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• XML problem in the basic menu example

  - by arakn0

  Hi there, I am trying to create an app with some menus, an I am following the basic example available in the official android site: http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/ui/menus.html My problems appear when I define the menu in the XML. After creating the folder res/menu and creating the menu_option.xml file from eclipse.... The project (in general) gives an error that can be read from the Problems tab: Unparsed aapt error(s)! Check the console for output Android Packaging Problem So, changing to the Console tab to get more information about the problem, this can be read: [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] Error in an XML file: aborting build. [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] W/ResourceType(11566): Bad XML block: header size 63327 or total size -144759824 is larger than data size 0 [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] /home/User/workspace/TestAudio/res/menu/options_menu.xml:1: error: Error parsing XML: no element found The strange thing is that eclipse recognizes the menu items that I've defined in the XML,I can reference them in the code with no problems and my main activity builds. (and the rest of the files too). Could it be that when eclipse creates a file, for some reason, the Android SDK has problems to read it, or something similar?? The XML code is exactly the same as the one in the example, so I don't really know what is happening. The code in options_menu.xml is this: <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" <item android:id="@+id/new_game" android:title="New Game" / <item android:id="@+id/quit" android:title="Quit" / </menu Thanks in advance for your help!

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• [hibernate - jpa] @CollectionOfElements without create the apposite table

  - by blow

  Hi all. I have this: Municipality class @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; @CollectionOfElements private List<Address> addressList; public Municipality() { } ... Address class @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @Cascade(CascadeType.SAVE_UPDATE) private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Address is embedded in another class Person. When i save an instance of Person, hibernate create 3 tables: PERSON, MUNICIPALITY and MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST. MUNICIPALITY_ADDRESSLIST contains 2 fields: MUNICIPALITY_ID (FK) and STREET. I don't want this table, i only want the ID of table MUNICIPALITY into table PERSON(that embeds Address), what should i do? I tried to add @JoinTable in Municipality entity like this: @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name="person") private List<Address> addressList; It partially worked, but i cant choose the column name of table PERSON that contains ID of the table MUNICIPALITY, it is, by hibernate choose, simply "MUNICIPALITY_ID"... Thbaks.

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• When are SQL views appropriate in ASP.net MVC?

  - by sslepian

  I've got a table called Protocol, a table called Eligibility, and a Protocol_Eligibilty table that maps the two together (a many to many relationship). If I wanted to make a perfect copy of an entry in the Protocol table, and create all the needed mappings in the Protocol_Eligibility table, would using an SQL view be helpful, from a performance standpoint? Protocol will have around 1000 rows, Eligibility will have about 200, and I expect each Protocol to map to about 10 Eligibility rows and each Eligibility to map to over 100 rows in Protocol. Here's how I'm doing this with the view: var pel_original = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Protocol_Eligibility_View where pel.pid == id select pel); Protocol_Eligibility newEligibility; foreach (var pel_item in pel_original) { newEligibility = new Protocol_Eligibility(); newEligibility.Eligibility = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Eligibility where pel.ID == pel_item.eid select pel).First(); newEligibility.Protocol = newProtocol; newEligibility.ordering = pel_item.ordering; _documentDataModel.AddToProtocol_Eligibility(newEligibility); } And this is without the view: var pel_original = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Protocol_Eligibility where pel.Protocol.ID == id select pel); Protocol_Eligibility newEligibility; foreach (var pel_item in pel_original) { pel_item.EligibilityReference.Load(); newEligibility = new Protocol_Eligibility(); newEligibility.Eligibility = pel_item.Eligibility; newEligibility.Protocol = newProtocol; newEligibility.ordering = pel_item.ordering; _documentDataModel.AddToProtocol_Eligibility(newEligibility); }

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• How to bind "rest" variables to list of values in macro in Scheme

