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  • Problem with Java Applet <--> Javascript communication

    - by davr
    I'm having trouble getting a Java Applet to communicate with the Javascript code on the page the applet is hosted on. It works sometimes, but othertimes it throws an obscure exception, that googling for has not turned up any useful information, besides a few Java bug reports that were never resolved (thanks Sun). Here is the code I am using: JSObject win = JSObject.getWindow(this); Object[] args = new Object[1]; args[0] = "test argument"; String result = (String) win.call("testJSfunc", args); // XXX Here is the exception I get on the line marked // XXX. Note that it is intermittent. Often it works, but sometimes it does not, using the same exact code. Reloading the page repeatedly will produce the error pretty quickly. netscape.javascript.JSException: No registered plugin for applet ID 1 at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.newJSException(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.waitForReply(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.main.client.MessagePassingJSObject.call(Unknown Source) at TestApplet.testCallJS(TestApplet.java:159) at TestApplet.init(TestApplet.java:139) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Is there another more stable way of communicating between Java and Javascript that I should be using?

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  • Trying to grab just absolute links from a webpage using BeautifulSoup

    - by Kevin
    I am reading the contents of a webpage using BeautifulSoup. What I want is to just grab the <a href> that start with http://. I know in beautifulsoup you can search by the attributes. I guess I am just having a syntax issue. I would imagine it would go something like. page = urllib2.urlopen("http://www.linkpages.com") soup = BeautifulSoup(page) for link in soup.findAll('a'): if link['href'].startswith('http://'): print links But that returns: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 2, in <module> File "C:\Python26\lib\BeautifulSoup.py", line 598, in __getitem__ return self._getAttrMap()[key] KeyError: 'href' Any ideas? Thanks in advance. EDIT This isn't for any site in particular. The script gets the url from the user. So internal link targets would be an issue, that's also why I only want the <'a'> from the pages. If I turn it towards www.reddit.com, it parses the beginning links and it gets to this: <a href="http://www.reddit.com/top/">top</a> <a href="http://www.reddit.com/saved/">saved</a> Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 2, in <module> File "C:\Python26\lib\BeautifulSoup.py", line 598, in __getitem__ return self._getAttrMap()[key] KeyError: 'href'

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  • jquery insertAfter or append question

    - by user271619
    I am playing around with validating form inputs. For now I'm simply having fun with displaying a message after the input. I'm using the after() method to display simple text, and when I purposely make a mistake in the box I display the message perfectly. However, if I purposely make a mistake again, it immediately adds the same message after the first error message. Is there a method that replaces the original? I didn't want to try to add some more code to look for that original error message, delete it, and then insert the same message again. I will if I have to, but I thought I'd ask first. Here's my code: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("form#testform").submit(function(){ if($("#fieldname1").val().length < 5){ $("#fieldone").after("<div>not enough characters</div>"); } });return false; }); </script> <form id="testform" method="post"> <table> <tr> <td style="width:100px;">Field One:</td> <td><input type="text" name="fieldname1" id="fieldname1" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td><input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit" /></td> </tr> </table> </form>

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  • CKEditor plugin to close editor

    - by David Lawson
    The problem with destroying the editor from within a plugin, is that certain code tries to use the editor after the destructive plugin code, when in fact the editor is no longer there, causing errors and instability. I have come up with the following code for a plugin which closes the editor using both async:true and setTimeout: var cancelAddCmd = { modes : { wysiwyg:1, source:1 }, async: true, exec : function( editor ) { if(confirm('Are you sure you want to cancel editing and discard all content?')) setTimeout(function() { editor.destroy(); }, 100); } }; The problem I see is that it uses a dodgy setTimout call that would likely have mixed results depending on the computer's speed of execution - 100ms might not have passed by the time it would be OK to destroy the editor. Is there a proper way to destroy the editor from within a plugin? Even with async: true; and no setTimeout errors are created. Maybe a possible solution would be to stop any existing/any more code related to the editor from running afterwards, if possible? I have tried using events, like on('afterCommandExec', function(){ editor.destroy(); }) and some other events, but that hasn't helped much... doesn't seem like there is an event for when the editor has jumped out of its stack call for handling the button. And there is no way to stop execution by disposing of the CKEditor instance more properly?

