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  • Did the Unity Team fix that "generics handling" bug back in 2008?

    - by rasx
    At my level of experience with Unity it might be faster to ask whether the "generics handling" bug acknowledged by ctavares back in 2008 was fixed in a public release. Here was the problem (which might be my problem today): Hi, I get an exception when using .... container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,), typeof(Dictionary<,)); The exception is... "Resolution of the dependency failed, type = \"IDictionary2\", name = \"\". Exception message is: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The type Dictionary2 has multiple constructors of length 2. Unable to disambiguate. When I attempt... IDictionary myExampleDictionary = container.Resolve(); Here was the moderated response: There are no books that'll help, Unity is a little too new for publishers to have caught up yet. Unfortunately, you've run into a bug in our generics handling. This is currently fixed in our internal version, but it'll be a little while before we can get the bits out. In the meantime, as a workaround you could do something like this instead: public class WorkaroundDictionary : Dictionary { public WorkaroundDictionary() { } } container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,),typeof(WorkaroundDictionary<,)); The WorkaroundDictionary only has the default constructor so it'll inject no problem. Since the rest of your app is written in terms of IDictionary, when we get the fixed version done you can just replace the registration with the real Dictionary class, throw out the workaround, and everything will still just work. Sorry about the bug, it'll be fixed soon!

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish Error

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • What ORM for .NET should I use?

    - by eKek0
    I'm relatively new to .NET and have being using Linq2Sql for a almost a year, but it lacks some of the features I'm looking for now. I'm going to start a new project in which I want to use an ORM with the following characteristics: It has to be very productive, I don't want to be dealing with the access layer to save or retrieve objects from or to the database, but it should allows me to easily tweak any object before actually commit it to the database; also it should allows me to work easily with a changing database schema It should allows me to extend the objects mapped from the database, for example to add virtual attributes to them (virtual columns to a table) It has to be (at least almost) database agnostic, it should allows me to work with different databases in a transparent way It has to have not so much configuration or must be based on conventions to make it work It should allows me to work with Linq So, do you know any ORM that I could use? Thank you for your help. EDIT I know that an option is to use NHibernate. This appears as the facto standard for enterprise level applications, but also it seems that is not very productive because its deep learning curve. In other way, I have read in some other post here in SO that it doesn't integrate well with Linq. Is all of that true?

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  • How do I build a JSON object to send to an AJAX WebService?

    - by Ben McCormack
    After trying to format my JSON data by hand in javascript and failing miserably, I realized there's probably a better way. Here's what the code for the web service method and relevant classes looks like in C#: [WebMethod] public Response ValidateAddress(Request request) { return new test_AddressValidation().GenerateResponse( test_AddressValidation.ResponseType.Ambiguous); } ... public class Request { public Address Address; } public class Address { public string Address1; public string Address2; public string City; public string State; public string Zip; public AddressClassification AddressClassification; } public class AddressClassification { public int Code; public string Description; } The web service works great with using SOAP/XML, but I can't seem to get a valid response using javascript and jQuery because the message I get back from the server has a problem with my hand-coded JSON. I can't use the jQuery getJSON function because the request requires HTTP POST, so I'm using the lower-level ajax function instead: $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "http://bmccorm-xp/HBUpsAddressValidation/AddressValidation.asmx/ValidateAddress", data: "{\"Address\":{\"Address1\":\"123 Main Street\",\"Address2\":null,\"City\":\"New York\",\"State\":\"NY\",\"Zip\":\"10000\",\"AddressClassification\":null}}", dataType: "json", success: function(response){ alert(response); } }) The ajax function is submitting everything specified in data:, which is where my problem is. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object in javascript so I can plug it in to my ajax call like so: data: theRequest I'll eventually be pulling data out of text inputs in forms, but for now hard-coded test data is fine. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object to send to the web service?

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  • Difference in regex between Python and Rubular?