  - by Slartibartfast

  I want to make a helper macro for writing match-extensions. I have something like this: (define-match-expander my-expander (? (stx) (let* ([dat (cdr (syntax-e stx))] [var1 (car dat))] [var2 (cadr dat)]) ;transformer goes here ))) So I wanted a macro that will do this let binding. I've started with something like this: (define-syntax-rule (define-my-expander (id vars ...) body) (define-match-expander id (? (stx) (match-let ([(vars ...) (cdr (syntax-e stx))]) body)))) but match-let isn't defined in transformation time. First question would be is there any other way of doing this (making this expanders, I mean)? Maybe there is already something similar in plt-scheme that I'm not aware of, or I'm doing it wrong in some way. Regardless of answer on the first question, if I ever want to bound list of variables to list of values inside of a macro, how should I do it? EDIT: In combination with Eli's answer macro now looks like this: (define-syntax-rule (define-my-expander (id vars ...) body) (define-match-expander id (? (stx) (syntax-case stx () [(_ vars ...) body]))))

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• security deleting a mysql row with jQuery $.post

  - by FFish

  I want to delete a row in my database and found an example on how to do this with jQuery's $.post() Now I am wondering about security though.. Can someone send a POST request to my delete-row.php script from another website? JS function deleterow(id) { // alert(typeof(id)); // number if (confirm('Are you sure want to delete?')) { $.post('delete-row.php', {album_id:+id, ajax:'true'}, function() { $("#row_"+id).fadeOut("slow"); }); } } PHP: delete-row.php <?php require_once("../db.php"); mysql_connect(DB_SERVER, DB_USER, DB_PASSWORD) or die("could not connect to database " . mysql_error()); mysql_select_db(DB_NAME) or die("could not select database " . mysql_error()); if (isset($_POST['album_id'])) { $query = "DELETE FROM albums WHERE album_id = " . $_POST['album_id']; $result = mysql_query($query); if (!$result) die('Invalid query: ' . mysql_error()); echo "album deleted!"; } ?>

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• gridviev add new row problem

  - by Dominating

  My relation is from two tables - table A and table B. B has fk ID pointing to A.ID. In gridview for sourse i have choosen A. When I append new row in A its ok.. But with this action I want to add new row in B too and init it with some values which are copies from row number Row given as argument in PasteCopy private void PasteCopy(int Row) { XPDataTableObject forCopy = gridView1.GetRow(Row) as XPDataTableObject; gridViewEcnMaster.AddNewRow(); XPDataTableObject toCopy = gridView1.GetRow(GridControl.NewItemRowHandle) as XPDataTableObject; SetA(forCopy);// working SetB(ref toCopy, forCopy); XPDataTableObject toCopy1 = gridView1.GetFocusedRow() as XPDataTableObject; XPCollection historyForCopy = toCopy1.GetMemberValue("FK___B__ID") as XPCollection; foreach (XPDataTableObject item in historyForCopy) { MessageBox.Show(item.GetMemberValue("USER").ToString()); } } public void SetB(ref XPDataTableObject toCopy, XPDataTableObject forCopy) { XPCollection historyToCopy = toCopy.GetMemberValue("FK__B__ID") as XPCollection; XPCollection historyForCopy = forCopy.GetMemberValue("FK__B__ID") as XPCollection; XPClassInfo cinfo = session.GetClassInfo(typeof(SPM_ECN_DataSet.BDataTable)); foreach (XPDataTableObject item in historyForCopy) { XPDataTableObject historyRecord = new XPDataTableObject(session, cinfo); historyRecord.SetMemberValue("USER", GetCurWinUser().ToString()); historyRecord.SetMemberValue("ID", forCopy.GetMemberValue("ID"));//if not set == null historyToCopy.Add(historyRecord); } } public void SetA(XPDataTableObject forCopy) { gridView1.SetFocusedRowCellValue("VERSION", 1); } What is wrong with this? why its locking all my application after i do this?

