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• How is a relative JMP (x86) implemented in an Assembler?

  - by Pindatjuh

  While building my assembler for the x86 platform I encountered some problems with encoding the JMP instruction: enc inst size in bytes EB cb JMP rel8 2 E9 cw JMP rel16 4 (because of 0x66 16-bit prefix) E9 cd JMP rel32 5 ... (from my favourite x86 instruction website, http://siyobik.info/index.php?module=x86&id=147) All are relative jumps, where the size of each encoding (operation + operand) is in the third column. Now my original (and thus fault because of this) design reserved the maximum (5 bytes) space for each instruction. The operand is not yet known, because it's a jump to a yet unknown location. So I've implemented a "rewrite" mechanism, that rewrites the operands in the correct location in memory, if the location of the jump is known, and fills the rest with NOPs. This is a somewhat serious concern in tight-loops. Now my problem is with the following situation: b: XXX c: JMP a e: XXX ... XXX d: JMP b a: XXX (where XXX is any instruction, depending on the to-be assembled program) The problem is that I want the smallest possible encoding for a JMP instruction (and no NOP filling). I have to know the size of the instruction at c before I can calculate the relative distance between a and b for the operand at d. The same applies for the JMP at c: it needs to know the size of d before it can calculate the relative distance between e and a. How do existing assemblers implement this, or how would you implement this? This is what I am thinking which solves the problem: First encode all the instructions to opcodes between the JMP and it's target, and if this region contains a variable-sized opcode, use the maximum size, i.e. 5 for JMP. Then in some conditions, the JMP is oversized (because it may fit in a smaller encoding): so another pass will search for oversized JMPs, shrink them, and move all instructions ahead), and set absolute branching instructions (i.e. external CALLs) after this pass is completed. I wonder, perhaps this is an over-engineered solution, that's why I ask this question.

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• passing an array of structures (containing two mpz_t numbers) to a function

  - by jerome

  Hello, I'm working on some project where I use the type mpz_t from the GMP C library. I have some problems passing an array of structures (containing mpz_ts) adress to a function : I wille try to explain my problem with some code. So here is the structure : struct mpz_t2{ mpz_t a; mpz_t b; }; typedef struct mpz_t2 *mpz_t2; void petit_test(mpz_t2 *test[]) { printf("entering petit test function\n"); for (int i=0; i < 4; i++) { gmp_printf("test[%d]->a = %Zd and test[%d]->b = %Zd\n", test[i]->a, test[i]->b); } } /* IN MAIN FUNCTION */ mpz_t2 *test = malloc(4 * sizeof(mpz_t2 *)); for (int i=0; i < 4; i++) { mpz_t2_init(&test[i]); // if I pass test[i] : compiler error mpz_set_ui(test[i].a, i); //if test[i]->a compiler error mpz_set_ui(test[i].b, i*10); //same problem gmp_printf("%Zd\n", test[i].b); //prints correct result } petit_test(test); The programm prints the expected result (in main) but after entering the petit_test function produces a segmentation fault error. I would need to edit the mpz_t2 structure array in petit_test. I tried some other ways allocating and passing the array to the function but I didn't manage to get this right. If someone has a solution to this problem, I would be very thankfull! Regards, jérôme.

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• Avoiding anemic domain model - a real example

  - by cbp

  I am trying to understand Anemic Domain Models and why they are supposedly an anti-pattern. Here is a real world example. I have an Employee class, which has a ton of properties - name, gender, username, etc public class Employee { public string Name { get; set; } public string Gender { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } // Etc.. mostly getters and setters } Next we have a system that involves rotating incoming phone calls and website enquiries (known as 'leads') evenly amongst sales staff. This system is quite complex as it involves round-robining enquiries, checking for holidays, employee preferences etc. So this system is currently seperated out into a service: EmployeeLeadRotationService. public class EmployeeLeadRotationService : IEmployeeLeadRotationService { private IEmployeeRepository _employeeRepository; // ...plus lots of other injected repositories and services public void SelectEmployee(ILead lead) { // Etc. lots of complex logic } } Then on the backside of our website enquiry form we have code like this: public void SubmitForm() { var lead = CreateLeadFromFormInput(); var selectedEmployee = Kernel.Get<IEmployeeLeadRotationService>() .SelectEmployee(lead); Response.Write(employee.Name + " will handle your enquiry. Thanks."); } I don't really encounter many problems with this approach, but supposedly this is something that I should run screaming from because it is an Anemic Domain Model. But for me its not clear where the logic in the lead rotation service should go. Should it go in the lead? Should it go in the employee? What about all the injected repositories etc that the rotation service requires - how would they be injected into the employee, given that most of the time when dealing with an employee we don't need any of these repositories?

