Search Results

Search found 40915 results on 1637 pages for 'virtual method'.

Page 497/1637 | < Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >

  • Unable to ping server from client B but able to ping from client A. Please help

    - by Soundar Rajan
    This is not really a programming question, but I am at my wit's end ... I am trying to configure a IIS 6.0/Windows Server 2003 web server with a ASP.net application. When I try to ping the server from client computer A I get the following: PING 74.208.192.xxx ==> Ping fails PING 74.208.192.xxx:80 ==> Ping succeeds! From client computer B, BOTH the pings fail. PING 74.208.192.xxx ==> Ping fails PING 74.208.192.xxx:80 ==> Ping fails with a message "Ping request could not find host 74.208.192.xxx:80" Both clients A and B are on the same subnet. The server is outside (a virtual server hosted by an ISP) I have an ASP.NET application in a virtual directory on the server. In IE or firefox, if I enter http://74.208.192.xxx/subdir/subdir/../Default.aspx, it works from both the clients! The server has default firewall settings but web server enabled (Port 80 is open).

    Read the article

  • Incorrect syntax inserting data into table

    - by SelectDistinct
    I am having some trouble with my update() method. The idea is that the user Provides a recipe name, ingredients, instructions and then selects an image using Filestream. Once the user clicks 'Add Recipe' this will call the update method, however as things stand I am getting an error which is mentioning the contents of the text box: Here is the update() method code: private void updatedata() { // filesteam object to read the image // full length of image to a byte array try { // try to see if the image has a valid path if (imagename != "") { FileStream fs; fs = new FileStream(@imagename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); // a byte array to read the image byte[] picbyte = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(picbyte, 0, System.Convert.ToInt32(fs.Length)); fs.Close(); //open the database using odp.net and insert the lines string connstr = @"Server=mypcname\SQLEXPRESS;Database=RecipeOrganiser;Trusted_Connection=True"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); string query; query = "insert into Recipes(RecipeName,RecipeImage,RecipeIngredients,RecipeInstructions) values (" + textBox1.Text + "," + " @pic" + "," + textBox2.Text + "," + textBox3.Text + ")"; SqlParameter picparameter = new SqlParameter(); picparameter.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Image; picparameter.ParameterName = "pic"; picparameter.Value = picbyte; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn); cmd.Parameters.Add(picparameter); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("Image successfully saved"); cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); Connection(); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } Can anyone see where I have gone wrong with the insert into Recipes query or suggest an alternative approach to this part of the code?

    Read the article

  • Why can't pass Marshaled interface as integer(or pointer)

    - by cemick
    I passed ref of interface from Visio Add-ins to MyCOMServer (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2455183/interface-marshalling-in-delphi).I have to pass interface as pointer in internals method of MyCOMServer. I try to pass interface to internal method as pointer of interface, but after back cast when i try call method of interface I get exception. Simple example(Fisrt block execute without error, but At Second block I get Exception after addressed to property of IVApplication interface): procedure TMyCOMServer.test(const Interface_:IDispatch); stdcall; var IMy:_IMyInterface; V: Variant; Str: String; I: integer; Vis: IVApplication; begin ...... Self.QuaryInterface(_IMyInterface,IMy); str := IA.ApplicationName; V := Integer(IMy); i := V; Pointer(IMy) := Pointer(i); str := IMy.SomeProperty; // normal completion str := (Interface_ as IVApplication).Path; V := Interface_; I := V; Pointer(Vis) := Pointer(i); str := Vis.Path; // 'access violation at 0x76358e29: read of address 0xfeeefeee' end; Why I can't do like this?

    Read the article

  • Choosing between instance methods and separate functions?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Adding functionality to a class can be done by adding a method or by defining a function that takes an object as its first parameter. Most programmers that I know would choose for the solution of adding a instance method. However, I sometimes prefer to create a separate function. For example, in the example code below Area and Diagonal are defined as separate functions instead of methods. I find it better this way because I think these functions provide enhancements rather than core functionality. Is this considered a good/bad practice? If the answer is "it depends", then what are the rules for deciding between adding method or defining a separate function? class Rect { public: Rect(int x, int y, int w, int h) : mX(x), mY(y), mWidth(w), mHeight(h) { } int x() const { return mX; } int y() const { return mY; } int width() const { return mWidth; } int height() const { return mHeight; } private: int mX, mY, mWidth, mHeight; }; int Area(const Rect & inRect) { return inRect.width() * inRect.height(); } float Diagonal(const Rect & inRect) { return std::sqrt(std::pow(static_cast<float>(inRect.width()), 2) + std::pow(static_cast<float>(inRect.height()), 2)); }