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• Show hide DIVs : jQuery

  - by Muhammad Sajid

  Hi, I have two links & I want to show / hide them one at a time, my code is : <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script class="jsbin" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // we will add our javascript code here $(document).ready(function() { $(function(){ $('#link').click(function(){ $('#colorDiv').slideToggle('slow'); return false; }); }); }); </script> <meta charset=utf-8 /> <title>JS Bin</title> <!--[if IE]> <script src="http://html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js"></script> <![endif]--> <style> #dv { width:100px; height:100px; border:1px solid; } </style> </head> <body> <table cellspacing="2"> <tr><td><a href="#" id="link">Color</a></td><td><a href="#" id="link">Car</a></td></tr> <tr><td><div id="colorDiv">Red</div></td><td><div id="carDiv">PRADO</div></td></tr> </table> </body> </html> by default first div should me shown. hanks.

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• DataTable throwing exception on RejectChanges

  - by Vale

  I found this bug while working with a DataTable. I added a primary key column to a DataTable, than added one row to that table, removed that row, and added row with the same key to the table. This works. When I tried to call RejectChanges() on it, I got ConstraintException saying that value is already present. Here is the example: var dataTable = new DataTable(); var column = new DataColumn("ID", typeof(decimal)); dataTable.Columns.Add(column); dataTable.PrimaryKey = new [] {column }; decimal id = 1; var oldRow = dataTable.NewRow(); oldRow[column] = id; dataTable.Rows.Add(oldRow); dataTable.AcceptChanges(); oldRow.Delete(); var newRow = dataTable.NewRow(); newRow[column] = id; dataTable.Rows.Add(newRow); dataTable.RejectChanges(); // This is where it crashes I think since the row is deleted, exception should not be thrown (constraint is not violated because row is in deleted state). Is there something I can do about this? Any help is appreciated.

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• NHibernate Oracle stored procedure problem

  - by Mr. Flint

  ------Using VS2008, ASP.Net with C#, Oracle, NHibernate---- I have tested my stored procedure. It's working but not with NHibernate. Here are the codes: Procedure : create or replace procedure ThanaDelete (id number) as begin delete from thana_tbl where thana_code = id; end Mapping File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="DataTransfer" namespace="DataTransfer"> <class name="DataTransfer.Models.Thana, DataTransfer" table="THANA_TBL"> <id name="THANA_CODE" column="THANA_CODE" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native"> <param name="sequence"> SEQ_TEST </param> </generator> </id> <property name="THANA_NAME" column="THANA_NAME" type="string" not-null="false"/> <property name="DISTRICT_CODE" column="DISTRICT_CODE" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="USER_ID" column="USER_ID" type="string" not-null="false"/> <property name="TRANSACTION_DATE" column="TRANSACTION_DATE" type="Date" not-null="false"/> <property name="TRANSACTION_TIME" column="TRANSACTION_TIME" type="string" not-null="false"/> <sql-delete>exec THANADELETE ? </sql-delete> </class> </hibernate-mapping> error: Message: could not delete: [DataTransfer.Models.Thana#10][SQL: exec THANADELETE ?] Source: NHibernate Inner Exception System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException Message: ORA-00900: invalid SQL statement

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• Changing html content of a div before and after ajax request

  - by R27

  I am trying to change the button "ADD" (in a div) to some text/img as soon as it is clicked. And after the ajax request is processed, in the success block , I want the div to get the button back. I see the ajax request is itself not getting processed. Can someone explain whats my mistake. I just removed the jsfiddle link and pasting the script here to avoid confusion about the dependencies. JS script var ajax_load = "Please wait..."; jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#add_button").click(function(event){ var st = $("#add_div").html(); $("#add_div").html(ajax_load); $("#sform").validate({ errorClass: "error", submitHandler: function (form) { alert('inside submit'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'form.cgi', data: $("#sform").serialize(), success: function (msg) { alert('msg'); $("#add_div").html(st); $("#sform")[0].reset(); } }); } }); }); }); And the html piece is <form id=sform>LABEL <input id=field1 type=text> <div id="add_div"> <input type="button" value="ADD" id="add_button"> </div> </form> I have jquery.validate.min.js script included.