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  • Trouble with Rails has_many relationships

    - by Tchock
    I'm writing an app where a user can both create their own pages for people to post on, and follow posts on pages that users have created. Here is what my model relationships look like at the moment... class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pages has_many :posts has_many :followings has_many :pages, :through => :followings, :source => :user class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts belongs_to :user has_many :followings has_many :users, :through => :followings class Following < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :page class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :page belongs_to :user The trouble happens when I try to work my way down through the relationships in order to create a homepage of pages (and corresponding posts) a given user is following (similar to the way Twitter's user homepage works when you login - a page that provides you a consolidated view of all the latest posts from the pages you are following)... I get a "method not found" error when I try to call followings.pages. Ideally, I'd like to be able to call User.pages in a way that gets me the pages a user is following, rather than the pages they have created. I'm a programming and Rails newb, so any help would be much appreciated! I tried to search through as much of this site as possible before posting this question (along with numerous Google searches), but nothing seemed as specific as my problem...

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  • Paypal subscriptions IPN - problem with users subscribing multiple times

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I'm using paypal subscriptions and the instant payment notification (IPN) to handle subscribers on my site. For the most part it works well but there is one occasional problem I've encountered. Usually if a user cancels their subscription, I wait for the "end of term" (subscr_eot) notification before disabling access to my site. So if they prepay for the whole month, and then cancel right away, they still have access for the rest of the month (as it should be). But some users are having this problem where they: Cancel their subscription Before the "end of term" is reached they decide to re-subscribe When the "end of term" is reached for their first subscription, my app receives the notification and fires off an email to the user with something like "your account has been disabled, if you ever want to sign up again, you can re-subscribe by clicking here". This confuses them because they are thinking...that's weird, I thought I subscribed like a week ago (and they did). So they go subscribe AGAIN. Now they have two concurrent running subscriptions to my site and I get a support email in a month or two ("wtf you billed me twice this month jerk!!") So I haven't found a good way to fix this. I guess the best solution would be to do an additional API call when the "end of term" notification is received which asks paypal "hey did this person already re-subscribe?". If so then no need to fire off that email. But I haven't seen any way to do this API call yet. Another solution is to disable their account immediately when they cancel (the "subscr_cancel" notification) but then I get different angry support emails "hey I prepaid for the whole month why was my account disabled already!!". Anyone else solved this?

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  • Reading a Serial Port - Ignore portion of data written to serial port for certain time

    - by farmerjoe
    I would like to read data coming and Arduino on a serial port on intervals. So essentially something like Take a reading Wait Take a reading Wait Take ... etc. The problem I am facing is that the port will buffer its information so as soon as I call a wait function the data on the serial port will start buffering. Once the wait function finishes I try and read the data again but I am reading from the beginning of the buffer and the data is not current anymore, but instead is the reading taken at roughly the time the wait function began. My question is whether there is a way that I am unaware of to ignore the portion of data read in during that wait period and only read what is currently being delivered on the serial port? I have this something analogous to this so far: import serial s = serial.Serial(path_to_my_serial_port,9600) while True: print s.readline() time.sleep(.5) For explanation purposes I have the Arduino outputting the time since it began its loop. By the python code, the time of each call should be a half second apart. By the serial output the time is incrementing in less than a millisecond. These values do not change regardless of the sleep timing. Sample output: 504 504 504 504 505 505 505 ... As an idea of my end goal, I would like to measure the value of the port, wait a time delay, see what the value is then, wait again, see what the value is then, wait again. I am currently using Python for this but am open to other languages.

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  • Redirect to new page if cookie doesn't exist or if the value of cookie is 'false'

    - by liquilife
    I have a DOB 'Are you over 18' script which when the form is filled out, validates if they are over 18 or not for a tobacco site I am working on. When this form is filled it stores a cookie 'ageCheck' with a value of either true or false. I'm having some issues with a bit of javascript which is stored on all the pages to determine if they can view the page or if they need to be redirected to the verification page. The javascript is supposed to set a div ID to 'display:block' if passed and if no cookie is found OR the cookie value is false is supposed to redirect them to the age verification page. However, it's just not working. I see the cookies are set correctly. Below is my code.. any help is appreciated. <script> document.body.onload = function() { var ageCheck = getCookie('ageCheck'); if ('true' == ageCheck) { document.getElementById('content').style.display = ''; } else { document.location = '/ageCheck.html'; } } function getCookie(c_name) { if (document.cookie.length > 0) { c_start = document.cookie.indexOf(c_name + "="); if (c_start != -1) { c_start = c_start + c_name.length + 1; c_end = document.cookie.indexOf(";", c_start); if (c_end == -1) c_end = document.cookie.length; return unescape(document.cookie.substring(c_start, c_end)); } } return ""; } </script>