    Read the article

  • Executing logic before save or validation with EF Code-First Models

    - by Ryan Norbauer
    I'm still getting accustomed to EF Code First, having spent years working with the Ruby ORM, ActiveRecord. ActiveRecord used to have all sorts of callbacks like before_validation and before_save, where it was possible to modify the object before it would be sent off to the data layer. I am wondering if there is an equivalent technique in EF Code First object modeling. I know how to set object members at the time of instantiation, of course, (to set default values and so forth) but sometimes you need to intervene at different moments in the object lifecycle. To use a slightly contrived example, say I have a join table linking Authors and Plays, represented with a corresponding Authoring object: public class Authoring { public int ID { get; set; } [Required] public int Position { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Play Play { get; set; } [Required] public virtual Author Author { get; set; } } where Position represents a zero-indexed ordering of the Authors associated to a given Play. (You might have a single "South Pacific" Play with two authors: a "Rodgers" author with a Position 0 and a "Hammerstein" author with a Position 1.) Let's say I wanted to create a method that, before saving away an Authoring record, it checked to see if there were any existing authors for the Play to which it was associated. If no, it set the Position to 0. If yes, it would find set the Position of the highest value associated with that Play and increment by one. Where would I implement such logic within an EF code first model layer? And, in other cases, what if I wanted to massage data in code before it is checked for validation errors? Basically, I'm looking for an equivalent to the Rails lifecycle hooks mentioned above, or some way to fake it at least. :)

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

    Read the article

  • converting a timestring to a duration

    - by radman
    Hi, At the moment I am trying to read in a timestring formatted and create a duration from that. I am currently trying to use the boost date_time time_duration class to read and store the value. boost date_time provides a method time_duration duration_from_string(std::string) that allows a time_duration to be created from a time string and it accepts strings formatted appropriately ("[-]h[h][:mm][:ss][.fff]".). Now this method works fine if you use a correctly formatted time string. However if you submit something invalid like "ham_sandwich" or "100" then you will still be returned a time_duration that is not valid. Specifically if you try to pass it to a standard output stream then an assertion will occur. My question is: Does anyone know how to test the validity of the boost time_duration? and failing that can you suggest another method of reading a timestring and getting a duration from it? Note: I have tried the obvious testing methods that time_duration provides; is_not_a_date_time(), is_special() etc and they don't pick up that there is an issue. Using boost 1.38.0

    Read the article

  • Java enums in generic type

    - by Marcin Cylke
    Hi, I'd like to create a generic enum-based mapper for IBatis. I'm doing this with the below code. This does have compile time errors, which I don't know how to fix. Maybe my solution is just plain wrong (keep in mind the use of IBatis), in such case please suggest something better. Any help appreciated. What I want to achieve is to define subsequent mappers as: public class XEnumTypeHandler extends CommonEnumTypeHandler<X> { } The current code: public class CommonEnumTypeHandler<T extends Enum> implements TypeHandlerCallback { public void setParameter(ParameterSetter ps, Object o) throws SQLException { if (o.getClass().isAssignableFrom(**T**)) { ps.setString(((**T**) o).value().toUpperCase()); } else throw new SQLException("Excpected ParameterType object than: " + o); } public Object getResult(ResultGetter rs) throws SQLException { Object o = valueOf(rs.getString()); if (o == null) throw new SQLException("Unknown parameter type: " + rs.getString()); return o; } public Object valueOf(String s) { for (T pt : T.**values()**) { if (pt.**value()**.equalsIgnoreCase(s)) return pt; } return null; } } I've added error markings to the above code, the error messages are in order: T cannot be resolved The method value() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T The method values() is undefined for the type T