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• oracle sequence init

  - by gospodin

  I wanted to export 3 tables from db1 into db2. Before the export starts, I will create the sequences for those 3 tables. CREATE SEQUENCE TEST_SEQ START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; After the export, I will reinitialize sequnce values to match the max(id) + 1 from the table. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "TEST_SEQUENCE" AUTHID CURRENT_USER is v_num number; begin select max(ID) into v_num from TABLE_1; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'ALTER SEQUENCE TEST_SEQ INCREMENT BY ' || v_num; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'ALTER SEQUENCE 1TEST_SEQ INCREMENT BY 1'; end; / show errors; execute TEST_SEQ; This procedure compiles and executes without problems. But when I want to check t he last value of the sequence, like select TEST_SEQ.nextval from dual; I still get the "1". Can someone tell me why my procedure did not impact my sequence? ps. I am using oracle sql developper to pass sql. Thanks

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• MongoDB - proper use of collections?

  - by zmg

  In Mongo my understanding is that you can have databases and collections. I'm working on a social-type app that will have blogs and comments (among other things) and had previously be using MySQL and pretty heavy partitioning in an attempt to limit possible concurrency issues. With MySQL I've stuffed all my user data into a _user database with several tables to further partition the data (blogs, pages, etc). My immediate reaction with Mongo would be to create a 'users' database with one collection per user. In this way user 'zach' blog entries would go into the 'zach' collection with associated comments and such becoming sub-objects in the same collection. Basically like dynamically creating one table per user in MySQL, but apparently without the complexity and limitations that might impose. Of course since I haven't really used Mongo before I'm having trouble gauging the (ahem..) quality of this idea and the potential problems it might cause down the road. I'd like user data to be treated a lot like a users directory in a *nix environment where user created/non-shared (mostly) gets put into one place (currently with MySQL that would be the appname_users as mentioned above). Most of the users data will be specific to the users page(s). Some of the user data which is queried across all site users (searchable user profiles) is currently kept in a separate database/table and I expect things like this could be put into a appname_system database and be broken up into collections and/or application specific databases (appname_profiles). Anyway, since the available documentation on this is currently a little thin and my experience is extremely limited I thought I might find a little guidance from someone with a better working understanding of the system. On the plus side I'd really already been attempting to treat MySQL as a schema-less document-store and doing this with Mongo seems much more intuitive/sane/rational so I'm really looking forward to getting started. Thanks, Zach

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• How do I tell gcc to relax its restrictions on typecasting when calling a C function from C++?

  - by Daryl Spitzer

  I'm trying to use Cmockery to mock C functions called from C++ code. Because the SUT is in C++, my tests need to be in C++. When I use the Cmockery expect_string() macro like this: expect_string(mock_function, url, "Foo"); I get: my_tests.cpp: In function ‘void test_some_stuff(void**)’: my_tests.cpp:72: error: invalid conversion from ‘void*’ to ‘const char*’ my_tests.cpp:72: error: initializing argument 5 of ‘void _expect_string(const char*, const char*, const char*, int, const char*, int)’ I see in cmockery.h that expect_string is defined: #define expect_string(function, parameter, string) \ expect_string_count(function, parameter, string, 1) #define expect_string_count(function, parameter, string, count) \ _expect_string(#function, #parameter, __FILE__, __LINE__, (void*)string, \ count) And here's the prototype for _expect_string (from cmockery.h): void _expect_string( const char* const function, const char* const parameter, const char* const file, const int line, const char* string, const int count); I believe the problem is that I'm compiling C code as C++, so the C++ compiler is objecting to (void*)string in the expect_string_count macro being passed as the const char* string parameter to the _expect_string() function. I've already used extern "C" around the cmockery.h include in my_tests.cpp like this: extern "C" { #include <cmockery.h> } ...in order to get around name-mangling problems. (See "How do I compile and link C++ code with compiled C code?") Is there a command-line option or some other means of telling g++ how to relax its restrictions on typecasting from my test's C++ code to the C function in cmockery.c? This is the command I'm currently using to build my_tests.cpp: g++ -m32 -I ../cmockery-0.1.2 -c my_tests.cpp -o $(obj_dir)/my_tests.o