    - by Rosarch
    In Rubular, I have created a regular expression: (Prerequisite|Recommended): (\w|-| )* It matches the bolded: Recommended: good comfort level with computers and some of the arts. Summer. 2 credits. Prerequisite: pre-freshman standing or permission of instructor. Credit may not be applied toward engineering degree. S-U grades only. Here is a use of the regex in Python: note_re = re.compile(r'(Prerequisite|Recommended): (\w|-| )*', re.IGNORECASE) def prereqs_of_note(note): match = note_re.match(note) if not match: return None return match.group(0) Unfortunately, the code returns None instead of a match: >>> import prereqs >>> result = prereqs.prereqs_of_note("Summer. 2 credits. Prerequisite: pre-fres hman standing or permission of instructor. Credit may not be applied toward engi neering degree. S-U grades only.") >>> print result None What am I doing wrong here?

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  • jQuery - how to repeat a function within itself to include nested files

    - by brandonjp
    I'm not sure what to call this question, since it involves a variety of things, but we'll start with the first issue... I've been trying to write a simple to use jQuery for includes (similar to php or ssi) on static html sites. Whenever it finds div.jqinclude it gets attr('title') (which is my external html file), then uses load() to include the external html file. Afterwards it changes the class of the div to jqincluded So my main index.html might contain several lines like so: <div class="jqinclude" title="menu.html"></div> However, within menu.html there might be other includes nested. So it needs to make the first level of includes, then perform the same action on the newly included content. So far it works fine, but it's very verbose and only goes a couple levels deep. How would I make the following repeated function to continually loop until no more class="jqinclude" elements are left on the page? I've tried arguments.callee and some other convoluted wacky attempts to no avail. I'm also interested to know if there's another completely different way I should be doing this. $('div.jqinclude').each(function() { // begin repeat here var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); $(this).find('div.jqinclude').each(function() { // end repeat here var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); $(this).find('div.jqinclude').each(function() { var file = $(this).attr('title'); $(this).load(file, function() { $(this).removeClass('jqinclude').addClass('jqincluded'); }); }); }); }); }); });

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  • How to Access value of dynamically created control?

    - by sharad
    i have asp.net web application in which i need to create form dynamically depend upon table which user selected.however,i created form dynamically with it's control like text box,drop downlist etc. but not able to access those controls at particular button click event. My form scenario is like this: i have dropdownlist in which i display list of tables,button control say display( on click event which i redirect page with some addition in querystring so that at page init it dynamically genrate controls) and another button control which used to access this controls value say Submit and store in database. This is my code: At Display button Click event: Response.Redirect("dynamic_main.aspx?mode=edit&tablename=" + CMBTableList.SelectedItem.ToString()); This is code For page.Init level if (Request.QueryString["mode"] != null) { if (Request.QueryString["mode"].ToString() == "edit") { Session["tablename"] = Request.QueryString["tablename"].ToString(); // if (Session["tablename"].ToString() == CMBTableList.SelectedItem.ToString()) //{ createcontrol(Session["tablename"].ToString()); // } } } i have used createcontrol() which genrate controls Code For Submit Button: string[] contid=controlid.Value.Split(','); MasterPage ctl00 = FindControl("ctl00") as MasterPage; ContentPlaceHolder cplacehld = ctl00.FindControl("ContentPlaceHolder2") as ContentPlaceHolder; Panel panel1 = cplacehld.FindControl("plnall") as Panel; Table tabl1 = panel1.FindControl("id1") as Table; foreach (string sin in contid) { string splitcvalu = sin.Split('_')[0].ToString(); ControlsAccess contaccess = new ControlsAccess(); if (splitcvalu.ToString() == "txt") { TextBox txt = (TextBox)tabl1.FindControl(sin.ToString()); //TextBox txt = cplacehld.FindControl(sin.ToString()) as TextBox; val = txt.ID; } else { DropDownList DDL = cplacehld.FindControl(sin.ToString()) as DropDownList; } } Here i am no able to access this textbox or drop downlist.i am getting id of particular control from hidden field controlid in which i have stored it during genrating controls. i have used findcontrol() it works in case of finding masterpage,contentplaceholder,table etc. but in case of textbox or other control it doesnt work it shows it returns null. Anyone can help me. Thanks

