so much for your time!

    Read the article

  • Eclipse CDT setup for remote build

    - by Posco Grubb
    Is there a better way to setup Eclipse CDT for local editing and remote building? I am working on a C++ project that uses GNU make in Linux. The code is under CVS on a Linux server. When I'm in the lab, I use Eclipse CDT on a Linux-x64 PC. The project is built on a Linux-x86 PC. All the computers in the lab (including the CVS server) have NFS mounts. When I'm at home, I use Eclipse CDT on a Windows 7 PC. The Windows PC connects to the Linux CVS server via SSH tunnel. To edit source, I rsync the C++ project under the Linux Eclipse workspace back to my Windows Eclipse workspace. (I can also do a remote CVS checkout on the Windows PC.) To build from home, I use a custom build command that SSH's to the Linux-x86 PC, rsync's the C++ project from my Windows Eclipse workspace to my Linux Eclipse workspace, and then runs make on the Liunx-x86 PC, specifying the correct path for the Makefile. In order to go back and forth between lab and home without committing my changes to CVS every time, I use rsync. When I transition from lab to home, I rsync sources to my Windows Eclipse workspace. When I build from home, the sources get rsync'd back to the Linux Eclipse workspace. Is there a better, less wonky way to do this? (I'm NOT interested in remote debugging.)

    Read the article

  • How to Store State in Silverlight WCF RIA Services

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am developing a silverlight 3 application using WCF RIA services. I am using the AuthenticationBase class to handle my authentication. As I understand it under the hood this uses the ASP .NET authentication libraries. When I log into the site the authentication service handles login state so that if I close the site and open it straight away I am still logged in according to the server. When the webpage is refreshed or closed and reloaded I can call the method, WebContextBase.Current.Authentication.LoadUser() And it goes back to the authentication service (running on the server) and figures out whether I am still logged into the site. If a timeout has occured the answer will be no. If that is the case I can show a login dialog. The problem I want to solve is that the authentication service consumes the password, and there is no way I can ever retrieve that password again. If the user logs into the site I want to store the password on the server, and return a token to the client side to match up with that password. I have some other services on the server side that need that password. So where should I store that password on the server? How can that be done? How does the WCF authentication store state?

    Read the article

  • Designing code for a duo Website + AIR desktop App

    - by faB
    I want to use AIR to create an OFFLINE version of a "webapp" kind of website (lots of ajax, front end code). Haven't been much further than the HelloWorld example, I keep wondering: how do you design your code, to maximize code reuse between the website (say in php or Java or .Net), and the AIR app ? Can you actually re-use 100% of the front end code, provided that it is designed to account for the AIR app ? How would you go about doing that ? For example, the website makes many Ajax calls which have latency, and uses listeners. The AIR app doesn't need listeners it could run database requests synchronously, and it doesn't need to run ajax calls right? Would you write an abstraction layer for that ? So that the same calls on the AIR app will not do a xmlhttp but instead implement the server-side code with AIR; and call the listener ? So you don't have to rewrite the front end code patterns ? Does this make sense ? It's really hard to search on Google. I'm thinking there must be a good article somewhere of somebody who went through and perhaps a framework to do that ?

    Read the article

  • NAnt errors when generating assembly info after project is upgraded to VS2010

    - by Grant Palin
    I have a project I recently upgraded to VS2010 - the project/solution files are updated, but I'm still targeting .NET 3.5. Until now, my standard NAnt build script has not given me any trouble. However, it appears that after updating the project, and updating the NAnt config to be aware of the new tooling, I am now receiving an error when autogenerating assembly information, which fails the build. The relevant build task is below: <asminfo output="${dir.src}\${file.commonAssemblyInfo}" language="${project.codeLanguage}"> <imports> <import namespace="System.Reflection" /> </imports> <attributes> <attribute type="AssemblyVersionAttribute" value="${project.fullversion}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyFileVersionAttribute" value="${project.fullversion}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyInformationalVersionAttribute" value="${project.fullversion}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyCopyrightAttribute" value="${assembly.copyright}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyCompanyAttribute" value="${assembly.company}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyConfigurationAttribute" value="${project.config}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyTrademarkAttribute" value="${assembly.trademark}" /> <attribute type="AssemblyProductAttribute" value="${assembly.product}" /> </attributes> </asminfo> The error is highlighted for the first line of the asminfo task. It reads: AssemblyInfo file 'C:\Users\Grant\Projects\VisualStudio\Checklist\src\CommonAssemblyInfo.cs' could not be generated. This method implicitly uses CAS policy, which has been obsoleted by the .NET Framework. In order to enable CAS policy for compatibility reasons, please use the NetFx40_LegacySecurityPolicy configuration switch. Please see http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=155570 for more information. I've gathered so far that this is something new to .NET 4. Has anyone had to address this error before? Does anyone know what it is about asminfo that may be triggering the error?