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• NHibernate CreateSqlQuery and object graph

  - by magellings

  Hello I'm a newbie to NHibernate. I'd like to make one sql query to the database using joins to my three tables. I have an Application with many Roles with many Users. I'm trying to get NHibernate to properly form the object graph starting with the Application object. For example, if I have 10 application records, I want 10 application objects and then those objects have their roles which have their users. What I'm getting however resembles a Cartesian product in which I have as many Application objects as total User records. I've looked into this quite a bit and am not sure if it is possible to form the application hierarchy correctly. I can only get the flattened objects to come back. It seems "maybe" possible as in my research I've read about "grouped joins" and "hierarchical output" with an upcoming LINQ to NHibernate release. Again though I'm a newbie. [Update Based on Frans comment in Ayende's post here I'm guessing what I want to do is not possible http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2008/12/01/solving-the-select-n1-problem.aspx ] Thanks for you time in advance. Session.CreateSQLQuery(@"SELECT a.ID, a.InternalName, r.ID, r.ApplicationID, r.Name, u.UserID, u.RoleID FROM dbo.[Application] a JOIN dbo.[Roles] r ON a.ID = r.ApplicationID JOIN dbo.[UserRoleXRef] u ON u.RoleID = r.ID") .AddEntity("app", typeof(RightsBasedSecurityApplication)) .AddJoin("role", "app.Roles") .AddJoin("user", "role.RightsUsers") .List<RightsBasedSecurityApplication>().AsQueryable();

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• Highlighting a piechart slice from an HTML element (mouseover)

  - by nickhar

  I have a series of HTML table cells with data - an example of which is: <tr id="rrow1"> <td> <a href="/electricity" class="category">Electricity</a> </td> <td> 901.471 </td> </tr> <tr id="rrow2">... <tr id="rrow3">... etc In this case, each <tr> (or hypathetically for the wider community a div/span/tr/td) is assigned a sequential id based on $rrow++; in a while loop (in PHP). I also have a Piechart using the highcharts library, where i'd like to highlight the slice (sliced: true) based upon onmouseover of particular div/span/tr/td element - in this case #rrow1 as above, but multiple/iterative elements as required and (sliced: false) onmouseout... As a simple example, I've tried accessing various derivatives of the following, but failed: $('#rrow1').mouseover(function() { chart.series[0].graph.attr('sliced', true); }); $('#rrow1').mouseout(function() { chart.series[0].graph.attr('sliced', false); }); The nearest I've found is this but bastardised at most and without success: plotOptions: { series: { mouseOver: function() { if( $('#rrow1').mouseover ) series.x = sliced: true; }, mouseOut: function() { if( $('#rrow1').mouseout ) series.x = sliced: false; } } } These are far from approaching correct and despite searching I can't find a valid/helpful example to work from or draw direction. You can view the pie chart in question on jsfiddle here.

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• Hiding Opetions of a Selection with JQuery

  - by Syed Abdul Rahman

  Okay, let's start with an example. <select id = "selection1">     <option value = "1" id = "1">Number 1</option>     <option value = "2" id = "2">Number 2</option>     <option value = "3" id = "3">Number 3</option> </select> Now from here, we have a dropdown with 3 options. What I want to do now is to hide an option. Adding style = "display:none" will not help. The option would not appear in the dropdownlist, but using the arrow keys, you can still select it. Essentially, it does exactly what the code says. It isn't displayed, and it stops there. A JQuery function of $("1").hide() will not work. Plus, I don't only want to hide the option, I want to completely remove it. Any possibility on doing so? Do I have to use parent/sibling/child elements? If so, I'm still not sure how. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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• Authentication using cookie key with asynchronous callback