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  • Authentification-None for one folder(page) when the project is under FormsAuthentifications

    - by Sirius Lampochkin
    I have a WebApplication on asp.net 2.0 with namespace Admin. I have Form Authentification mode for the project. <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="ASP_XML_Form" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="30" path="/" requireSSL="false" slidingExpiration="true" cookieless="AutoDetect"> </forms> </authentication> Now, I try to share one folder (one inside page) for not Authentificatied users: <location path="Recovery"> <system.web> <roleManager enabled="false" > </roleManager> <authentication mode="None"> </authentication> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> <httpHandlers> <remove verb="GET" path="image.aspx" /> <remove verb="GET" path="css.aspx" /> </httpHandlers> </system.web> </location> But when I create the page inside the shared folder, it can't get access to the assembly. And I see the error like this: Could not load file or assembly 'Admin' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. It also shows me the error: ASP.NET runtime error: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. Does anybody know how to share (Authentification None) one folder(page) when the project is under FormsAuthentifications?

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  • Loader.php trying to load Doctrine classes, but we use Propel!

    - by kewpiedoll99
    We are finding cases where we get the following 500 error: File xyz.php does not exist or class "xyz" was not found in the file at () in SF_ROOT_DIR/lib/vendor/Zend/Loader.php line 107 ... where xyz == Memcache (when trying to use symfony cc on the command line) or sfDoctrineAdminGenerator (when using an old-ish AdminGenerator-generated CMS page). We use Propel, but Loader.php is trying to load classes used only for Doctrine. Currently I am using a filthy hack where I request Loader.php to check if the file is either of these two cases, and if so simply return rather than trying to load it. Obviously, this is unacceptable longer term. Has anybody encountered this, and how did you solve it? Edited to add: We have: class ProjectConfiguration extends sfProjectConfiguration { public function setup() { // for compatibility / remove and enable only the plugins you want $this->enableAllPluginsExcept(array('sfDoctrinePlugin')); } } And we have a propel.ini file in our top level config directory. This has only started in the past four weeks or so, and we've had a stable build for over a year now. I'm pretty sure Doctrine is totally disabled.

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  • SQL Pivot table error-using variable gives syntax error

    - by Antoni
    Hi my coworker came to me with this error and now I am hooked and trying to figure it out, hope some of the experts can help us! Thanks so much! When I execute Step6 we get this error: Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near '@cols'. --Sample of pivot query --Creating Test Table Step1 CREATE TABLE Product(Cust VARCHAR(25), Product VARCHAR(20), QTY INT) GO -- Inserting Data into Table Step2 INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','VEG',2) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','SODA',6) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','MILK',1) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','BEER',12) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('FRED','MILK',3) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('FRED','BEER',24) INSERT INTO Product(Cust, Product, QTY) VALUES('KATE','VEG',3) GO -- Selecting and checking entires in table Step3 SELECT * FROM Product GO -- Pivot Table ordered by PRODUCT Step4 select * FROM ( SELECT * FROM Product) up PIVOT (SUM(QTY) FOR CUST IN ([FRED], [KATE])) AS pvt ORDER BY PRODUCT GO --dynamic pivot???? Step5 DECLARE @cols NVARCHAR(2000) select @cols = STUFF(( SELECT DISTINCT TOP 100 PERCENT '],[' + b.Cust FROM (select top 100 Cust from tblProduct)b ORDER BY '],[' + b.Cust FOR XML PATH('') ), 1, 2, '') + ']' --Show Step6 SELECT * FROM (SELECT * FROM tblProduct) p PIVOT (SUM(QTY) FOR CUST IN (@cols)) as pvt Order by Product

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  • How to get the actual address of a pointer in C?