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• I installed XAMPP in a virtual drive and now I can't run its services. Why?

  - by Haris

  Hi, The description is quite long. Please spend some time to read it. ^:)^ I have an old PHP application and I'm trying to test and debug it. Unfortunately, the application uses important data so I can't just click this and that. Now, what I'm trying to do is create a copy of the application in a different computer. From now on, I will call the computer running my original PHP application as 'Computer A' and the computer which I'm going to use to run the copy of the application as 'Computer B'. To prevent missing link problems since the application contains static paths, such in images or tags, I have to copy all files and folder related to my PHP application from Computer A to the same path in Computer B. Unfortunately, Computer B only has drive C while Computer A has drive D and the files of my PHP application is located in 'D:\xampp\htdocs' in Computer A. OK, now I have to create drive D in computer B. At first, I tried to create a second partition in Computer B by using PowerQuest Partition Magic 8, but somehow Partition Magic doesn't run in Computer B. I have tried to reinstall it but it still doesn't run. So, another alternative is to create a virtual drive. That is what I did. I created a virtual drive by running the 'subst' command in Command Prompt. The virtual drive is D and it refers to a directory, which is 'C:\Virtual'. After I have drive D in Computer B, I installed XAMPP there. The installation was successful. Now, I also have 'D:\xampp\htdocs' in Computer B. However, when I ran the Apache, MySQL, or Filezilla service, I receive an error message "Error 3: The system cannot find the file specified.". In Computer B, there is no IIS or process using the port 80. What should I do? Please help me. Many thanks in advance, Haris

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• How do I reset a form in an ajax callback?

  - by B.Gordon

  I am sending a form using simple ajax and returning the results in a div above the form. The problem is that after the form is submitted and validated, I display a thank you and want to reset the form so they don't just press the submit button again... Can't seem to find the right code to do this... <form id="myForm" target="sendemail.php" method="post"> <div id="results"></div> <input type="text" name="value1"> <input type="text" name="value2"> <input type="submit" name="submit"> </form> So, my sendemail.php validation errors and success messages appear in #results without problems. But... when I try to send back a javascript form reset command, it does not work. Naturally I cannot see it in the source code since it is an AJAX callback so I don't know if that is the issue or if I am just using the wrong syntax. echo "<p>Thank you. Your message has been accepted for delivery.</p>"; echo "<script type=\"text/javascript\">setTimeout('document.getElementById('myForm').reset();',1000);</script>"; Any ideas gurus?

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• Add centered text to the middle of a <hr/>-like line

  - by Brian M. Hunt

  I'm wondering what options one has in xhtml 1.0 strict to create a line on both sides of text like-so: Section one ----------------------- Next section ----------------------- Section two I've thought of doing some fancy things like this: <div style="float:left; width: 44%;"><hr/></div> <div style="float:right; width: 44%;"><hr/></div> Next section Or alternatively, because the above has problems with alignment (both vertical and horizontal): <table><tr> <td style="width:47%"><hr/></td> <td style="vertical-align:middle; text-align: center">Next section</td> <td style="width:47%"><hr/></td> </tr></table> However both options feel 'fudgy', and I'd be much obliged if you happened to have seen this before and know of an elegant solution. Thank you for reading. Brian

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• compile Boost as static Universal binary lib