  - by greg

  I need to write authentication function with asynchronous callback from remote Auth API. Simple authentication with login is working well, but authorization with cookie key, does not work. It should checks if in cookies present key "lp_login", fetch API url like async and execute on_response function. The code almost works, but I see two problems. First, in on_response function I need to setup secure cookie for authorized user on every page. In code user_id returns correct ID, but line: self.set_secure_cookie("user", user_id) does't work. Why it can be? And second problem. During async fetch API url, user's page has loaded before on_response setup cookie with key "user" and the page will has an unauthorized section with link to login or sign on. It will be confusing for users. To solve it, I can stop loading page for user who trying to load first page of site. Is it possible to do and how? Maybe the problem has more correct way to solve it? class BaseHandler(tornado.web.RequestHandler): @tornado.web.asynchronous def get_current_user(self): user_id = self.get_secure_cookie("user") user_cookie = self.get_cookie("lp_login") if user_id: self.set_secure_cookie("user", user_id) return Author.objects.get(id=int(user_id)) elif user_cookie: url = urlparse("http://%s" % self.request.host) domain = url.netloc.split(":")[0] try: username, hashed_password = urllib.unquote(user_cookie).rsplit(',',1) except ValueError: # check against malicious clients return None else: url = "http://%s%s%s/%s/" % (domain, "/api/user/username/", username, hashed_password) http = tornado.httpclient.AsyncHTTPClient() http.fetch(url, callback=self.async_callback(self.on_response)) else: return None def on_response(self, response): answer = tornado.escape.json_decode(response.body) username = answer['username'] if answer["has_valid_credentials"]: author = Author.objects.get(email=answer["email"]) user_id = str(author.id) print user_id # It returns needed id self.set_secure_cookie("user", user_id) # but session can's setup

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• Assigning Datasource to a region

  - by minal

  Hi, I was wondering if there is an existing control that I could use to achieve what I am trying. Basically, I have a html table that I display my header information. It looks something like this: <table class="tableEdit"> <tr> <th>Job ID</th><td>10</td> <th>Client</th><td>Tom</td> </tr> <tr> <th>Comments</th><td>Comments are here</td> </tr> </table> I am wondering if there is an existing control that I can use as a container. Then I can assign the datasource to that control and leverage the field values as such. <asp:Somecontrol runat="server" ID="someid"> <table class="tableEdit"> <tr> <th>Job ID</th><td><%# Eval("Id") %></td> <th>Client</th><td><%# Eval("Client.Name") %></td> </tr> <tr> <th>Comments</th><td><%# Eval("Comments") %></td> </tr> </table> </asp:Somecontrol> private void BindHeader() { SomeObjectType data = DAL.SomeMethod(); someid.Datasource = data; someid.DataBind(); } Is there anything out there to do this? I want to be able to control the layout of the fields within the container. Thanks.

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• making check boxes clickable once in javascript?

  - by OVERTONE

  Sorry but im an absolute noob with javascript. Ive made a form for a simple quiz but cant figure out how to make radio's only click once. I can select two or three buttons as my answer. i want to change this. <form name = "Beginners Quiz"> <p>Film speed refers to:</p> <p><input type="radio" name="Answer 1" id="Answer1" value = "a" onclick = "recordAnswer(1,this.value"/>How long it takes to develop film. <br/> <p><input type="radio" name="Answer 2" id="Answer2" value = "b" onclick = "recordAnswer(1,this.value"/>How fast film moves through film-transport system. <br/> <p><input type="radio" name="Answer 3" id="Answer3" value = "c" onclick = "recordAnswer(1,this.value"/> How sensitive the film is to light. <br/> <p><input type="radio" name="Answer 4" id="Answer4" value = "d" onclick = "recordAnswer(1,this.value"/> None of these makes sense. <br/> ive been rooting around w3shcools tutorials to no avail. can someone shed some light?