    - by Airjoe
    BACKGROUND: I'm writing a single level cache simulator in C for a homework assignment, and I've been given code that I must work from. In our discussions of the cache, we were told that the way a small cache can hold large addresses is by splitting the large address into the position in the cache and an identifying tag. That is, if you had an 8 slot cache but wanted to store something with address larger than 8, you take the 3 (because 2^3=8) rightmost bits and put the data in that position; so if you had address 22 for example, binary 10110, you would take those 3 rightmost bits 110, which is decimal 5, and put it in slot 5 of the cache. You would also store in this position the tag, which is the remaining bits 10. One function, cache_load, takes a single argument, and integer pointer. So effectively, I'm being given this int* addr which is an actual address and points to some value. In order to store this value in the cache, I need to split the addr. However, the compiler doesn't like when I try to work with the pointer directly. So, for example, I try to get the position by doing: npos=addr%num_slots The compiler gets angry and gives me errors. I tried casting to an int, but this actually got me the value that the pointer was pointing to, not the numerical address itself. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

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  • Exec problem in SQL Server 2005

    - by IordanTanev
    Hi, I have the situation where i have two databases with same structure. The first have some data in its data tables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when I run the script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When I copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script tries to run it with exec I get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

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  • Copy a multi-dimentional array by Value (not by reference) in PHP.

    - by Simon R
    Language: PHP I have a form which asks users for their educational details, course details and technical details. When the form is submitted the page goes to a different page to run processes on the information and save parts to a database. HOWEVER(!) I then need to return the page back to the original page, where having access to the original post information is needed. I thought it would be simple to copy (by value) the multi-dimensional (md) $_POST array to $_SESSION['post'] session_start(); $_SESSION['post'] = $_POST; However this only appears to place the top level of the array into $_SESSION['post'] not doing anything with the children/sub-arrays. An abbreviated form of the md $_POST array is as follows: Array ( [formid] = 2 [edu] = Array ( ['id'] = Array ( [1] = new_1 [2] = new_2 ) ['nameOfInstitution'] = Array ( [1] = 1 [2] = 2 ) ['qualification'] = Array ( [1] = blah [2] = blah ) ['grade'] = Array ( [1] = blah [2] = blah ) ) [vID] = 61 [Submit] = Save and Continue ) If I echo $_SESSION['post']['formid'] it writes "2", and if I echo $_SESSION['post']['edu'] it returns "Array". If I check that edu is an array (is_array($_SESSION['post']['edu])) it returns true. If I echo $_SESSION['post']['edu']['id'] it returns array, but when checked (is_array($_SESSION['post']['edu]['id'])) it returns false and I cannot echo out any of the elements. How do I successfully copy (by value, not by reference) the whole array (including its children) to an new array?

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  • Synchronizing screencasting (ffmpeg) and capturing from the webcam (OpenCV)

    - by lyuba
    As from my previous questions, I am trying to build a simple eye tracker. Decided to start from a Linux version (run Ubuntu). To complete this task one should organize screencasting and webcam capturing in such way that frames from both streams exactly match each other and there is the same number of frames in each of them totally. Screencasting fsp fully depends on the camera's fsp, so each time we get the image from the webcam we can potentially grab a screen frame and stay happy. However, all the tools for the fast screencasting, like ffmpeg, for example, return the .avi file as the result and require the fsp already known to be started. From the other side, tools like Java+Robot or ImageMagick seem to require around 20ms to return the .jpg screenshot, which is pretty slow for the task. But they may be requested right after each time the webcam frame is grabbed and provide the needed synchronization. So the sub-questions are: 1. Does the USD camera's frame rate vary during a single session? 2. Are there any tools which provide fast screencasting frame by frame? 3. Is there any way to make ffmpeg push a new frame to the .avi file only when program initiates this request? For my task I may either use C++ or Java. I am, actually, an interface designer, not the driver programmer, and this task seems to be pretty low-level. I would be grateful for any suggestion and tip!