  - by Albert

  I want to have a static Universal binary lib of Boost. (Preferable the latest stable version, that is 1.43.0, or newer.) I found many Google hits with similar problems and possible solutions. However, most of them seems outdated. Also none of them really worked. Right now, I am trying sudo ./bjam --toolset=darwin --link=static --threading=multi \ --architecture=combined --address-model=32_64 \ --macosx-version=10.4 --macosx-version-min=10.4 \ install That compiles and install fine. However, the produced binaries seems broken. az@ip245 47 (openlierox) %file /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a: current ar archive random library az@ip245 49 (openlierox) %lipo -info /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a input file /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a is not a fat file Non-fat file: /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a is architecture: x86_64 az@ip245 48 (openlierox) %otool -hv /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a Archive : /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a(trackable.o): Mach header magic cputype cpusubtype caps filetype ncmds sizeofcmds flags MH_MAGIC_64 X86_64 ALL 0x00 OBJECT 3 1536 SUBSECTIONS_VIA_SYMBOLS /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a(connection.o): Mach header magic cputype cpusubtype caps filetype ncmds sizeofcmds flags MH_MAGIC_64 X86_64 ALL 0x00 OBJECT 3 1776 SUBSECTIONS_VIA_SYMBOLS /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a(named_slot_map.o): Mach header magic cputype cpusubtype caps filetype ncmds sizeofcmds flags MH_MAGIC_64 X86_64 ALL 0x00 OBJECT 3 1856 SUBSECTIONS_VIA_SYMBOLS /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a(signal_base.o): Mach header magic cputype cpusubtype caps filetype ncmds sizeofcmds flags MH_MAGIC_64 X86_64 ALL 0x00 OBJECT 3 1776 SUBSECTIONS_VIA_SYMBOLS /usr/local/lib/libboost_signals.a(slot.o): Mach header magic cputype cpusubtype caps filetype ncmds sizeofcmds flags MH_MAGIC_64 X86_64 ALL 0x00 OBJECT 3 1616 SUBSECTIONS_VIA_SYMBOLS Any suggestion how to get that correct?

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• PHP - "Fat Free Framework" Find Methods and Showing Results in Template

  - by user1672808

  Just started trying the "Fat Free Framework" I'm building a site using a MySQL DB with 265 fields, and 5000+ rows in the DB; I can load() a specific record easily, no problems. When using find(), afind(), and even "select()", template will show blank lines or lines with "filler" text, with the correct number of rows for the query results, but no text/data from the DB itself; Same problem whether using objects or simply arrays from result (afind() and find()). I've copied/pasted the code verbatim from examples and from documentation, with only the DB specific items changed. Still, no luck. CODE IN PHP FILE (function from CLASS): static function home() { $featured=new Axon('boats'); $F3::set('boatlist',$featured->afind('D_CustomerID=173')); F3::set('content',TEMPLATE_DIR .'/home.html'); echo Template::serve(TEMPLATE_DIR .'/layout.html'); } TEMPLATE home.html: <div class="span8"> <h3> Featured Boats </h3> <F3:repeat group="{{@boatlist}}" value="{{@boat}}"> <div style="margin-left: 2em" class="thumbnails"> <p> <a href="boat/{{@boat['D_BoatNum']}}">{{trim(@boat['D_Description'])}}</a> by {{@boat['D_CustomerID']}} </p> <p> {{@boat['D_Price']}} </p> </div> </F3:repeat> </div> The number of rows this produces coincides with the correct number of rows in the DB. However, the actual data from each field does not show. Any ideas?

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• How to avoid/prevent the system to draw/redraw/refresh/paint a WPF window

  - by Leo

  I have an Application WPF with Visual C# (using visual studio 2010) and I want to draw OpenGL scenes on the WPF window itself. As for the OpenGL drawinf itself, I'm able to draw it w/o problems, meaning, I can create GL render context from the WPF main window itself (no additional OpenGL control, no win32 window inside WPF window), use GL commands and use swapbuffer (all this is done inside a dll - using C - I created myself). However, I have an annoying flickering when, for example, I resize the window. I overrided the OnRender method to re-draw with opengl, but after this, the window is redraw with the background color. It's likely that the system is automatically redrawing it. With WindowForms I'm able to prevent the system to redraw automatically (defining some ControlStyles to true or false, like UserPaint = true, AllPaintingInWmPaint = true, Opaque = true, ResizeRedraw = true, DoubleBuffer = false), but, aside setting Opacity to 1, I don't know how to do all that with WPF. I was hoping that overriding OnRender with no operations inside it would avoid redrawin, but somehow the system still draw the background. Do anyone know how to prevent system to redraw the window? Thx for your time