    Read the article

  • MySQL: order by and limit gives wrong result

    - by Larry K
    MySQL ver 5.1.26 I'm getting the wrong result with a select that has where, order by and limit clauses. It's only a problem when the order by uses the id column. I saw the MySQL manual for LIMIT Optimization My guess from reading the manual is that there is some problem with the index on the primary key, id. But I don't know where I should go from here... Question: what should I do to best solve the problem? Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.00 sec) WRONG result when limit added! Should be the first row, id - 1336 mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Works correctly: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC ; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | | 1334 | 2010-05-06 08:05:25 | | 1331 | 2010-05-05 23:18:11 | +------+---------------------+ 3 rows in set (0.01 sec) Works correctly with limit: mysql> SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY created_at DESC limit 1; +------+---------------------+ | id | created_at | +------+---------------------+ | 1336 | 2010-05-14 08:05:25 | +------+---------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) Additional info: explain SELECT id, created_at FROM billing_invoices WHERE (billing_invoices.account_id = 5) ORDER BY id DESC limit 1; +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | billing_invoices | range | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | index_billing_invoices_on_account_id | 4 | NULL | 3 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------------+-------+--------------------------------------+--------------------------------------+---------+------+------+-------------+

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Map String Url To A Route Value Object

    - by mwgriffiths
    I am creating a modular ASP.NET MVC application using areas. In short, I have created a greedy route that captures all routes beginning with {application}/{*catchAll}. Here is the action: // get /application/index public ActionResult Index(string application, object catchAll) { // forward to partial request to return partial view ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(catchAll); // this gets called in the view page and uses a partial request class to return a partial view } Example: The Url "/Application/Accounts/LogOn" will then cause the Index action to pass "/Accounts/LogOn" into the PartialRequest, but as a string value. // partial request constructor public PartialRequest(object routeValues) { RouteValueDictionary = new RouteValueDictionary(routeValues); } In this case, the route value dictionary will not return any values for the routeData, whereas if I specify a route in the Index Action: ViewData["partialRequest"] = new PartialRequest(new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }); It works, and the routeData values contains a "controller" key and an "action" key; whereas before, the keys are empty, and therefore the rest of the class wont work. So my question is, how can I convert the "/Accounts/LogOn" in the catchAll to "new { controller = "accounts", action = "logon" }"?? If this is not clear, I will explain more! :) Matt This is the "closest" I have got, but it obviously wont work for complex routes: // split values into array var routeParts = catchAll.ToString().Split(new char[] { '/' }, StringSplitOptions.RemoveEmptyEntries); // feels like a hack catchAll = new { controller = routeParts[0], action = routeParts[1] };

    Read the article

  • how can I solve a problem with andWhere with symfony/doctrine and odbc?