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  • Setting ModerationInformation.Status from Approved back to pending removes

    - by Gavin Morgan
    Seeing if anyone else has had this problem and a resolution to it. I have a visual studio sequential workflow on a list (not a library) which does NOT use tasks, the approval process is done through the Approve/Reject OOTB buttons on the list item. The approval is a 2 stage approval, whereby if the 1st stage is completed (via clicking the Approve OOTB button), i reset the ModerationInformation.Status from Approved back to pending then send an email to the 2nd stage approver. My problem is, when i set the the ModerationInformation.Status back to Pending from Approved so there is never an approved version, the Creator loses permissions to view the item, and i get the "cannot find item" error from SharePoint for the person who created the item. The 1st and 2nd level approvers and anyone with approve rights CAN still see the item. Some more background information. the code i am using to update the moderationinformation is I get the properties from the workflow event and get a hook into the listitem properties.Item.ModerationInformation.Status = SPModerationStatusType.Pending; properties.Item.Update(); can anyone help.

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  • Hadoop reduce task gets hung

    - by user806098
    I set up a hadoop cluster with 4 nodes, When running a map-reduce task, the map task finishes quickly, while the reduce task hangs at 27% percent. I checked the log, it's that the reduce task fails to fetch map output from map nodes. The job tracker log of master shows messages like this: 2011-06-27 19:55:14,748 INFO org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobTracker: Adding task (REDUCE) 'attempt_201106271953_0001_r_000000_0' to tip task_201106271953_0001_r_000000, for tracker 'tracker_web30.bbn.com.cn:localhost/127.0.0.1:56476' And the name node log of master shows messages like this: 2011-06-27 14:00:52,898 INFO org.apache.hadoop.ipc.Server: IPC Server handler 4 on 54310, call register(DatanodeRegistration(202.106.199.39:50010, storageID=DS-1989397900-202.106.199.39-50010-1308723051262, infoPort=50075, ipcPort=50020)) from 192.168.225.19:16129: error: java.io.IOException: verifyNodeRegistration: unknown datanode 202.106.199.3 9:50010 However, neither the "web30.bbn.com.cn" or 202.106.199.39, 202.106.199.3 is the slave node. I think such ip/domains appear because hadoop fails to resolve a node(first in the Intranet DNS server), then it goes to a higher-level DNS server, later to the top, still fails, then the "junk" ip/domains are returned. But I checked my config, it goes like this: /etc/hosts: 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost ::1 localhost6.localdomain6 localhost6 192.168.225.16 master 192.168.225.66 slave1 192.168.225.20 slave5 192.168.225.17 slave17 conf/core-site.xml: hadoop.tmp.dir /root/hadoop_tmp/hadoop_${user.name} fs.default.name hdfs://master:54310 io.sort.mb 1024 hdfs-site.xml: dfs.replication 3 masters: master slaves: master slave1 slave5 slave17 Also, all firewalls(iptables) are turned off, and ssh between each 2 nodes is ok. so I don't know where exact the error comes from. Please help. Thanks a lot.

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  • WPF, notify a child in the element tree about an event in a parent

    - by jester
    I am developing a WPF app and I want an event in a parent to be notified to several of its children in the element tree, so that each of them can take an action accordingly. I know that a custom RoutedEvent can be used to signal in the other direction from a child to one of its ancestors by bubbling the event upwards, so that any of the ancestor elements can handle the event. What I want is the children to be notified about an event in the parent and they handle them appropriately. What is the best strategy to achieve this? EDIT: Clarifying the comments : Say I have a parent UserControl. It has a TabControl and its contents are several nested child UserControls. Now consider a scenario where I want the TabControl.SelectionChanged() event to cause some changes in each of the child UserControl. How to achieve this? (The contents of each tab is a UserControl which themselves may contain another few levels of children UserControls. I want the UserControl in the bottom level to know about the SelectionChanged() event and respond accordingly).