    Read the article

  • Problem using Lazy<T> from within a generic abstract class

    - by James Black
    I have a generic class that all my DAO classes derive from, which is defined below. I also have a base class for all my entities, but that is not generic. The method GetIdOrSave is going to be a different type than how I defined SabaAbstractDAO, as I am trying to get the primary key to fulfill the foreign key relationships, so this function goes out to either get the primary key or save the entity and then get the primary key. The last code snippet has a solution on how it will work if I get rid of the generic part, so I think this can be solved by using variance, but I can't figure out how to write an interface that will compile. public abstract class SabaAbstractDAO<T> { ... public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaAbstractDAO<BaseModel>> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { if (item != null && item.Id.IsNull()) { var itemdao = lazyitemdao.Value; item.Id = itemdao.retrieveID(item); if (item.Id.IsNull()) { return itemdao.SaveData(item); } } return item; } } I am getting this error, when I try to compile: Argument 2: cannot convert from 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaCourseDAO>' to 'System.Lazy<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Dao.SabaAbstractDAO<ORNL.HRD.LMS.Models.BaseModel>>' I am trying to call it this way: GetIdOrSave(input.OfferingTemplate, new Lazy<SabaCourseDAO>( () => { return new SabaCourseDAO() { Dao = Dao }; }) ); If I change the definition to this, it works. public K GetIdOrSave<K>(K item, Lazy<SabaCourseDAO> lazyitemdao) where K : BaseModel { So, how can I get this to compile using variance (if needed) and generics, so I can have a very general method that will only work with BaseModel and AbstractDAO<BaseModel>? I expect I should only need to make the change in the method and perhaps abstract class definition, the usage should be fine.

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate mapping of composite foreign keys

    - by Faron
    I have an existing database schema and wish to replace the custom data access code with Fluent.NHibernate. The database schema cannot be changed since it already exists in a shipping product. And it is preferable if the domain objects did not change or only changed minimally. I am having trouble mapping one unusual schema construct illustrated with the following table structure: CREATE TABLE [Container] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item] ( [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Container_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) The existing domain model has the following class structure: The Property class contains other members representing the property's name and value. The ContainerProperty and ItemProperty classes have no additional members. They exist only to identify the owner of the Property. The Container and Item classes have methods that return collections of ContainerProperty and ItemProperty respectively. Additionally, the Container class has a method that returns a collection of all of the Property objects in the object graph. My best guess is that this was either a convenience method or a legacy method that was never removed. The business logic mainly works with Item (as the aggregate root) and only works with a Container when adding or removing Items. I have tried several techniques for mapping this but none work so I won't include them here unless someone asks for them. How would you map this?

    Read the article

  • How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ?

    - by Ernst de Haan
    How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ? I have an open-source project that I am converting from Ant to Maven, including its unit tests. Here's the project source repository with the Maven project: http://github.com/znerd/logdoc My question pertains to the primary module, called "base". This module has a unit test that tests the behaviour of the static method getVersion() in the class org.znerd.logdoc.Library. This method returns: Library.class.getPackage().getImplementationVersion() The getImplementationVersion() method returns a value of a setting in the manifest file. So far, so good. I have tested this in the past and it works well, as long as the manifest is indeed available on the classpath at the path META-INF/MANIFEST.MF (either on the file system or inside a JAR file). Now my challenge is that the manifest file is not available when I run the unit tests: mvn test Surefire runs the unit tests, but my unit test fails with a mesage indicating that Library.getVersion() returned null. When I want to check the JAR, I find that it has not even been generated. Maven/Surefire runs the unit tests against the classes, before the resources are added to the classpath. So can I either run the unit tests against the JAR (implicitly requiring the JAR to be generated first) or can I make sure the resources (including the manifest file) are generated/copied under target/classes before the unit tests are run? Note that I use Maven 2.2.0, Java 1.6.0_17 on Mac OS X 10.6.2, with JUnit 4.8.1.

    Read the article

  • Nested Class member function can't access function of enclosing class. Why?

    - by Rahul
    Please see the example code below: class A { private: class B { public: foobar(); }; public: foo(); bar(); }; Within class A & B implementation: A::foo() { //do something } A::bar() { //some code foo(); //more code } A::B::foobar() { //some code foo(); //<<compiler doesn't like this } The compiler flags the call to foo() within the method foobar(). Earlier, I had foo() as private member function of class A but changed to public assuming that B's function can't see it. Of course, it didn't help. I am trying to re-use the functionality provided by A's method. Why doesn't the compiler allow this function call? As I see it, they are part of same enclosing class (A). I thought the accessibility issue for nested class meebers for enclosing class in C++ standards was resolved. How can I achieve what I am trying to do without re-writing the same method (foo()) for B, which keeping B nested within A? I am using VC++ compiler ver-9 (Visual Studio 2008). Thank you for your help.

