Search Results

Search found 34688 results on 1388 pages for 'default document'.

Page 488/1388 | < Previous Page | 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495  | Next Page >

  • WCF hosting: Can access svc file but cannot go to wsdl link

    - by Impulse
    Hello, I have a WCF service that is hosted in IIS 7.5. I have two servers, one for test and one for production. The service works fine on test server, but on the production server I have the following error. When I access the address http//..../service.svc I can see the default page that says: You have created a service. To test this service, you will need to create a client and use it to call the service. You can do this using the svcutil.exe tool from the command line with the following syntax: svcutil.exe http://..../service.svc?wsdl This will generate a configuration file and a code file that contains the client class. Add the two files to your client application and use the generated client class to call the Service. But when I click the wsdl link, I cannot go to the wsdl page. It returns me to this default web page without any errors. I am suspecting a network/firewall authorization error but does anybody have an experience like this one? All IIS settings are the same for test and production servers. Thank you, Best Regards.

    Read the article

  • Grep without storing search to the "/ register in Vim

    - by Phro
    In my .vimrc I have a mapping that makes a line of text 'title capitalized': noremap <Leader>at :s/\v<(.)(\w{2,})/\u\1\L\2/g<CR> However, whenever I run this function, it highlights every word that is at least three characters long in my entire document. Of course I could get this behaviour to stop simply by appending :nohlsearch<CR> to the end of the mapping, but this is more of an awkward hack that still avoids a bigger problem: The last search has been replaced by \v<(.)(\w{2,}). Is there any way to use the search commands in Vim without storing the last search in the "/ register; a 'silent' search of sorts? That way, after running this title-making command, I can still use my previous search to navigate the document using n, N, etc. Edit Using @brettanomyces' answer, I found that simply setting the mapping: noremap <Leader>at :call setline(line('.'),substitute(getline('.'), '\v<(.)(\w{2,})', '\u\1\L\2', 'g'))<CR> will successfully perform the substitution without storing the searched text into the / register.

    Read the article

  • RewitePath on IIS7 with .Net 3.5 or 4.0 - The resource cannot be found.

    - by Renso
    In Global.asax handle errors by trying to redirect users to another page without changing the url in the address bar, that's why I am using RewritePath and not Redirect. void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when an unhandled error occurs Context.RewritePath("~/Error.aspx", false); } Error.apsx in same root folder as About.aspx, and Default.aspx pages which of course work. Not sure I am having this issue. Have the following web.config file settings that I thought may be relevant: IIS7 settings: Application "TestRewriteUrl" under Default Web Site on DefaultAppPool. This example my seem trivial but I cannot use IIS7 HTTP Redirect as I actually was using this example to keep it simple. What I want to ultimately do is have a user type in http://www.somesite.com/myownpage and have it rewrite the path to another page in the same application directory by looking up the "myownpage" in the database to see what database id they have and redirect them to the correct "microsite" based on that without the user noticing a url change. Kind of like when you go to a blogging engine and no matter where in your blog you go the url remains the same. I don't want the user to go from http://www.mysite.com/tomshardware to http://www.mysite.com?id=8734656856. So that is why I used the simply example above to try and understand why the rewrite path does not work.

    Read the article

  • .htaccess trickery multi-language website

    - by user1658741
    I have a website right now that uses two languages (french and english) The way it works right now is that if someone goes to mysite.com/folder/file.php for example, file.php is simply a script that figures out which language to use, get's it's own path and filename(file.php) and serves up mysite.com/en/folder/file.php (if the language is english). However what shows up in the URL is still mysite.com/folder/file.php. For any folder and any file the same script is used. If I want to add a new file I have to add the file to the folder the user types into the browser as well to the en and fr folders. Could I do some .htaccess trickery so that whatever URL is typed, one .php file gets open that checks the language and what folder/file was requested and then serves up the correct language file? here's the php file that is served up for any files in the URL. <?php // Get current document path which is mirrored in the language folders $docpath = $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; // Get current document name (Used when switching languages so that the same current page is shown when language is changed) $docname = GetDocName(); //call up lang.php which handles display of appropriate language webpage. //lang.php uses $docpath and $docname to give out the proper $langfile. //$docpath/$docname is mirrored in the /lang/en and /lang/fr folders $langfile = GetDocRoot()."/lang/lang.php"; include("$langfile"); //Call up the proper language file to display function GetDocRoot() { $temp = getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"); $localpath=realpath(basename(getenv("SCRIPT_NAME"))); $localpath=str_replace("\\","/",$localpath); $docroot=substr($localpath,0, strpos($localpath,$temp)); return $docroot; } function GetDocName() { $currentFile = $_SERVER["SCRIPT_NAME"]; $parts = Explode('/', $currentFile); $dn = $parts[count($parts) - 1]; return $dn; } ?>

    Read the article

  • Does video tag (HTML 5) injection via JavaScript work in any browsers?