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  • Gracefully handling screen orientation change during activity start

    - by Steve H
    I'm trying to find a way to properly handle setting up an activity where its orientation is determined from data in the intent that launched it. This is for a game where the user can choose levels, some of which are int portrait orientation and some are landscape orientation. The problem I'm facing is that setRequestedOrientation(ActivityInfo.SCREEN_ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) doesn't take effect until the activity is fully loaded. This is a problem for me because I do some loading and image processing during startup, which I'd like to only have to do once. Currently, if the user chose a landscape level: the activity starts onCreate(), defaulting to portrait discovers from analysing its launching Intent that it should be in landscape orientation continues regardless all the way to onResume(), loading information and performing other setup tasks at this point setRequestedOrientation kicks in so the application runs through onPause() to onDestroy() it then again starts up from onCreate() and runs to onResume() repeating the setup from earlier Is there a way to avoid that and have it not perform the loading twice? For example, ideally, the activity would know before even onCreate was called whether it should be landscape or portrait depending on some property of the launching intent, but unless I've missed something that isn't possible. I've managed to hack together a way to avoid repeating the loading by checking a boolean before the time-consuming loading steps, but that doesn't seem like the right way of doing it. I imagine I could override onSaveInstanceState, but that would require a lot of additional coding. Is there a simple way to do this? Thanks!

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  • Where do I input a piece of code in Emacs?

    - by Vivi
    Hi there, I have just started using Emacs for the specific purpose of editing latex documents. I was attracted to Emacs because I want to be able to customize syntax highlighting even to the point of defining the colors of specific words. I am new to Emacs and not a programmer, so I having an extreme difficulty in doing what I want to do because most help I find assume too much knowledge for my level (it took me days just to be able to install emacs + auctex and change the first face color). I found something that I think will help me but I don't know how to do it. The post below is what I want to do, but what I am supposed to do with this code? Where should I insert it or where should I type it? I am using GNU Emacs in Windows. Thank you so much for you help :) M-x what-face will print the face found at the current point. And the code for that is: (defun what-face (pos) (interactive "d") (let ((face (or (get-char-property (point) 'read-face-name) (get-char-property (point) 'face)))) (if face (message "Face: %s" face) (message "No face at %d" pos)))) By the way, I found this in another post that can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1242352/get-font-face-under-cursor-in-emacs

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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • Object Oriented Programming in AS3

    - by Jordan
    I'm building a game in as3 that has balls moving and bouncing off the walls. When the user clicks an explosion appears and any ball that hits that explosion explodes too. Any ball that then hits that explosion explodes and so on. My question is what would be the best class structure for the balls. I have a level system to control levels and such and I've already come up with working ways to code the balls. Here's what I've done. My first attempt was to create a class for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and finally Orb. These all extended each other in the order I just named them. I got it working but having Bounce extend Movement and Explosion extend Bounce, it just doesn't seem very object oriented because what if I wanted to add a box class that didn't move, but did explode? I would need a separate class for that explosion. My second attempt was to create Movement, Bounce and Explosion without extending anything. Instead I passed in a reference to the Orb class to each. Then the class stores that reference and does what it needs to do based on events that are dispatched by the Orb such as update, which was broadcast from Orb every enter frame. This would drive the movement and bounce and also the explosion when the time came. This attempt worked as well but it just doesn't seem right. I've also thought about using Interfaces but because they are more of an outline for classes, I feel like code reuse goes out the window as each class would need its own code for a specific task even if that task is exactly the same. I feel as if I'm searching for some form of multiple inheritance for classes that as3 does not support. Can someone explain to me a better way of doing what I'm attempting to do? Am I being to "Object Oriented" by having classed for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and Orb? Are Interfaces the way to go? Any feedback is appreciated!

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  • Hibernate Bi- Directional many to many mapping advice!

    - by Rob
    hi all, i woundered if anyone might be able to help me out. I am trying to work out what to google for (or any other ideas!!) basically i have a bidirectional many to many mapping between a user entity and a club entity (via a join table called userClubs) I now want to include a column in userClubs that represents the role so that when i call user.getClubs() I can also work out what level access they have. Is there a clever way to do this using hibernate or do i need to rethink the database structure? Thank you for any help (or just for reading this far!!) the user.hbm.xml looks a bit like <set name="clubs" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="user_ID"/> <many-to-many column="activity_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.Activity"/> </set> the activity.hbm.xml part <set name="members" inverse="true" table="userClubs" cascade="save-update"> <key column="activity_ID"/> <many-to-many column="user_ID" class="com.ActivityGB.client.domain.User"/> </set> The current userClubs table contains the fields id | user_ID | activity_ID I would like to include in there id | user_ID | activity_ID | role and be able to access the role on both sides...