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  • MATLAB Builder NE (.NET Assembly) Data type question

    - by Brett
    Hi coders, I am using MATLAB Builder NE (MATLAB's integrated .NET assmebly builder), but I am having an issue with data types. I have compiled a small, very simple, function in matlab and build it for .NET. I am able to call the namespace and even the function just fine. However, my function returns a value, and MATLAB defaults to returning it as an "object[]" data type. However, I know that the value is an integer, but I can't figure out how to cast it. My MATLAB function looks like this: function addValue = Myfunction(value1, value2) addValue=value1+value2; end Pretty simple right? And then in .NET I can call it as: xClass.addValue (1, 3, 4); where xClass is the name of the MATLAB built class but when I try: int x = xClass.addValue (1, 3, 4); C# errors out. Typical .NET casting (int) doesn't work. The compiler states it cannot convert object[] to int. Does anyone have experience with the .NET builder in MATLAB that can help me with this? It is really throwing me for a loop. I have scanned through most of the MATLAB BUILDER doc (484 pages!) with zero help. Thank you, Brett

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  • Django custom managers - how do I return only objects created by the logged-in user?

    - by Tom Tom
    I want to overwrite the custom objects model manager to only return objects a specific user created. Admin users should still return all objects using the objects model manager. Now I have found an approach that could work. They propose to create your own middleware looking like this: #### myproject/middleware/threadlocals.py try: from threading import local except ImportError: # Python 2.3 compatibility from django.utils._threading_local import local _thread_locals = local() def get_current_user(): return getattr(_thread_locals, 'user', None) class ThreadLocals(object): """Middleware that gets various objects from the request object and saves them in thread local storage.""" def process_request(self, request): _thread_locals.user = getattr(request, 'user', None) #### end And in the Custom manager you could call the get_current_user() method to return only objects a specific user created. class UserContactManager(models.Manager): def get_query_set(self): return super(UserContactManager, self).get_query_set().filter(creator=get_current_user()) Is this a good approach to this use-case? Will this work? Or is this like "using a sledgehammer to crack a nut" ? ;-) Just using: Contact.objects.filter(created_by= user) in each view doesn`t look very neat to me. EDIT Do not use this middleware approach !!! use the approach stated by Jack M. below After a while of testing this approach behaved pretty strange and with this approach you mix up a global-state with a current request. Use the approach presented below. It is really easy and no need to hack around with the middleware. create a custom manager in your model with a function that expects the current user or any other user as an input. #in your models.py class HourRecordManager(models.Manager): def for_user(self, user): return self.get_query_set().filter(created_by=user) class HourRecord(models.Model): #Managers objects = HourRecordManager() #in vour view you can call the manager like this and get returned only the objects from the currently logged-in user. hr_set = HourRecord.objects.for_user(request.user)

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  • Did I find a bug in WriteableBitmap when using string literals

    - by liserdarts
    For performance reasons I'm converting a large list of images into a single image. This code does exactly what I want. Private Function FlattenControl(Control As UIElement) As Image Control.Measure(New Size(1000, 1000)) Control.Arrange(New Rect(0, 0, 1000, 1000)) Dim ImgSource As New Imaging.WriteableBitmap(1000, 1000) ImgSource.Render(Control, New TranslateTransform) ImgSource.Invalidate Dim Img As New Image Img.Source = ImgSource Return Img End Function I can add all the images into a canvas pass the canvas to this function and I get back one image. My code to load all the images looks like this. Public Function BuildTextures(Layer As GLEED2D.Layer) As FrameworkElement Dim Container As New Canvas For Each Item In Layer.Items If TypeOf Item Is GLEED2D.TextureItem Then Dim Texture = CType(Item, GLEED2D.TextureItem) Dim Url As New Uri(Texture.texture_filename, UriKind.Relative) Dim Img As New Image Img.Source = New Imaging.BitmapImage(Url) Container.Children.Add(Img) End If Next Return FlattenControl(Container) End Function The GLEED2D.Layer and GLEED2D.TextureItem classes are from the free level editor GLEED2D (http://www.gleed2d.de/). The texture_filename on every TextureItem is "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png" This works just fine, but it's just a proof of concept. What I really need to do (among other things) is have the path to the image hard coded. If I replace Texture.texture_filename in the code above with the string literal "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png" the images do not appear in the final merged image. I can add a breakpoint and see that the WriteableBitmap has all of it's pixels as 0 after the call to Invalidate. I have no idea how this could cause any sort of difference, but it gets stranger. If I remove the call to FlattenControl and just return the Canvas instead, the images are visible. It's only when I use the string literal with the WriableBitmap that the images do not appear. I promise you that the value in the texture_filename property is exactly "Images/tree_clipart_pine_tree.png". I'm using Silverlight 3 and I've also reproduced this in Silverlight 4. Any ideas?