    - by JaSk
    While following the symfony tutorial (1.4.4) I'm getting an error with ODBC/mssql 2008. SQLSTATE[07002]: COUNT field incorrect: 0 [Microsoft][SQL Server Native Client 10.0]COUNT field incorrect or syntax error (SQLExecute[0] at ext\pdo_odbc\odbc_stmt.c:254). Failing Query: "SELECT [j].[id] AS [j__id], [j].[category_id] AS [j__category_id], [j].[type] AS [j_type], [j].[company] AS [j_company], [j].[logo] AS [j_logo], [j].[url] AS [j_url], [j].[position] AS [j_position], [j].[location] AS [j_location], [j].[description] AS [j__description], [j].[how_to_apply] AS [j__how_to_apply], [j].[token] AS [j__token], [j].[is_public] AS [j__is_public], [j].[is_activated] AS [j__is_activated], [j].[email] AS [j__email], [j].[expires_at] AS [j__expires_at], [j].[created_at] AS [j__created_at], [j].[updated_at] AS [j__updated_at] FROM [jobeet_job] [j] WHERE ([j].[category_id] = '2' AND [j].[expires_at] ?) ORDER BY [j].[expires_at] DESC" I've narrowed the problem to a line that uses parameters public function getActiveJobs(Doctrine_Query $q = null) { if (is_null($q)) { $q = Doctrine_Query::create() -from('JobeetJob j'); } //$q->andWhere('j.expires_at > \''.date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time()).'\'');<-- this works $q->andWhere('j.expires_at > ?', date('Y-m-d H:i:s', time())); //<-- this line has problem $q->addOrderBy('j.expires_at DESC'); return $q->execute(); } can anyone point me in the right direction? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rails Heroku Migrate Unknown Error

    - by Ryan Max
    Hello. I am trying to get my app up and running on heroku. However once I go to migrate I get the following error: $ heroku rake db:migrate rake aborted! An error has occurred, this and all later migrations canceled: 530 5.7.0 Must issue a STARTTLS command first. bv42sm676794ibb.5 (See full trace by running task with --trace) (in /disk1/home/slugs/155328_f2d3c00_845e/mnt) == BortMigration: migrating ================================================= -- create_table(:sessions) -> 0.1366s -- add_index(:sessions, :session_id) -> 0.0759s -- add_index(:sessions, :updated_at) -> 0.0393s -- create_table(:open_id_authentication_associations, {:force=>true}) -> 0.0611s -- create_table(:open_id_authentication_nonces, {:force=>true}) -> 0.0298s -- create_table(:users) -> 0.0222s -- add_index(:users, :login, {:unique=>true}) -> 0.0068s -- create_table(:passwords) -> 0.0123s -- create_table(:roles) -> 0.0119s -- create_table(:roles_users, {:id=>false}) -> 0.0029s I'm not sure exactly what it means. Or really what it means at all. Could it have to do with my Bort installation? I did remove all the open-id stuff from it. But I never had any problems with my migrations locally. Additionally on Bort the Restful Authentication uses my gmail stmp to send confirmation emails...all the searches on google i do on STARTTLS have to do with stmp. Can someone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • The best way to build iPhone/iPad static libraries?

    - by Derek Clarkson
    Hi everyone, I have a couple of static Phone/iPad libraries I an working on. The problem I am looking for advise on is the best way to package the libraries. My objective is to make it easy to use the libraries in other projects and include the correct one in a build with minimal problems. To make it more interesting I currently build 4 versions of each library as follows armv6/armv7 release (devices) i386 release (simulator) armv6/armv7 debug (devices) i386 debug (simulator) The difference between the release and debug versions is that the debug versions contain a lot of NSLog(...) code which enables people to see whats going on internally as an aid to debugging. Currently when I build the whole projects I arrange the libraries into two directories like this: release lib-device.a lib-simulator.a debug lib-device.a lib-simulator.a This works ok except that when include in projects, both paths are added to the library search path and switching a target from one to the other is a pain. Or alternatively I end up with two targets. The alternative I am thinking of is to change the directories like this: release device lib.a simulator lib.a debug device lib.a simulator lib.a In playing with XCode is appears that all xcode uses the lbrary references of a project for is to get the name of the library file, which it then looks up in the library paths. Thus by parameterising the library path with the current built type and target device, I can effectively auto switch. What do you guys think? Is there a better way to do this? ciao Derek

    Read the article

  • Make PasswordRecovery control work with locked out users ?