    Read the article

  • JAVASCRIPT ENABLED [closed]

    - by kirchoffs415
    HI, I hope somebody can help, i keep getting the following message when i log on-- Your Javascript is disabled. Limited functionality is available. it will stay for maybe a day sometimes two.I have uninstalled javascript and reinstalled but still the same. Iam using chrome. any help would be gratefull many thanks Dominic p.s. my system spec is as follows System InformationOS Name Microsoft® Windows Vista™ Home Premium Version 6.0.6002 Service Pack 2 Build 6002 Other OS Description Not Available OS Manufacturer Microsoft Corporation System Name DOM-PC System Manufacturer Dell Inc. System Model Inspiron 1545 System Type X86-based PC Processor Pentium(R) Dual-Core CPU T4200 @ 2.00GHz, 2000 Mhz, 2 Core(s), 2 Logical Processor(s) BIOS Version/Date Dell Inc. A05, 25/02/2009 SMBIOS Version 2.4 Windows Directory C:\Windows System Directory C:\Windows\system32 Boot Device \Device\HarddiskVolume3 Locale United Kingdom Hardware Abstraction Layer Version = "6.0.6002.18005" User Name DOM-PC\DOM Time Zone GMT Standard Time Installed Physical Memory (RAM) 3.00 GB Total Physical Memory 2.96 GB Available Physical Memory 1.38 GB Total Virtual Memory 5.89 GB Available Virtual Memory 4.25 GB Page File Space 3.00 GB Page File C:\pagefile.sys My System Specs

    Read the article

  • Django Development Environment Setup Questions

    - by Ross Peoples
    Hello, I'm trying to set up a good development environment for a Django project that I will be working on from two different physical locations. I have two Mac machines, one at home and one at work that I do most of my development on. I currently host a Ubuntu virtual machine on one of the machines to host the Django environemnt, install DropBox on it, and edit source code from my Mac. When I save the code file, the changes get synced over DropBox to the Ubuntu VM and the Django development server automatically restarts because of the change. This method has worked well in the past, but I am starting to use DropBox for a lot of other things now and don't want all of that to be downloaded on every virtual machine I use. Plus, I want to start using Eclipse + PyDev to be able to debug code and have code completion. Currently, I use TextEdit which is great, but doesn't support debugging or completion. So what are my options? I thought about setting up a Parallels VM on a thumb drive that has my entire environment on it (Eclipse included), but that has its own problems. Any other thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Appending string in NSXMLNode

    - by iSight
    Hi, When I call the method setStringValue:mCurrentString when is encountered, the child elements which are already attached to element are detached. Can any one suggest why it is happening so. The sample XML file goes like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Test xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Version="1.0"> <Page Id="123-234-345-456-567"> <Word/> <Text Id="234-345-456-567-678" Left="120.789" Top="120.234657" Width="300.2390" Height="50.00"> <Content> <![CDATA[<FlowDocument FontFamily="Helvetica" FontSize="24" Foreground="#FFFFFF00" TextAlignment="Left" PagePadding="5,0,5,0" AllowDrop="True" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation"><Paragraph><Run FontFamily="Helvetica" FontSize="24" Foreground="FF00B38D" xml:lang="en-gb">This is for Testing purpose</Run></Paragraph>]]></Content> <Stroke Color="#FF00B300" Width="10"/> </Text> <Image Id="345-456-567-678-789" Left="200.345" Top="350.678" Width="200.00" Height="200.00"> <Source>Bear.png</Source> </Image> </Page> <Page Id="345-897-123-756-098" Left="100.90" Top="200.098" Width="200.098" Height="50.09"> <Image Id="756-098-978-685-298" Left="12098" Top="340.87" Right="109.78" Height="100.987"> <Source>Flower.png</Source> </Image> </Page> </Test> This is the method i am using for an NSXMLElement object: [mCurrentElement setStringValue:mCurrentString];// mCurrentString is the string that obtained through delegate method.