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  • Strange - Clicking Update button doesn’t cause a postback due to <!-- tag

    - by AspOnMyNet
    If I define the following template inside DetailsView, then upon clicking an Update or Insert button, the page is posted back to the server: <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDate" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Date") %>'></asp:TextBox> <asp:CompareValidator ID="valDateType" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtDate" Type="Date" Operator="DataTypeCheck" Display="Dynamic" >*</asp:CompareValidator> </EditItemTemplate> If I remove CompareValidator control from the above code by simply deleting it, then page still gets posted back.But if instead I remove CompareValidator control by enclosing it within <!-- --> tags, then for some reason clicking an Update or Insert button doesn’t cause a postback...instead nothing happens: <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDate" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Date") %>'></asp:TextBox> <!-- <asp:CompareValidator ID="valDateType" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtDate" Type="Date" Operator="DataTypeCheck" Display="Dynamic" >*</asp:CompareValidator> --> </EditItemTemplate> </EditItemTemplate> Any idea why page doesn't get posted back? thanx

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  • custom httphandler in asp.net cannot get request querystring?

    - by Sander
    i've been trying to get this to work. its basicly a way to have certain MVC pages work within a webforms cms (umbraco) someone tried it before me and had issues with MVC2.0 (see here), i read the post, did what was announced there, but with or without that code, i seem to get stuck on a different matter. it seems like, if i call an url, it fires the handler, but fails to request the querystring passed, the variable originalPath is always empty, for example i call this url: http://localhost:8080/mvc.ashx?mvcRoute=/home/RSVPForm the handler is supposed to get the mvcRoute but it is always empty. thus gets rewritten to a simple / and then returns resource cannot be found error. here is the code i use now public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) { string originalPath = httpContext.Request.Path; string newPath = httpContext.Request.QueryString["mvcRoute"]; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(newPath)) newPath = "/"; HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(newPath, false); IHttpHandler ih = (IHttpHandler)new MvcHttpHandler(); ih.ProcessRequest(httpContext); HttpContext.Current.RewritePath(originalPath, false); } i would like some new input on this as i'm staring myself blind on such a simple issue, while i thought i would have more problems with mvc itself :p Edit have no time to investigate, but after copying the site over to different locations, using numerous web.config changes (unrelated to this error but was figuring other things out) this error seems to have solved itself. so its no longer an issue, however i have no clue as to what exactly made this to work again.

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  • Why is TransactionScope operation is not valid?

    - by Cragly
    I have a routine which uses a recursive loop to insert items into a SQL Server 2005 database The first call which initiates the loop is enclosed within a transaction using TransactionScope. When I first call ProcessItem the myItem data gets inserted into the database as expected. However when ProcessItem is called from either ProcessItemLinks or ProcessItemComments I get the following error. “The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction” I am running this in debug with VS 2008 on Windows 7 and have the MSDTC running to enable distributed transactions. The code below isn’t my production code but is set out exactly the same. The AddItemToDatabase is a method on a class I cannot modify and uses a standard ExecuteNonQuery() which creates a connection then closes and disposes once completed. I have looked at other posting on here and the internet and still cannot resolve this issue. Any help would be much appreciated. using (TransactionScope processItem = new TransactionScope()) { foreach (Item myItem in itemsList) { ProcessItem(myItem); } processItem.Complete(); } private void ProcessItem(Item myItem) { AddItemToDatabase(myItem); ProcessItemLinks(myItem); ProcessItemComments(myItem); } private void ProcessItemLinks(Item myItem) { foreach (Item link in myItem.Links) { ProcessItem(link); } } private void ProcessItemComments(Item myItem) { foreach (Item comment in myItem.Comments) { ProcessItem(comment); } } Here is top part of the stack trace. Unfortunatly I cant show the build up to this point as its company sensative information which I can not disclose. Hope this is enough information. at System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) at System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open()