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• Using bitwise operators on > 32 bit integers

  - by dqhendricks

  I am using bitwise operations in order to represent many access control flags within one integer. ADMIN_ACCESS = 1; EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS = 2; EDIT_ORDER_ACCESS = 4; var myAccess = 3; // ie: ( ADMIN_ACCESS | EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) if ( myAccess & EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) { // check for correct access // allow for editing of account } Most of this is occurring on the PHP side of my project. There is one piece however where Javascript is used to join several access flags using | when saving someone's access level. This works fine to a point. I have found that once an integer (flag) gets too large ( 32bit), it no longer works correctly with bitwise operators in Javascript. For instance: alert( 4294967296 | 1 ); // equals 1, but should equal 4294967297 I am trying to find a workaround for this so that I do not have to limit my number of access control flags to 32. Each access control flag is two times the previous control flag so that each control flag will not interfere with other control flags. dec(4) = bin(100) dec(8) = bin(1000) dec(16) = bin(10000) I have noticed that when adding two of these flags together with a simple +, it seems to come out with the same answer as a bitwise or operation, but am having trouble wrapping my head around whether this is a simple substitution, or if there might be problems with doing this. Can anyone comment on the validity of this workaround? Example: (4294967296 | 262144 | 524288) == (4294967296 + 262144 + 524288)

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• export and import utf8 data in mysql: best practices

  - by ChrisRamakers

  We're often faced with the need to send a data file to one of our clients with data from the database he/she needs to translate. Most of the time this export is CSV or XLS. Most of the time we create a csv dump with phpmyadmin and get an xls file in return with the translated data. The problem is that most of the time the data is UTF8 and when the file is returned as xls each and every time we load the data into mysql again we end up with utf8 problems, characters not being displayed properly, etc ... We've already doublechecked everything in mysql from my.conf to column charactersets and everything is set correctly to UTF8. My question is not how to fix the encoding issue since that's been solved but how we would best proceed in the future handling this situation? What export format should we hand over? How should we import (just mysql load data infile or our own processing scripts). What is the general consensus on how to handle this situation? We would like to continue using excel if possible since that's the format almost everybody expects including our clients' translation agencies. Our clients' ease of use is the most important factor here, without overloading us with major issues each time. The best of both worlds :)

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• Jquery ajax auto complete problem

  - by squeaker

  Hi all, I'm having newbie problems resolving an ajax autocomplete script if anyone would like to offer advise? In my form i wish for users to select an event type (drop down box) which on selecting then displays a text box. This text box then offers a user the ability to autocomplete as they start typing, the options having been generated through AJAX depending on the event type selected. I'm using a mix of http://pengoworks.com/workshop/jquery/autocomplete.htm - to carry out the autocomplete and some basic jquery to identify the value of the event type selected. The problem I have within the code below is to pass the selected event type value, set as the variable 'caturl', into the 'extraParams:{cat:4}' replacing the 4 with the event type dynamically selected. Any help would be greatly received. $('#select').change(function() { $('.eventtype').hide(); $('#eventtype' + $(this).find('option:selected').attr('id')).show(); caturl = $('#select :selected').val(); }); $("#CityAjax").autocomplete( 'caturl.php', { delay:10, minChars:2, matchSubset:1, matchContains:1, cacheLength:10, onItemSelect:selectItem, onFindValue:findValue, formatItem:formatItem, extraParams:{cat:4}, autoFill:true });

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• Django 'ImproperlyConfigured' error after deployment on google app engine