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• Using Constraints on Hierarchical Data in a Self-Referential Table

  - by pbarney

  Suppose you have the following table, intended to represent hierarchical data: +--------+-------------+ | Field | Type | +--------+-------------+ | id | int(10) | | parent | int(10) | | name | varchar(45) | +--------+-------------+ The table is self-referential in that the parent_id refers to id. So you might have the following data: +----+--------+---------------+ | id | parent | name | +----+--------+---------------+ | 1 | 0 | fruit | | 2 | 0 | vegetable | | 3 | 1 | apple | | 4 | 1 | orange | | 5 | 3 | red delicious | | 6 | 3 | granny smith | | 7 | 3 | gala | +----+--------+---------------+ Using MySQL, I am trying to impose a (self-referential) foreign key constraint upon the data to update on cascades and prevent deletion of fruit if they have "children." So I used the following: CREATE TABLE `idtlp_main`.`fruit` ( `id` INT(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `parent` INT(10) UNSIGNED, `name` VARCHAR(45) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE ON DELETE RESTRICT ) ENGINE = InnoDB; From what I understand, this should fit my requirements. (And parent must default to null to allow insertions, correct?) The problem is, if I change the id of a record, it will not cascade: Cannot delete or update a parent row: a foreign key constraint fails (`iddoc_main`.`fruit`, CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE) What am I missing? Feel free to correct me if my terminology is screwed up... I'm new to constraints.

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• Cookie not renewing/overwriting in IE

  - by deceze

  I have a weird quirk with cookies in IE. When a user logs into the site, I'm generating a new session id and hence need to overwrite the cookie. The flow is basically: Client goes to https://secure.example.com/users/login page, automatically receiving a session id Client POSTs login credentials to same address Client receives the following headers together with a 302 redirect to https://secure.example.com/users/mypage: CAKEPHP=deleted; expires=Sun, 05-Apr-2009 04:50:35 GMT; path=/ CAKEPHP=98hnIO23...; expires=Mon, 12 Apr 2010 04:50:36 GMT; path=/; secure Client is supposed to visit https://secure.example.com/users/mypage, presenting the new session id. This works in all browsers, except IE (tested in 7 & 8). IE retains the old, unauthenticated session id, and is redirected back to the login page. It works on my local test environment (using a self-signed certificate at https://localhost:8443/...), but not on the live server. I'm using CakePHP and simply issue a $this->Session->renew(), which produces the above cookie headers. Any ideas how to get IE to accept the new cookie?

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• Generating MySQL UPDATE statements containing BLOB image data

  - by Bob

  I'm trying to write an SQL statement that will generate an SQL script that will update a BLOB field with an IMAGE being selected from the database. This is what I have: select concat( 'UPDATE `IMAGE` SET THUMBNAIL = ', QUOTE( THUMBNAIL ), ' WHERE ID = ', ID, ';' ) as UPDATE_STATEMENT from IMAGE; In the above, THUMBNAIL is a BLOB field containing raw image data. When I run the resulting script I get the following error: ERROR at line 2: Unknown command '\\'. I first tried this without the QUOTE() function, like so: select concat( 'UPDATE `IMAGE` SET THUMBNAIL = \'', THUMBNAIL, '\' WHERE ID = ', ID, ';' ) as UPDATE_STATEMENT from IMAGE; Running the resulting script produces this error: ERROR at line 2: Unknown command '\0'. What is the proper function to apply to this BLOB field in the select, so the UPDATE statements will work? If context is required, I'm looking to migrate thumbnails generated on one server to another server for certain image IDs only. I would use mysqldump, but I don't want to clobber the entire table. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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• What's the difference between the input type "text" and "password" in an html form?

  - by Domingo

  Hi everybody, this question might seem stupid, but here's the situation: I'm trying to create an auto login page for my mail using jquery's post request, but it's not working, it works with all other pages except with webmail. So, trying to figure out what was wrong, I recreated the login form, here's the code: <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action="https://login.hostmonster.com/"> <label>User <input type="text" name="login" id="user" /> </label> <label>Pass <input name="password" type="password" id="pass" /> </label> <input name="doLogin" type="submit" id="doLogin" value="Login"> </form> The strange thing is when you change the input type of pass to text, the form doesn't work! I can't figure out why. Anyway, if you can tell me what's the real difference between the input type text and password (and not what it says everywhere on the net that the only difference is that when you type stars appear instead of characters) I would appreciate it. Also, do you think this is affecting my jquery's post? Here's the code for it: $j.post('https://login.hostmonster.com/', { login: '[email protected]', password: 'xxx' }, function(data, text){ if (text=='success') { alert('Success '+data); } else { alert('Failed'); } }); Thanks a lot! Regards, D