    Read the article

  • delete vs execSQL commands android

    - by erik
    so i have a databas, SQLiteDatabase db I am writing a couple private methods in my manager class that will be called by a public method: public void updateData (MakeabilityModel newData){ SQLiteDatabase db = this.getWritableDatabase(); db.beginTransaction(); try { reWriteSVTable(db, list); db.setTransactionSuccessful(); } catch (Exception e){ //TODO through rollback message? e.printStackTrace(); } finally { db.endTransaction(); } } //Private Methods private void clearTable(SQLiteDatabase db, String table){ db.delete(table, null, null); } private void reWriteSVTable(SQLiteDatabase db, List<MakeabilityLens> lenses){ clearTable(db, singleVision); ContentValues cv; for(int i=0; i<lenses.size(); i++){ cv = new ContentValues(); cv.put(colScreenID, hsID); cv.put(colIconID, id); cv.put(colRank, hsTotal); db.insert(isLookUp, colID, cv); } } My question is this.. i want to be able to throw sql exceptions back to the public method so that if there is an exception, it will kill the transaction and rollback ALL data.. it appears that using delete() and insert() methods are cleaner than execSQL() but don't throw sqlExceptions. execSQL() on the other hand does? do i need to uses execSQL and how do i insure that hsould it throws an exception in any of the private methods that it will catch it and roll it back in the private method

    Read the article

  • Fastest Java way to remove the first/top line of a file (like a stack)

    - by christangrant
    I am trying to improve an external sort implementation in java. I have a bunch of BufferedReader objects open for temporary files. I repeatedly remove the top line from each of these files. This pushes the limits of the Java's Heap. I would like a more scalable method of doing this without loosing speed because of a bunch of constructor calls. One solution is to only open files when they are needed, then read the first line and then delete it. But I am afraid that this will be significantly slower. So using Java libraries what is the most efficient method of doing this. --Edit-- For external sort, the usual method is to break a large file up into several chunk files. Sort each of the chunks. And then treat the sorted files like buffers, pop the top item from each file, the smallest of all those is the global minimum. Then continue until for all items. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/External_sorting My temporary files (buffers) are basically BufferedReader objects. The operations performed on these files are the same as stack/queue operations (peek and pop, no push needed). I am trying to make these peek and pop operations more efficient. This is because using many BufferedReader objects takes up too much space.

    Read the article

  • Can Bonjour browse a service with a particular name?

    - by Roman
    Bonjour provides "DNSSD.browse(serviceType,callBackObject)" method which browses for services of a particular type. If a service of the given type is found, Bonjour call "callBackObject.serviceFound". If the service is lost, Bonjour calls "callBackObject.serviceLost". I alway considered "DNSSD.browse" as a method for monitoring a particular service. Bonjour monitors a particular service and calls necessary method if the service is found (available) or lost (not available). But than I realized that "DNSSD.browse" receives (as argument) a type of service (for example "http.tcp") and there can be several services of this type. So, its probably calls "serviceFound" and "serviceLost" if any service of the specified type is found or lost, respectively. But in my application I would like to browse just for one particular service. What is the best way to do it? I have two potential solutions: When I register a service, I give it a unique type. For example: "server1.http.tcp". I register services with unique names (not types) and ask Bonjour to browse for services with particular names. But I am not sure that Bonjour provide such possibility. Can it browse for services with specific names?

    Read the article

  • Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

    Read the article

  • Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

    - by SG1
    I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Swing GUI using JNI crashes

    - by Div
    Hi, A java swing application(GUI) using JNI code to communicate with native C code. The Swing application launches properly and works fine. The GUI is used to start some customized system level tests(io,memory,cpu) and show their progress. The tests have to be left running at-least overnight to get the results. But, the next morning, GUI crashes and throws following message. Any pointers on source of the issue will be greatly appreciated. Java version: java 1.5 / java 1.6 OS: Solaris 10. Thanks, Div =============MESSAGES================== # uname -a SunOS Generic_127127-11 sun4v sparc SUNW, # # # # An unexpected error has been detected by HotSpot Virtual Machine: # # SIGSEGV (0xb) at pc=0xff268924, pid=9473, tid=272 # # Java VM: Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (1.5.0_14-b03 mixed mode) # Problematic frame: # C [libc.so.1+0x68924] strstr+0x20 # # An error report file with more information is saved as hs_err_pid9473.log # # If you would like to submit a bug report, please visit: # HotSpot Virtual Machine Error Reporting Page # ============================= Another machine: # A fatal error has been detected by the Java Runtime Environment: # # SIGSEGV (0xb) at pc=0xff231fd0, pid=1406, tid=180 # # JRE version: 6.0_18-b07 # Java VM: Java HotSpot(TM) Server VM (16.0-b13 mixed mode solaris-sparc ) # Problematic frame: # C [libc.so.1+0x31fd0] strcpy+0x70 # # An error report file with more information is saved as: # /usr/sunvts/bin/hs_err_pid1406.log #