    - by JoshNaro
    I'm trying to dynamically spawn a video element on a page using JavaScript. JavaScript <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var video = $(document.createElement('video')) .attr('id', 'VideoElement') .attr('controls', 'controls') .attr('src', 'videopath.mp4') // Changed 'href' attribute to 'src' .css({ width: 640, height: 360 }); $('#VideoContainer').append(video); }); HTML <body> <div id="VideoContainer"></div> </body> In Firefox I get the video harness, but the actual video doesn't load. In IE8 the video harness doesn't even appear. Is HTML 5 just not supported enough to accomplish this yet? Edit: Got this to work with Artiom's fix. Looks like this works fine with Chrome and Safari. I'm using a codec Firefox doesn't support, so it doesn't work there; although I suspect it will work with a supported codec. IE8 sure enough doesn't work (high five IE).

    Read the article

  • How to style "form" field labels in Windows Phone 7?

    - by Jeremy Bell
    Is there any standards guidance on how to style field labels next to form fields in windows phone 7 silverlight applications? For example, let's say I have a StackPanel with the TextBlock label and a TextBox for data entry. Currently I am using the default TextBlock Margin included in the PhoneTextSubtleStyle ("12,0,12,0"), and using a Margin of "0,-12,0,0" to push the TextBox up closer to the label: <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" Text="Name" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextSubtleStyle}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding ItemName, Mode=TwoWay}" TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="433" Margin="0,-12,0,0" /> </StackPanel> Note that the TextBox seems to have some internal padding of 12 pixels to the left and right, so that the TextBlock label and the TextBox control visually line up perfectly on the left. The problem is, I see existing apps with widely varying conventions for field label styling. Some do not do the negative margin adjustment, like I have above. Some don't. Some appear to override the label TextBlock Margin so that it is indented an additional 12 pixels on the left (i.e. "24,0,12,0" instead of the default "12,0,12,0"). Some apps put the labels to the left of the fields themselves (I hate that). Is there some standard design guidance on field labels in Windows Phone 7? I read through the design template PDF and could only determine that the field labels should be upper case on the first word (preferably only one word labels), and should NOT have a colon at the end. I didn't see anything with regards to margins or alignment between the label and the field.

    Read the article

  • How to give user confirmation message before ActionLink based on validation

    - by RememberME
    I have the following link. On click, I'd like to check the item.primary_company field and if populated, give the user a warning and ask if they would like to continue. How can I do this? <a href="<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> EDIT I've changed to this, but nothing happens when clicked. Also, I don't know how to reference the item to do the check on the primary_company field. I only want to message to show if item.primary_company.HasValue. I'd also like to show item.company1.company_name in the confirm message. <a href="#" onclick="return Actionclick("<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>");" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> <script type="text/javascript"> function Actionclick(url) { alert("myclick"); if ( confirm("Do you want to activate this company's primary company and all other subsidiaries?")) { location.href(url); } }; </script>

    Read the article

  • XPath Query - Select relative top level nodes

    - by John
    I'm trying to iterate over some elements in an XML document that may be nested, but as I iterate over them I may be removing some from the tree. I'm thinking the best way is to do this recursively, so I'm trying to come up with an XPath Query that will select all the top-level nodes relative to the current node. //foo[not(ancestor::foo)] works great at the document level, but I'm trying to figure out how to do this from a relative query. <foo id="1"> <foo id="2" /> <foo id="3"> <foo id="4"> <bar> <foo id="5"> <foo id="6" /> </foo> <foo id="7" /> </bar> </foo> </foo> </foo> If the current node is foo#3, I only want to select foo#4. When the current node is foo#4, I only want to select foo#5 and foo#7. I think I'm trying to select any descendant foo nodes of the current node, but without any ancestor foo nodes between the current node and the node I'm selecting. My conundrum is if we're already inside a foo node, not(ancestor::foo) doesn't help.

    Read the article

  • How do I cast from int to generic type Integer?