  - by oreon

  Hello, I'm currently trying to get my first django project running on Google App Engine. I followed the instructions given here http://www.allbuttonspressed.com/projects/djangoappengine as best I could. Unfortunately I have run into some issues. Locally everything runs fine, no problems. I then tried to deploy my project to the cloud. This is where I'm totally stuck. I always receive 500 Server Errors coupled with google.appengine.runtime.DeadlineExceededError's. Every now and then I get the following error message in my logs, which I think is the root of the problem : <class 'django.core.exceptions.ImproperlyConfigured'>: ImportError projectyalanda.pricecompare: No module named projectyalanda.pricecompare Obviously something is wrong in the way I reference my django app. Why this is only an issue in the cloud is a mystery to me. The interesting part in the settings.py file is setup as following: INSTALLED_APPS = ( 'djangotoolbox', # 'django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'projectyalanda.pricecompare', ) I absolutely can't figure out why django/appengine wouldn't be able to find the module, especially since everything works perfectly locally. So where else can I look? The local folder structure is of course also correct as automatically done by django, so maybe something is messed up during deployment? How would I be able to find out? Please help me ;-) Thanks

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• C++: Is there any good way to read/write without specifically stating character type in function nam

  - by Mark L.

  I'm having a problem getting a program to read from a file based on a template, for example: bool parse(basic_ifstream<T> &file) { T ch; locale loc = file.getloc(); basic_string<T> buf; file.unsetf(ios_base::skipws); if (file.is_open()) { while (file >> ch) { if(isalnum(ch, loc)) { buf += ch; } else if(!buf.empty()) { addWord(buf); buf.clear(); } } if(!buf.empty()) { addWord(buf); } return true; } return false; } This will work when I instantiate this class with <char>, but has problems when I use <wchar_t> (clearly). Outside of the class, I'm using: for (iter = mp.begin(); iter != mp.end(); ++iter ) { cout << iter->first << setw(textwidth - iter->first.length() + 1); cout << " " << iter->second << endl; } To write all of the information from this data struct (it's a map<basic_string<T>, int>), and as predicted, cout explodes if iter->first isn't a char array. I've looked online and the consensus is to use wcout, but unfortunately, since this program requires that the template can be changed at compile time (<char> - <wchar_t>) I'm not sure how I could get away with simply choosing cout or wcout. That is, unless there way a way to read/write wide characters without changing lots of code. If this explanation sounds awkwardly complicated, let me know and I'll address it as best I can.

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• How to perform Linq select new with datetime in SQL 2008

  - by kd7iwp

  In our C# code I recently changed a line from inside a linq-to-sql select new query as follows: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Year.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Month.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Day.ToString() : "") To: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") The change makes the line smaller and cleaner. It also works fine with our SQL 2008 database in our development environment. However, when the code deployed to our production environment which uses SQL 2005 I received an exception stating: Nullable Type must have a value. For further analysis I copied (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") into a string (outside of a Linq statement) and had no problems at all, so it only causes an in issue inside my Linq. Is this problem just something to do with SQL 2005 using different date formats than from SQL 2008? Here's more of the Linq: dt = FilteredOrders.Where(x => x != null).Select(p => new { Order = p.OrderId, link = "/order/" + p.OrderId.ToString(), StudentId = (p.PersonId.HasValue ? p.PersonId.Value : 0), FirstName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.FirstName, LastName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.LastName, DeliverBy = p.DeliverBy, OrderDate = p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : ""}).ToDataTable(); This is selecting from a List of Order objects. The FilteredOrders list is from another linq-to-sql query and I call .AsEnumerable on it before giving it to this particular select new query. Doing this in regular code works fine: if (o.OrderDate.HasValue) tempString += " " + o.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd");

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• SSH traffic over openvpn freezes under weird circumstances

  - by user289581

  I have an openvpn (version 2.1_rc15 at both ends) connection setup between two gentoo boxes using shared keys. it works fine for the most part. I use mysql, http, ftp, scp over the vpn with no problems. But when I ssh from the client to the server over the vpn, weird things happen. I can login, i can execute some commands. But if i try to run an ncurses application like top, or i try to cat a file, the connection will stall and I'll have to sever the ssh session. I can, for example, execute "echo blah; echo .; echo blah" and it will output the three lines of text over the ssh session fine. But if i execute "cat /etc/motd" the session will freeze the moment I press enter. While it seems like a terminal emulation problem it makes no sense why using the vpn would affect the ability for ssh to render things correctly. I am at a loss to explain why everything else works, including scp, but ssh just breaks over the vpn. Any thoughts ?