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• Cross-reference js-object variables when creating object

  - by Ivar Bonsaksen

  Summary: I want to know if it is possible to do something like this: {a: 'A',b: this.a} ...by using some other pointer like {a: 'A',b: self.a} or {a: 'A',b: own.a} or anything else... Full question: I'm trying to extend MyBaseModule using Ext.extend, and need to cross-reference values in the extension object passed to Ext.extend(). Since I'm not yet in context of MyModule, I'm not able to use this to reference the object (See example below line 12). Is there any other way to reference values like this without creating the object first? 1 MyModule = Ext.extend(MyBaseModule, { 2 dataStores: { 3 myDataStore: new Ext.data.Store({...}) 4 }, 5 6 myGridDefinition: { 7 id: 'myGridDefinitionPanel', 8 bodyBorder: false, 9 items: [{ 10 xtype: 'grid', 11 id: 'myGridDefinitionGrid', 12 store: this.dataStores.myDataStore 13 }] 14 } 15 }); Or is the following the only solution? I would like to avoid this if possible, as I find it less readable for large extension definitions. 1 var extensionObject = { 2 dataStores: { 3 myDataStore: new Ext.data.Store({...}) 4 }, 5 6 myGridDefinition: { 7 id: 'myGridDefinitionPanel', 8 bodyBorder: false, 9 items: [{ 10 xtype: 'grid', 11 id: 'myGridDefinitionGrid' 12 }] 13 } 14 }; 15 16 extensionObject.locationsGrid.items[0].store = extensionObject.dataStores.locations; 17 18 MyModule = Ext.extend(MyBaseModule, extensionObject);

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• Is CakePhp 'standards compliant' when generating HTML, Forms, etc?

  - by dtj

  So I've been reading a lot of "Designing with Web Standards" and really enjoying it. I'm a big CakePhp user, and as I look at the source for various form elements that Cake creates with its FormHelper, I see all sorts of extraneous In the book, he promotes semantic HTML, and writing your markup as simple / generic as possible. So my question is, am I better writing my own HTML in these situations? I really want to work in compliance with XHTML and CSS standards, and it seems I'd spend just as much time (if not more) cleaning up Cakes HTML, when I could just write my own thoughts? p.s. Here's an example in an out of the box form that CakePhp generates using the FormHelper <form id="CompanyAddForm" method="post" action="/omni_cake/companies/add" accept-charset="utf-8"><div style="display:none;"><input type="hidden" name="_method" value="POST" /></div> <div class="input text required"><label for="CompanyName">Name</label><input name="data[Company][name]" type="text" maxlength="50" id="CompanyName" /></div> <div class="input text required"><label for="CompanyWebsite">Website</label><input name="data[Company][website]" type="text" maxlength="50" id="CompanyWebsite" /></div> <div class="input textarea"><label for="CompanyNotes">Notes</label><textarea name="data[Company][notes]" cols="30" rows="6" id="CompanyNotes" ></textarea></div> <div class="submit"><input type="submit" value="Submit" /></div></form>

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• SQL select row into a string variable without knowing columns