    - by Rob Kent
    I'm relatively new to Java and am used to generics in C# so have struggled a bit with this code. Basically I want a generic method for getting a stored Android preference by key and this code, albeit ugly, works for a Boolean but not an Integer, when it blows up with a ClassCastException. Can anyone tell me why this is wrong and maybe help me improve the whole routine (using wildcards?)? public static <T> T getPreference(Class<T> argType, String prefKey, T defaultValue, SharedPreferences sharedPreferences) { ... try { if (argType == Boolean.class) { Boolean def = (Boolean) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getBoolean(prefKey, def)); } else if (argType == Integer.class) { Integer def = (Integer) defaultValue; return argType.cast(sharedPreferences.getInt(prefKey, def)); } else { AppGlobal.logWarning("getPreference: Unknown type '%s' for preference '%s'. Returning default value.", argType.getName(), prefKey); return defaultValue; } } catch (ClassCastException e) { AppGlobal.logError("Cast exception when reading pref %s. Using default value.", prefKey); return defaultValue; } } I've tried various ways - using the native int, casting to an Integer, but nothing works.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I create an abstract constructor on an abstract C# class?

    - by Anthony D
    I am creating an abstract class. I want each of my derived classes to be forced to implement a specific signature of constructor. As such, I did what I would have done has I wanted to force them to implement a method, I made an abstract one. public abstract class A { abstract A(int a, int b); } However I get a message saying the abstract modifier is invalid on this item. My goal was to force some code like this. public class B : A { public B(int a, int b) : base(a, b) { //Some other awesome code. } } This is all C# .NET code. Can anyone help me out? Update 1 I wanted to add some things. What I ended up with was this. private A() { } protected A(int a, int b) { //Code } That does what some folks are saying, default is private, and the class needs to implement a constructor. However that doesn't FORCE a constructor with the signature A(int a, int b). public abstract class A { protected abstract A(int a, int b) { } } Update 2 I should be clear, to work around this I made my default constructor private, and my other constructor protected. I am not really looking for a way to make my code work. I took care of that. I am looking to understand why C# does not let you do this.

    Read the article

  • MSSQL Server using multiple ID Numbers

    - by vincer
    I have an web application that creates printable forms, these forms have a unique number on them, the problem is I have 2 forms that separate numbers need to be created for them. ie) Form1- Numbered 2000000-2999999 Form2- Numbered 3000000-3999999 dbo.test2 - is my form information table Tsel - is my autoinc table for the 3000000 series numbers Tadv - is my autoinc table for the 2000000 series numbers What I have done is create 2 tables with just autoinc row (one for 2000000 series numbers and one for 3000000 series numbers), I then created a trigger to add a record to the coresponding table, read back the autoinc number and add it to my table that stores the form information including the just created autoinc number for the right series of forms. Although it does work, I'm concerned that the numbers will get messed up under load. I'm not sure the @@IDENTITY will always return the right value when many people are using the system. (I cannot have duplicates and I need to use the numbering form show above. Thanks for any help See code below. ** TRIGGER ** CREATE TRIGGER MAKEANID2 ON dbo.test2 AFTER INSERT AS SET NOCOUNT ON declare @someid int declare @someid2 int declare @startfrom int declare @test1 varchar(10) select @someid=@@IDENTITY select @test1 = (Select name1 from test2 where sysid = @someid ) if @test1 = 'select' begin insert into Tsel Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end if @test1 = 'adv' begin insert into Tadv Default values select @someid2 = @@IDENTITY end update test2 set name2=(@someid2) where sysid = @someid SET NOCOUNT OFF

    Read the article

  • Celery Received unregistered task of type (run example)