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  • WPF Background Thread Invocation

    - by jeffn825
    Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

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  • Programmatically implementing an interface that combines some instances of the same interface in var

    - by namin
    What is the best way to implement an interface that combines some instances of the same interface in various specified ways? I need to do this for multiple interfaces and I want to minimize the boilerplate and still achieve good efficiency, because I need this for a critical production system. Here is a sketch of the problem. Abstractly, I have a generic combiner class which takes the instances and specify the various combinators: class Combiner<I> { I[] instances; <T> T combineSomeWay(InstanceMethod<I,T> method) { // ... method.call(instances[i]) ... combined in some way ... } // more combinators } Now, let's say I want to implement the following interface among many others: Interface Foo { String bar(int baz); } I want to end up with code like this: class FooCombiner implements Foo { Combiner<Foo> combiner; @Override public String bar(final int baz) { return combiner.combineSomeWay(new InstanceMethod<Foo, String> { @Override public call(Foo instance) { return instance.bar(baz); } }); } } Now, this can quickly get long and winded if the interfaces have lots of methods. I know I could use a dynamic proxy from the Java reflection API to implement such interfaces, but method access via reflection is hundred times slower. So what are the alternatives to boilerplate and reflection in this case?

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  • Loading through Ajax request and bookmarked URL

    - by Varun
    I am working on a ticket system, having the following requirement: The home page is divided into two sections: Sec-1. Some filter options are shown here.(like closed-tickets, open-tickets, all-tickets, tickets-assigned-to-me etc.). You can select one or more of these filters. sec-2. List of tickets satisfying above filters will be displayed here. Now this is what I want: As I change the filters -- the change should be reflected in the URL, so that one is able to bookmark it. -- an ajax request will go and list of tickets satisfying the selected filters will be updated in sec-2. I want the same code to be used to load the tickets in both ways- (a) by selecting that set of filters and (b) by using the bookmark to reload the page. I have little idea on how to do it: The URL will contain the selected filters.(appended after #) changing filters on the page will modify the hash part of URL and call a function (say ajaxHandler()) to parse the URL to get the filters and then make an ajax request to get the list of tickets to be displayed in section2. and I will call the same function ajaxHandler() in window.onload. Is this the way? Any suggestions?

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  • Android media thumbnails. Serious issues?

    - by Ralphleon
    I've been playing with android's thumbnails for a while now, and I've seen some inconsistencies that make me want to scream. My goal is to have a simple list of all Images (and a separate list for video) with the thumbnail and filename. Device: HTC Evo (fresh from Google I/o) First off: http://androidsamples.blogspot.com/2009/06/how-to-display-thumbnails-of-images.html That code doesn't seem to work at all, thumbnails are duplicated... some with the "mirror" effect and some without. Also some won't load and just display a black square. I've tried rebuilding the thumbnails by deleting the "alblum thumbs" directory from the SD card. HTC's gallery application seem to show everything fine. This approach seems to work: Bitmap thumb = MediaStore.Images.Thumbnails.getThumbnail( getContentResolver(), id, MediaStore.Video.Thumbnails.MICRO_KIND, null); imageView.setImageBitmap(curThumb); where id is the original images id and imageView is some image view. This is great! But, strangely, way too slow to be used inside a SimpleViewBinder. Next approach: String [] proj = {MediaStore.Images.Thumbnails._ID}; Cursor c = managedQuery(MediaStore.Images.Thumbnails.EXTERNAL_CONTENT_URI, proj, MediaStore.Images.Thumbnails.IMAGE_ID + "=" +id , null, null); if (c != null && c.moveToFirst()) { Uri thumb = Uri.withAppendedPath(mThumbUri,c.getLong(0)+""); imageView.setImageURI(thumb); } I should explain that I feel the needed WHERE condition is required because there doesn't seem to be any guarantee that your uri will have the same ID for both a thumbnail and its parent image. This works for all of the current images, but as soon as I start adding pictures with the camera they show up as blank! Debugging shows a dreaded: SkImageDecoder::Factory returned null error and the URI is returned as invalid. These are the same images that work with the previous call. Can anyone either catch my logical failure or point me to some working code?

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  • Will IOC solve our problems?