  - by Brandi

  Hello, I am new to writing SQL and would greatly appreciate help on this problem. :) I am trying to select an entire row into a string, preferably separated by a space or a comma. I would like to accomplish this in a generic way, without having to know specifics about the columns in the tables. What I would love to do is this: DECLARE @MyStringVar NVARCHAR(MAX) = '' @MyStringVar = SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE ID = @ID AS STRING But what I ended up doing was this: DECLARE @MyStringVar = '' DECLARE @SecificField1 INT DECLARE @SpecificField2 NVARCHAR(255) DECLARE @SpecificField3 NVARCHAR(1000) ... SELECT @SpecificField1 = Field1, @SpecificField2 = Field2, @SpecificField3 = Field3 FROM MyTable WHERE ID = @ID SELECT @StringBuilder = @StringBuilder + CONVERT(nvarchar(10), @Field1) + ' ' + @Field2 + ' ' + @Field3 Yuck. :( I have seen some people post stuff about the COALESCE function, but again, I haven't seen anyone use it without specific column names. Also, I was thinking, perhaps there is a way to use the column names dynamically getting them by: SELECT [COLUMN_NAME] FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'MyTable' It really doesn't seem like this should be so complicated. :( What I did works for now, but thanks ahead of time to anyone who can point me to a better solution. :) EDIT: Got it fixed, thanks to everyone who answered. :)

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• Use jQuery to find and add an image tooltip

  - by lund.mikkel

  Hey people Okay, what I'm trying to accomplish is a simple tool tip that, when you hover over the name of a color, shows a little image of that color. The html markup looks like this: <label class="colorPicker"> <input type="radio" checked="" id="20" value="20" name="id[2]"> <img width="16" height="16" title=" DinoBlack Mat " alt="DinoBlack Mat" src="images/attributes/color/dinoblack_mat.jpg">DinoBlack Mat </label> <label class="colorPicker"> <input type="radio" id="874" value="874" name="id[2]"> <img width="16" height="16" title="XrayBlue shiny" alt="XrayBlue shiny" src="images/attributes/color/xrayblue_shiny.jpg">XrayBlue shiny </label> I'm using the jQuery plugin "Tooltip" and I've added following to my main js-file: $('.colorPicker').tooltip({ track: true, delay: 0, showURL: false, fade: 250, bodyHandler: function() { return $("<img/>").attr("src", [THE SOURCE FOR THE IMAGE]); } }); The idea is simply that the image should be hidden by default. But when you hover over the text the little thumbnail shows up and makes it easy to recognize the color. The problem is I haven't got a clue how to get the src for the thumbnail. I don't know how to extract the src from the img inside the selected element. I've tried various combinations using the this keyword, but nothing seemed to work. I've also tried to add the src path as a rel attribute to the label, but also without any success. Should be needless to say I also control the PHP-output... I really hope you can help me. I've search the web for days without any luck. I'm getting desperate :D /Mikkel Lund

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• How to call Android contacts list?

  - by aZn137

  Hi, I'm making an Android app, and need to call the phone's contact list. I need to call the contacts list function, pick a contact, then return to my app with the contact's name. Here's the code I got on the internet, but it doesnt work. Please help: import android.app.ListActivity; import android.content.Intent; import android.database.Cursor; import android.os.Bundle; import android.provider.Contacts.People; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ListAdapter; import android.widget.ListView; import android.widget.SimpleCursorAdapter; import android.widget.TextView; public class Contacts extends ListActivity { private ListAdapter mAdapter; public TextView pbContact; public static String PBCONTACT; public static final int ACTIVITY_EDIT=1; private static final int ACTIVITY_CREATE=0; // Called when the activity is first created. @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); Cursor C = getContentResolver().query(People.CONTENT_URI, null, null, null, null); startManagingCursor(C); String[] columns = new String[] {People.NAME}; int[] names = new int[] {R.id.row_entry}; mAdapter = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.mycontacts, C, columns, names); setListAdapter(mAdapter); } // end onCreate() // Called when contact is pressed @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); Cursor C = (Cursor) mAdapter.getItem(position); PBCONTACT = C.getString(C.getColumnIndex(People.NAME)); // RHS 05/06 //pbContact = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.myContact); //pbContact.setText(new StringBuilder().append("b")); Intent i = new Intent(this, NoteEdit.class); startActivityForResult(i, ACTIVITY_CREATE); } }

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