    - by Echeg
    I'm trying to run example from Celery documentation. I run: celeryd --loglevel=INFO /usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/celery/loaders/default.py:64: NotConfigured: No 'celeryconfig' module found! Please make sure it exists and is available to Python. "is available to Python." % (configname, ))) [2012-03-19 04:26:34,899: WARNING/MainProcess] -------------- celery@ubuntu v2.5.1 ---- **** ----- --- * *** * -- [Configuration] -- * - **** --- . broker: amqp://guest@localhost:5672// - ** ---------- . loader: celery.loaders.default.Loader - ** ---------- . logfile: [stderr]@INFO - ** ---------- . concurrency: 4 - ** ---------- . events: OFF - *** --- * --- . beat: OFF -- ******* ---- --- ***** ----- [Queues] -------------- . celery: exchange:celery (direct) binding:celery tasks.py: # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from celery.task import task @task def add(x, y): return x + y run_task.py: # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- from tasks import add result = add.delay(4, 4) print (result) print (result.ready()) print (result.get()) In same folder celeryconfig.py: CELERY_IMPORTS = ("tasks", ) CELERY_RESULT_BACKEND = "amqp" BROKER_URL = "amqp://guest:guest@localhost:5672//" CELERY_TASK_RESULT_EXPIRES = 300 When I run "run_task.py": on python console eb503f77-b5fc-44e2-ac0b-91ce6ddbf153 False errors on celeryd server [2012-03-19 04:34:14,913: ERROR/MainProcess] Received unregistered task of type 'tasks.add'. The message has been ignored and discarded. Did you remember to import the module containing this task? Or maybe you are using relative imports? Please see http://bit.ly/gLye1c for more information. The full contents of the message body was: {'retries': 0, 'task': 'tasks.add', 'utc': False, 'args': (4, 4), 'expires': None, 'eta': None, 'kwargs': {}, 'id': '841bc21f-8124-436b-92f1-e3b62cafdfe7'} Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/celery/worker/consumer.py", line 444, in receive_message self.strategies[name](message, body, message.ack_log_error) KeyError: 'tasks.add' Please explain what's the problem.

    Read the article

  • How with lambda function in MVC3

    - by doogdeb
    I have a model which contains view models for each view. This model is held in session and is initialised when application starts. I need to be able to populate a field from one view model with the value from another so have used a lambda function. Below is my model. I am using a lambda so that when I get Test2.MyProperty it will use the FunctionTestProperty to retrieve the value from Test1.TestProperty. public class Model { public Model() { Test1 = new Test1() Test2 = new Test2(FunctionTestProperty () => Test1.TestProperty) } } public class Test1 { public string TestProperty { get; set; } } public class Test2 { public Test2() : this (() => string.Empty) {} public Test2(Func<string> functionTestProperty) { FunctionTestProperty = functionTestProperty; } public Func<string> FunctionTestProperty { get; set; } public string MyProperty { get{ return FunctionTestProperty() ?? string.Empty; } } } This works perfectly when I first run the application and navigate from Test1 to Test2; I can see that when I get the value for MyProperty it calls back to Model constructor and retrieves the Test1.TestProperty value. However when I then submit the form (Test2) it calls the default constructor which sets it to string.Empty. So if I go back to Test1 and back to Test2 again it always then calls the Test2 default constructor. Does anyone know why this works when first running the application but not after the view is submitted, or if I have made an obvious mistake?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

    Read the article

  • In RoR, is there an easy way to prevent the view from outputting <p> tags?

    - by dt
    I'm new to Ruby and Rails and I have a simple controller that shows an item from the database in a default view. When it is displaying in HTML it is outputting <p> tags along with the text content. Is there a way to prevent this from happening? I suppose if there isn't, is there at least a way to set the default css class for the same output in a statement such as this: <% @Items.each do |i| %> <%= i.itemname %> <div class="menu_body"> <a href="#">Link-1</a> </div> <% end %> So the problem is with the <%= i.itemname %> part. Is there a way to stop it from wrapping it in its own <p> tags? Or set the css class for the output? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

    Read the article

  • C++ template and pointers

    - by Kary
    I have a problem with a template and pointers ( I think ). Below is the part of my code: /* ItemCollection.h */ #ifndef ITEMCOLLECTION_H #define ITEMCOLLECTION_H #include <cstddef> using namespace std; template <class T> class ItemCollection { public: // constructor //destructor void insertItem( const T ); private: struct Item { T price; Item* left; Item* right; }; Item* root; Item* insert( T, Item* ); }; #endif And the file with function defintion: /* ItemCollectionTemp.h-member functions defintion */ #include <iostream> #include <cstddef> #include "ItemCollection.h" template <class Type> Item* ItemCollection <T>::insert( T p, Item* ptr) { // function body } Here are the errors which are generated by this line of code: Item* ItemCollection <T>::insert( T p, Item* ptr) Errors: error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before '*' error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int error C2065: 'Type' : undeclared identifier error C2065: 'Type' : undeclared identifier error C2146: syntax error : missing ')' before identifier 'p' error C4430: missing type specifier - int assumed. Note: C++ does not support default-int error C2470: 'ItemCollection::insert' : looks like a function definition, but there is no parameter list; skipping apparent body error C2072: 'ItemCollection::insert': initialization of a function error C2059: syntax error : ')' Any help is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Replacing text with variables