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  • Which view will be resolved, code from spring's docs

    - by Blankman
    So when you go to /appointments the get() action is called, so then would the view be get.jsp (assuming you are using .jsp, and assuming you are mapping action names to views)? And what about the getnewform? It seems to be returning an object? Is that basically passed into the view? @Controller @RequestMapping("/appointments") public class AppointmentsController { private final AppointmentBook appointmentBook; @Autowired public AppointmentsController(AppointmentBook appointmentBook) { this.appointmentBook = appointmentBook; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> get() { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForToday(); } @RequestMapping(value="/{day}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> getForDay(@PathVariable @DateTimeFormat(iso=ISO.DATE) Date day, Model model) { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForDay(day); } @RequestMapping(value="/new", method = RequestMethod.GET) public AppointmentForm getNewForm() { return new AppointmentForm(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String add(@Valid AppointmentForm appointment, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "appointments/new"; } appointmentBook.addAppointment(appointment); return "redirect:/appointments"; } } In the example, the @RequestMapping is used in a number of places. The first usage is on the type (class) level, which indicates that all handling methods on this controller are relative to the /appointments path. The get() method has a further @RequestMapping refinement: it only accepts GET requests, meaning that an HTTP GET for /appointments invokes this method. The post() has a similar refinement, and the getNewForm() combines the definition of HTTP method and path into one, so that GET requests for appointments/new are handled by that method.

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  • Installing Sphinx on App Engine - possible?

    - by Pekka
    Following up on my last year's question on documentation, I now want to get started and try out Python-based Sphinx for putting together the developer documentation for a PHP CMS I've been working on. Instead of setting up Python locally on my workstation, I would like to run it on a publicly accessible web server from the start. All the web hosting packages I have access to run on the LAMP stack, and I'm reluctant to buy Python-based hosting. I am very interested in the Google App Engine, the free quotas they provide will do for me a hundred times over, and even if not, their pricing looks very reasonable. Now I have zero knowledge of Python - getting Sphinx to work would be my first contact with it - and very little time. As far as I understand, the platform and python libraries the App Engine provides are very compatible to a standard Python library but not identical. So my question is: Can Sphinx run on App Engine at all? Is installing Sphinx on the App Engine as straightforward as if I would install it on top of a normal Python installation? Or will the App Engine's environment require tweaking of the source code that I can't perform in reasonable time with my current level of Python? Should I be installing Sphinx on a local server and a "normal" Python stack instead first? Does anybody know any helpful How-to's, tutorials or other resources for this?

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  • Partial Classes - are they bad design?

    - by dferraro
    Hello, I'm wondering why the 'partial class' concept even exists in .NET. I'm working on an application and we are reading a (actually very good) book relavant to the development platform we are implementing at work. In the book he provides a large code base /wrapper around the platform API and explains how he developed it as he teaches different topics about the platform development. Anyway, long story short - he uses partial classes, all over the place, as a way to fake multiple inheritence in C# (IMO). Why he didnt just split the classes up into multiple ones and use composition is beyond me. He will have 3 'partial class' files to make up his base class, each w/ 3-500 lines of code... And does this several times in his API. Do you find this justifiable? If it were me, I'd have followed the S.R.P. and created multiple classes to handle different required behaviors, then create a base class that has instances of these classes as members (e.g. composition). Why did MS even put partial class into the framework?? They removed the ability to expand/collapse all code at each scope level in C# (this was allowed in C++) because it was obviously just allowing bad habits - partial class is IMO the same thing. I guess my quetion is: Can you explain to me when there would be a legitimate reason to ever use a partial class? I do not mean this to be a rant / war thread. I'm honeslty looking to learn something here. Thanks

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