    - by user127954
    Just trying to implement unit testing into a brownfield type system. Be aware i'm relatively new into the unit testing world. Its going to be a gradual migration of course because there are just so many areas of pain. The current problem i'm trying to solve is we followed a lot of bad practices from our VB6 days and in the conversion of our app to .Net. We have LOT AN LOTS of shared/static functions which call other shared functions and those call others and so on. Sometimes depedencies are passed in as parameters and sometimes they are just newed up within the calling function. I've already instructed our developers to stop creating shared functions and instead create instance members and only use those instance members off of interfaces but that doesn't alleviate the current situation. So you must recursively pass in each and every dependency at the top layer for each function in your code path and method signatures are turning into a mess. I'm hoping this is something that IOC will fix. Currently we are using NUnit/Moq and i'm starting to investigate StructureMap. So far i understand that you pretty much tell StructureMap for x interface i want to default to the concrete class y: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x=>{x.ForRequestType<IInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyClass>()}); Then to runtime: var mytype = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IInterface>(); the IOC container will initialize the correct type for you. Not sure yet how to swap a fake in for the concrete type but hopefully thats simple. Again will IOC solve the problems i was talking about above? Is there a specific IOC framework that will do it better than StructureMap or can they all handle this situation. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • NoSuchMethod exception thrown in GWT

    - by eb1
    I'm starting to get my feet wet in the latest Google Web Toolkit using the Eclipse plugin on OS X 10.5.8. So far I've been able to get the client up and running, which is great. The server, though, is a different matter. I'm trying to link to a .jar file that has some classes I want to use in a server ServiceImpl class, but it seems to have glommed onto a previous iteration of the .jar - I've added a method, rebuilt the jar, removed the jar from the libraries tab on the GWT project's build path (as well as on the exports) and reincluded the jar. No luck - I'm still getting: [WARN] Exception while dispatching incoming RPC call com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.UnexpectedException: Service method 'public abstract org.gwtapplication.client.LWDocument org.gwtapplication.client.DocumentService.getDocument()' threw an unexpected exception: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.externalmodel.MyReallyValidClass.toSomething()Ljava/lang/String; at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.RPC.encodeResponseForFailure(RPC.java:378) at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.RPC.invokeAndEncodeResponse(RPC.java:581) ... Caused by: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.externalmodel.MyReallyValidClass.toSomething()Ljava/lang/String; at org.application.server.DocumentServiceImpl.getDocument(DocumentServiceImpl.java:45) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) Eclipse's code sense has no problems resolving the MyReallyValidClass.toSomething() call, and there are no errors with other calls into the externalmodel classes. Any clue where I should be looking?

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  • Can I copy the CollapsiblePanelExtender in jQuery as one method?

    - by Matthew Jones
    I am beginning the process of moving away from the AjaxControlToolkit and toward jQuery. What I want to do is have one function that duplicates the functionality of the CollapsiblePanelExtender. For a particular set of hyperlink and div, the code looks like this: $('#nameHyperLink').click(function() { var div = $('#nameDiv'); var link = $('#nameHyperLink'); if (div.css('display') == 'none') { link.text('Hide Data'); div.show(400); } else { link.text('Show Data'); div.hide(400); } }); What I really want to do is only have to write this function once, then use it for many (approx 40) instances throughout my website. Ideally what I want is this: function showHidePanel(divID,linkID,showText,hideText){ var div = $(divID); var link = $(linkID); if (div.css('display') == 'none') { link.text('Hide Data'); div.show(400); } else { link.text('Show Data'); div.hide(400); } }); I would then call this function from every HyperLink involved using OnClientClick. Is there a way to do this?

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  • AutoMapper How To Map Object A To Object B Differently Depending On Context

    - by IanT8
    Calling all AutoMapper gurus! I'd like to be able to map object A to object B differently depending on context at runtime. In particular, I'd like to ignore certain properties in one mapping case, and have all properties mapped in another case. What I'm experiencing is that Mapper.CreateMap can be called successfully in the different mapping cases however, once CreateMap is called, the map for a particular pair of types is set and is not subsequently changed by succeeding CreateMap calls which might describe the mapping differently. I found a blog post which advocates Mapper.Reset() to get round the problem, however, the static nature of the Mapper class means that it is only a matter of time before a collision and crash occur. Is there a way to do this? What I think I need is to call Mapper.CreateMap once per appdomain, and later, be able to call Mapper.Map with hints about which properties should be included / excluded. Right now, I'm thinking about changing the source code by writing a non-static mapping class that holds the mapping config instance based. Poor performance, but thread safe. What are my options. What can be done? Automapper seems so promising.