    - by Steve
    I have to send out letters to certain clients and I have a standard letter that I need to use. I want to replace some of the text inside the body of the message with variables. Here is my maturity_letter models.py class MaturityLetter(models.Model): default = models.BooleanField(default=False, blank=True) body = models.TextField(blank=True) footer = models.TextField(blank=True) Now the body has a value of this: Dear [primary-firstname], AN IMPORTANT REMINDER… You have a [product] that is maturing on [maturity_date] with [financial institution]. etc Now I would like to replace everything in brackets with my template variables. This is what I have in my views.py so far: context = {} if request.POST: start_form = MaturityLetterSetupForm(request.POST) if start_form.is_valid(): agent = request.session['agent'] start_date = start_form.cleaned_data['start_date'] end_date = start_form.cleaned_data['end_date'] investments = Investment.objects.all().filter(maturity_date__range=(start_date, end_date), plan__profile__agent=agent).order_by('maturity_date') inv_form = MaturityLetterInvestments(investments, request.POST) if inv_form.is_valid(): sel_inv = inv_form.cleaned_data['investments'] context['sel_inv'] = sel_inv maturity_letter = MaturityLetter.objects.get(id=1) context['mat_letter'] = maturity_letter context['inv_form'] = inv_form context['agent'] = agent context['show_report'] = True Now if I loop through the sel_inv I get access to sel_inv.maturity_date, etc but I am lost in how to replace the text. On my template, all I have so far is: {% if show_letter %} {{ mat_letter.body }} <br/> {{ mat_letter.footer }} {% endif %} Much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Perl: Value of response code in HTTP::Request

    - by lola
    Hi all, So, I am writing a code to get a document from the internet. The document size is around 200 KB. This is the code: !/usr/local/bin/perl -w use strict; use LWP::UserAgent; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; my $url = "SOME URL"; my $req = HTTP::Request->new(GET => $url); my $res = $ua->request($req); if($res->is_success){ print $res->content ."\n"; } else{ print "Error: " . $res->status_line; } Now, the only problem is I can't mention what the URL is. However, the output is: "Error: 500 read timeout". When I checked the link externally, the data is being downloaded in under 5 seconds. I even changed the timeout to 1000s, but it still didn't work. How should I go about finding more information related to the response. The size of the file (around 200KB) is also not too great to warrant a read timeout. The server is also not a busy one, didn't give a problem whenever I checked the link on the browser. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Iteration through the HtmlDocument.All collection stops at the referenced stylesheet?

    - by Jonas
    Since "bug in .NET" is often not the real cause of a problem, I wonder if I'm missing something here. What I'm doing feels pretty simple. I'm iterating through the elements in a HtmlDocument called doc like this: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("*** " + doc.Url + " ***"); foreach (HtmlElement field in doc.All) System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("Tag = {0}, ID = {1} ", field.TagName, field.Id)); I then discovered the debug window output was this: Tag = !, ID = Tag = HTML, ID = Tag = HEAD, ID = Tag = TITLE, ID = Tag = LINK, ID = ... when the actual HTML document looks like this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>Protocol</title> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" media="all" href="ProtocolStyle.css"> </head> <body onselectstart="return false"> <table> <!-- Misc. table elements and cell values --> </table> </body> </html> Commenting out the LINK tag solves the issue for me, and the document is completely parsed. The ProtocolStyle.css file exist on disk and is loaded properly, if that would matter. Is this a bug in .NET 3.5 SP1, or what? For being such a web-oriented framework, I find it hard to believe there would be such a major bug in it.

    Read the article

  • Image sprite not lining up in firefox

    - by Saif Bechan
    I am working with an image sprite to create my buttons. They work right in every browser except firefox. Lets say i have 2 spans next to eachother: <span class="spanleft"></span><span class="spanright"></span> and give them some styling(this is the actual code i use for the sprite) .spanleft{ background:url('/templates/default/img/auction/btn-toolbar.png') no-repeat 0 0; display:block; float:left; height:100px; width:13px; } .spanright{ background:url('/templates/default/img/auction/btn-toolbar.png') no-repeat 0 -104px; display:block; float:left; height:100px; width:30px; margin-left:0px; } Now this works in every browser i tested, the images line up great. But in firefox I get a small offset. Now i fiddled with the pixels a lot. Its not an offset of 1px, the offset is about 0.5 of a px. yeah. Ive made a screenshot of what i mean, and i'm going to put in the sprite for the buttons, they make lovely buttons, upstate,downstate,hover,disabled. You can use them in your projects. Here are the shots: This is the problem: Here is the image sprite: I hop this problem can be solved, i am working with FF 3.6. thanks guys!