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• How best to implement "favourites" feature? (like favourite products on a data driven website)

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hi, I have written a dynamic database driven, object oriented website with an administration frontend etc etc. I would like to add a feature where customers can save items as "favourites", without having to create an account and login, to come back to them later, but I dont know how exactly to go about doing this... I see three options: Log favourites based on IP address and then change these to be logged against an account if the customer then creates an account; Force customers to create an account to be able to use this functionality; Log favourites based on IP address but give users the option to save their favourites under a name they specify. The problem with option 1 is that I dont know much about IP addresses - my Dad thinks they are unique, but I know people have had problems with systems like this. The problem with 1 and 2 is that accounts have not been opened up to customers yet - only administrators can log in at the moment. It should be easy to alter this (no more than a morning or afternoons work) but I would also have to implement usergroups too. The problem with option 3 is that if user A saves a favourites list called "My Favourites", and then user B tries to save a list under this name and it is refused, user B will then be able to access the list saved by user A because they now know it already exists. A solution to this is to password protect lists, but to go to all this effort I may as well implement option 2. Of course I could always use option 4; use an alternative if anyone can suggest a better solution than any of the above options. So has anyone ever done something like this before? If so how did you go about it? What do you recommend (or not recommend)? Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

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• Action Filter Dependency Injection in ASP.NET MVC 3 RC2 with StructureMap

  - by Ben

  Hi, I've been playing with the DI support in ASP.NET MVC RC2. I have implemented session per request for NHibernate and need to inject ISession into my "Unit of work" action filter. If I reference the StructureMap container directly (ObjectFactory.GetInstance) or use DependencyResolver to get my session instance, everything works fine: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } However if I attempt to use my StructureMap filter provider (inherits FilterAttributeFilterProvider) I have problems with committing the NHibernate transaction at the end of the request. It is as if ISession objects are being shared between requests. I am seeing this frequently as all my images are loaded via an MVC controller so I get 20 or so NHibernate sessions created on a normal page load. I added the following to my action filter: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } public ISession SessionTest { get; set; } public override void OnResultExecuted(System.Web.Mvc.ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { bool sessionsMatch = (this.Session == this.SessionTest); SessionTest is injected using the StructureMap Filter provider. I found that on a page with 20 images, "sessionsMatch" was false for 2-3 of the requests. My StructureMap configuration for session management is as follows: For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(new NHibernateSessionFactory().GetSessionFactory()); For<ISession>().HttpContextScoped().Use(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); In global.asax I call the following at the end of each request: public Global() { EndRequest += (sender, e) => { ObjectFactory.ReleaseAndDisposeAllHttpScopedObjects(); }; } Is this configuration thread safe? Previously I was injecting dependencies into the same filter using a custom IActionInvoker. This worked fine until MVC 3 RC2 when I started experiencing the problem above, which is why I thought I would try using a filter provider instead. Any help would be appreciated Ben P.S. I'm using NHibernate 3 RC and the latest version of StructureMap

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• Python IOError: Not a gzipped file (Gzip and Blowfish Encrypt/Compress)

  - by notbad.jpeg

  I'm having some problems with python's built-in library gzip. Looked through almost every other stack question about it, and none of them seem to work. MY PROBLEM IS THAT WHEN I TRY TO DECOMPRESS I GET THE IOError I'm Getting: Traceback (most recent call last): File "mymodule.py", line 61, in return gz.read() File "/usr/lib/python2.7/gzip.py", line 245, readself._read(readsize) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/gzip.py", line 287, in _readself._read_gzip_header() File "/usr/lib/python2.7/gzip.py", line 181, in _read_gzip_header raise IOError, 'Not a gzipped file'IOError: Not a gzipped file This is my code to send it over SMB, it might not make sense why i do things, but it's normally in a while loop and memory efficient, I just simplified it. buffer = cStringIO.StringIO(output) #output is from a subprocess call small_buffer = cStringIO.StringIO() small_string = buffer.read() #need a string to write to buffer gzip_obj = gzip.GzipFile(fileobj=small_buffer,compresslevel=6, mode='wb') gzip_obj.write(small_string) compressed_str = small_buffer.getvalue() blowfish = Blowfish.new('abcd', Blowfish.MODE_ECB) remainder = '|'*(8 - (len(compressed_str) % 8)) compressed_str += remainder encrypted = blowfish.encrypt(compressed_str) #i send it over smb, then retrieve it later Then this is the code that retrieves it: #buffer is a cStringIO object filled with data from smb retrieval decrypter = Blowfish.new('abcd', Blowfish.MODE_ECB) value = buffer.getvalue() decrypted = decrypter.decrypt(value) buff = cStringIO.StringIO(decrypted) buff.seek(0) gz = gzip.GzipFile(fileobj=buff) return gz.read() Here's the problem return gz.read()