    - by Moe Sisko
    Example scenario in an ASP.NET application using SQL Server membership provider : 1) a user can't remember their exact password, and tries many times in a short space of time to login with an invalid password (say 5 times in a 10 minute window). This locks out the user (i.e. sets the IsLockedOut flag of the aspnet_Membership table to 1). 2) user goes to the "forgot my password" screen to try to get a new password emailed to them. This screen uses the PasswordRecovery control. User enters their correct user id, but then cannot go further in the password recovery process, since the IsLockedOut flag is 1. (They don't even get to see their security question). 3) The user would then have to phone tech support to get themselves unlocked etc. To reduce the burden on support staff, we are trying to eliminate step 3) if possible, by making the PasswordRecovery control (if possible), work with locked out users. i.e. when they enter their login ID, the security question comes up, and IF they enter the correct answer, the system will unlock the user, then send the new email to them. I'm wondering if it is possible to tweak the PasswordRecovery control to do this. Or maybe I'm approaching this the wrong way ?

    Read the article

  • Where should you put 3rd party .NET dlls when using git submodules to avoid duplication

    - by Tim Abell
    I have two .NET library projects in Visual Studio 2008 that both make use of the MySql Connector for .NET (MySql.Data.dll). These libraries are then in turn both used by a .NET command line application which also uses the Connector. The library projects are pulled in to the application's solution as git submodules and referenced by project in Visual Studio. I'm looking for the most effective strategy for storing and referencing the MySql Connector library. I have tried having the MySql.Data.dll checked in to all three projects (in their root folder), this was problematic when one project changed to a newer version of the connector dll. Although each project had its own version of the dll, only one was packaged into the resultant application leading to an API mismatch which was hard to pin down. This has put me off this approach. I have tried having the command line application reference the connector dll that is held in a submodule, however this only removes the possibility of version mismatches when there is only one submodule rather than two as in this case. I am contemplating putting the dll in the global assembly cache (GAC) of all machines that need to build or use the application, but I'm wary of not having all dependencies for an application available in source control.

    Read the article

  • Java problem with multiple threads when executing a runnable jar file

    - by Spi1988
    I have developed a Java Swing application, which uses the SwingWorker class to perform some long running tasks. When the application is run from the IDE (Netbeans), I can start multiple long running tasks simultaneously without any problem. I created a runnable jar file for the application, in order to be able to run it from outside the IDE. The application when run from this jar file works well with the only exception that it doesn't allow me to start 2 long running tasks simultaneously. When I start the first task (assume it takes 2 minitues to complete), every thing works fine, the UI does not freeze (it never freezes). However, when I try to run another task (assume it takes just 10 seconds, therefore it should finish before the first task) while the first task has not yet completed, nothing seems to happen. In reality, the second task would have started, and also finished its processing, however its results are only displayed once the first task completes. I dunno why this is happening. Is there some restriction on the number of threads which could run simultaneously on the JVM? Are there any jvm arguments which i could try to solve this problem. I hope i explained my problem well. Thanks in advance, Peter Bartolo

    Read the article

  • BackgroundWorker might be causing my application to hang

    - by alexD
    I have a Form that uses a BackgroundWorker to execute a series of tests. I use the ProgressChanged event to send messages to the main thread, which then does all of the updates on the UI. I've combed through my code to make sure I'm not doing anything to the UI in the background worker. There are no while loops in my code and the BackgroundWorker has a finite execution time (measured in seconds or minutes). However, for some reason when I lock my computer, often times the application will be hung when I log back in. The thing is, the BackgroundWorker isn't even running when this happens. The reason I believe it is related to the BackgroundWorker though is because the form only hangs when the BackgroundWorker has been executed since the application was loaded (it only runs when given a certain user input). I pass this thread a List of TreeNodes from a TreeView in my UI through the RunWorkerAsync method, but I only read those nodes in the worker thread..any modifications I make to them is done in the UI thread through the progressChanged event. I do use Thread.Sleep in my worker thread to execute tests at timed intervals (which involves sending messages over a TCP socket, which was not created in the worker thread). I am completely perplexed as to why my application might be hanging. I'm sure I'm doing something 'illegal' somewhere, I just don't know what.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489  | Next Page >