    Read the article

  • Is this a good way to generically deserialize objects?

    - by Damien Wildfire
    I have a stream onto which serialized objects representing messages are dumped periodically. The objects are one of a very limited number of types, and other than the actual sequence of bytes that arrives, I have no way of knowing what type of message it is. I would like to simply try to deserialize it as an object of a particular type, and if an exception is thrown, try again with the next type. I have an interface that looks like this: public interface IMessageHandler<T> where T : class, IMessage { T Handle(string message); } // elsewhere: // (These are all xsd.exe-generated classes from an XML schema.) public class AppleMessage : IMessage { ... } public class BananaMessage : IMessage { ... } public class CoconutMessage : IMessage { ... } Then I wrote a GenericHandler<T> that looks like this: public class GenericHandler<T> : IMessageHandler<T> where T: class, IMessage { public class MessageHandler : IMessageHandler { T IMessageHandler.Handle(string message) { T result = default(T); try { // This utility method tries to deserialize the object with an // XmlSerializer as if it were an object of type T. result = Utils.SerializationHelper.Deserialize<T>(message); } catch (InvalidCastException e) { result = default(T); } return result; } } } Two questions: Using my GenericHandler<T> (or something similar to it), I'd now like to populate a collection with handlers that each handle a different type. Then I want to invoke each handler's Handle method on a particular message to see if it can be deserialized. If I get a null result, move onto the next handler; otherwise, the message has been deserialized. Can this be done? Is there a better way to deserialize data of unknown (but restricted) type?

    Read the article

  • direction line color google map v2

    - by user1328645
    I'm using this code to change direction line color in google map v2, but still it won't work even after using getpolyine? How can I change it? ` function direction() { var txtAddress = document.getElementById("<%=txtAddress.ClientID %>"); var address = txtAddress.value; var TextBox1 = document.getElementById("<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>"); var address1 = TextBox1.value; directions = new GDirections(map, directionsPanel); directions.load("from: " + address1 + " to: " + address + "", { getPolyline: true }); setTimeout(handle, 1000); // var address =txtAddress.value + " " + TextBox3.value; } function handle() { var points = []; var poly = direction.getPolyline(); for (var i = o; i < poly.getVertexCount(); i++) { points[i] = poly.getVertex(i); } var mypoly = new GPolyline(point, "#ff627", 3, 1) map.addOverlay(mypoly); } `

    Read the article

  • Why does the onclick function run on onclick, but not when I call it manually?

    - by Codemonkey
    This is my code // Register onclick var old_onclick = link.onclick; link.onclick = function() { astr_track_action(param); if(typeof(old_onclick) == "function") old_onclick(); } And this is the html <a onclick="alert('hello!');" href="http://www.google.com?acme=link&foo=bar">To google!</a> When I click the link, the alert pops up. But when I override the onclick with my JS code, the alert does not pop up. Any ideas? Edit: I just want to add, I have debugged and confirmed that old_onclick() is run, but no alert message shows up. Edit: Here is the full code from the loop start. I don't see how it's relevant, but it was requested: for(var i = 0; i < document.links.length; i++) { var link = document.links[i]; var eventlink = link.href.split("acme="); if(eventlink.length > 1) { var param = eventlink[1].split("&")[0]; var newlink = link.href; // Register onclick var old_onclick = link.onclick; link.onclick = function() { astr_track_action(param); if(typeof(old_onclick) == "function") old_onclick(); }

    Read the article

  • How to submit to the server with JQuery.UI Dialog and ASP.Net?

    - by Paul
    Hi, I'm looking for a way to submit information captured in a JQuery Dialog to the server in ASP.Net. I originally thought it would work with a 'hidden' asp button, but the click doesn't seem to be submitting the form. Here's the code I have so far: <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function() { var dlg = jQuery("#dialog").dialog({ bgiframe: true, autoOpen: false, height: 150, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { "Add": function() { var btn = document.getElementById("<%=btnAdd.ClientID %>"); if (btn) btn.click(); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); $("#dialog").parent().appendTo("#dialog_target"); }); </script> <div id="hidden" style="visibility:hidden" > <!-- Hidden button that actually triggers server add --> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd" runat="server" style="display:none" OnClick="btnAdd_Click" /> <!-- Hidden Delete Dialog --> <div id="dialog" title="New Additional Skill"> <label>Additional Skill Name:</label> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtNewSkillName" runat="server" /> </div> Any pointers?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495  | Next Page >