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• How to access C arrays from assembler for Windows x64?

  - by 0xdword32

  I've written an assembler function to speed up a few things for image processing (images are created with CreateDIBSection). For Win32 the assembler code works without problems, but for Win64 I get a crash as soon as I try to access my array data. I put the relevant info in a struct and my assembler function gets a pointer to this struct. The struct pointer is put into ebx/rbx and with indexing I read the data from the struct. Any idea what I am doing wrong? I use nasm together with Visual Studio 2008 and for Win64 I set "default rel". C++ code: struct myData { tUInt32 ulParam1; void* pData; }; CallMyAssemblerFunction(&myData); Assembler Code: Win32: ... push ebp; mov ebp,esp mov ebx, [ebp + 8]; pointer to our struct mov eax, [ebx]; ulParam1 mov esi, [ebx + 4]; pData, 4 byte pointer movd xmm0, [esi]; ... Win64: ... mov rbx, rcx; pointer to our struct mov eax, [rbx]; ulParam1 mov rsi, [rbx + 4]; pData, 8 byte pointer movd xmm0, [rsi]; CRASH! ...

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• jQuery loading issues within wordpress

  - by Chase

  I am having a couple problems trying to manually insert some jQuery features into a wordpress theme. I have a lightbox wordpress plugin that is jQuery based that is working fine. So if I manually load the jQuery script into wordpress the functions seem to work but instead of say a slide being hidden it is revealed when it should still be hidden. Or a pop up that should work is already being shown instead of hidden. I don't think I'm supposed to manually include the jQuery into my skin but using the wp_enqueue_script('jquery'); doesn't seem to be resolving my issues either. <script src="http://platform.twitter.com/anywhere.js?id=i5CnpkmwnlWpDdAZGVpxw&v=1" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".btn-slide").click(function(){ $("#twitpanel").slideToggle("slow"); $(this).toggleClass("active"); }); }); </script> <div id="tweetit"><a class="btn-slide">Tell em'</a> <div id="twitpanel"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> twttr.anywhere(function (T) { T("#twitpanel").tweetBox({ height: 100, width: 225, defaultContent: "Some Random Text" }); }); </script> </div></h2> Like I said it works but in the reverse fashion that it should be. I think I'm just loading in something wrong? TIA, Chase

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• Javascript Mouseover bubbling from children

  - by Nicky De Maeyer

  Ive got the following html setup: <div id="div1"> <div id="content1">blaat</div> <div id="content1">blaat2</div> </div> it is styled so you can NOT hover div1 without hovering one of the other 2 divs. Now i've got a mouseout on div1. The problem is that my div1.mouseout gets triggered when i move from content1 to content2, because their mouseouts are bubbling. and the event's target, currentTarget or relatedTarget properties are never div1, since it is never hovered directly... I've been searching mad for this, but I can only find articles and solutions for problems who are the reverse of what I need. It seems trivial but I can't get it to work... The mouseout of div1 should ONLY get triggered when the mouse leaves div1. One of the possibilities would be to set some data on mouse enter and mouseleave, but I'm convinced this should work out of the box, since it is just a mouseout... EDIT: bar.mouseleave(function(e) { if ($(e.currentTarget).attr('id') == bar.attr('id')) { bar.css('top', '-'+contentOuterHeight+'px'); $('#floatable-bar #floatable-bar-tabs span').removeClass('active'); } }); changed the mouseout to mouseleave and the code worked...

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