    Read the article

  • What's the order of execution in property setters when using IDataErrorInfo?

    - by Benny Jobigan
    Situation: Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question: In a binding situation, when does the validation code get executed? When is the property set? When is the setter code executed? What if the validation fails? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

    Read the article

  • Rails Tableless Model

    - by mplacona
    I'm creating a tableless Rails model, and am a bit stuck on how I should use it. Basically I'm trying to create a little application using Feedzirra that scans a RSS feed every X seconds, and then sends me an email with only the updates. I'm actually trying to use it as an activerecord model, and although I can get it to work, it doesn't seem to "hold" data as expected. As an example, I have an initializer method that parses the feed for the first time. On the next requests, I would like to simply call the get_updates method, which according to feedzirra, is the existing object (created during the initialize) that gets updated with only the differences. I'm finding it really hard to understand how this all works, as the object created on the initialize method doesn't seem to persist across all the methods on the model. My code looks something like: def initialize feed parse here end def get_updates feedzirra update passing the feed object here end Not sure if this is the right way of doing it, but it all seems a bit confusing and not very clear. I could be over or under-doing here, but I'd like your opinion about this approach. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Inereritance of clousure objects and overriding of methods

    - by bobikk
    I need to extend a class, which is encapsulated in a closure. This base class is following: var PageController = (function(){ // private static variable var _current_view; return function(request, new_view) { ... // priveleged public function, which has access to the _current_view this.execute = function() { alert("PageController::execute"); } } })();` Inheritance is realised using the following function: function extend(subClass, superClass){ var F = function(){ }; F.prototype = superClass.prototype; subClass.prototype = new F(); subClass.prototype.constructor = subClass; subClass.superclass = superClass.prototype; StartController.cache = ''; if (superClass.prototype.constructor == Object.prototype.constructor) { superClass.prototype.constructor = superClass; } } I subclass the PageController: var StartController = function(request){ // calling the constructor of the super class StartController.superclass.constructor.call(this, request, 'start-view'); } // extending the objects extend(StartController, PageController); // overriding the PageController::execute StartController.prototype.execute = function() { alert('StartController::execute'); } Inheritance is working. I can call every PageController's method from StartController's instance. However, method overriding doesn't work: var startCont = new StartController(); startCont.execute(); alerts "PageController::execute". How should I override this method?

    Read the article

  • Web service performing asynchronous call

    - by kornelijepetak
    I have a webservice method FetchNumber() that fetches a number from a database and then returns it to the caller. But just before it returns the number to the caller, it needs to send this number to another service so instantiates and runs the BackgroundWorker whose job is to send this number to another service. public class FetchingNumberService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public int FetchNumber() { int value = Database.GetNumber(); AsyncUpdateNumber async = new AsyncUpdateNumber(value); return value; } } public class AsyncUpdateNumber { public AsyncUpdateNumber(int number) { sendingNumber = number; worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.DoWork += asynchronousCall; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void asynchronousCall(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Sending a number to a service (which is Synchronous) here } private int sendingNumber; private BackgroundWorker worker; } I don't want to block the web service (FetchNumber()) while sending this number to another service, because it can take a long time and the caller does not care about sending the number to another service. Caller expects this to return as soon as possible. FetchNumber() makes the background worker and runs it, then finishes (while worker is running in the background thread). I don't need any progress report or return value from the background worker. It's more of a fire-and-forget concept. My question is this. Since the web service object is instantiated per method call, what happens when the called method (FetchNumber() in this case) is finished, while the background worker it instatiated and ran is still running? What happens to the background thread? When does GC collect the service object? Does this prevent the background thread from executing correctly to the end? Are there any other side-effects on the background thread? Thanks for any input.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504  | Next Page >