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  • Why this not working in IE ?

    - by ankit vishwakarma
    <script> FB.init({ appId : '117680911578526', status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); //alert(FB.getSession()); /*window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.Canvas.setAutoResize(); }*/ </script> <script type="text/javascript"> FB.ui( { // http://www.facebook.com/connect/prompt_feed.php?action_links=%5B%7B%22text%22%3A%22Movies%22%2C%22href%22%3A%22http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fhindi_movies%2F%22%7D%5D&api_key=117680911578526&attachment=%7B%22name%22%3A%22Raavan%20%22%2C%22href%22%3A%22http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fhindi_movies%2Fmovie%2F6%22%2C%22caption%22%3A%22I%20reviewed%20Raavan%20%20movie%20on%20HindiPix%22%2C%22media%22%3A%5B%7B%22type%22%3A%22image%22%2C%22src%22%3A%22http%3A%2F%2Fmovies.kewlsocial.com%2Fmovies%2Fuploads%2Fmovies%2FRaavna_movie_small_thumb.jpg%22%2C%22href%22%3A%22http%3A%2F%2Fapps.facebook.com%2Fhindi_movies%2Fmovie%2F6%22%7D%5D%7D&callback=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df1630e903ba2956%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fmovies.kewlsocial.com%252Ff33a89873048d9c%26relation%3Dparent%26transport%3Dflash%26frame%3Df1395ad7dcd52ce%26result%3D%2522xxRESULTTOKENxx%2522&channel_url=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Dfc544c0f809639%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fmovies.kewlsocial.com%252Ff33a89873048d9c%26relation%3Dparent.parent%26transport%3Dflash&display=dialog&locale=en_US&message=&method=stream.publish&sdk=joey&user_prompt_message=Share%20your%20thoughts%20about%20movie method: 'stream.publish', //auto_publish: true, display: 'dialog', message: '' , //some default msg in textbox attachment: { name: '<?=$movie['movie_title']?>', caption: 'I reviewed <?=$movie['movie_title']?> movie on HindiPix', href: 'http://apps.facebook.com/hindi_movies/movie/<?=$this->uri->segment(3)?>', media:[{ 'type':'image', 'src':'http://movies.kewlsocial.com/movies/uploads/movies/<?=$movie['movie_image']?>', 'href':'http://apps.facebook.com/hindi_movies/movie/<?=$this->uri->segment(3)?>' }] } , action_links: [{ text: 'Movies', href: 'http://apps.facebook.com/hindi_movies/' }], //user_message_prompt: 'Radhey' user_prompt_message: 'Share your thoughts about movie' }/*, function(response) { if (response && response.post_id) { alert('Post was published.'); } else { alert('Post was not published.'); } }*/ ); </script>

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  • Post Loading ads - using appendChild to move an IFRAME with text link ads

    - by Prem
    I have changed code around to basically load an add the bottom of the page in a hidden div and attached an onload event handler that called document.getElementById(xxx).appendChild() to take the hidden ad and move it into the right spot in my page. This works GREAT.. however when the ad is a text ad it AFTER i move the ad there is nothing in the rendered Iframe. I did tests to see what it looks like before i move it and sure enough the text links load in the IFRAME but the second i do the appendChild call to move the div that contains the ad i seem to loose the contents of the Iframe. Any ideas whats going on <div id="myad" style="display: none;"> GA_googleFillSlot("MyADSlotName"); </div> <script> window.onload = function() { // leader board document.getElementById('adplaceholder').appendChild(document.getElementById('myAd')); document.getElementById('myAd').style.display = ''; </script> UPDATE: I think what the problem here is that on text ads google writes to the iframe directly inserting the relevant text links where are on other ads it uses the iframe to just point to some src. seems like when i do the appendchild, if there is no "src" set for the iframe after the copy is done the iframe in the new location contains nothing... guess it does a reload on the src? Any way around this??

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  • Web service SSL handshake fails in production environment unless SSL debugging enabled

    - by JST
    Scenario: calling a client web service over SSL (https) with mutual SSL authentication. Different service endpoint URLs and certs (both keystore and truststore) for test vs. production environments. Both test and production environments run tomcat / JBoss clustered. Production environment has load balancing / BigIP, runs Blade and non-Blade machines. Truststore is set (using -Djavax.net.ssl.trustStore=value) at startup. Keystore is set using System.setProperty("javax.net.ssl.keyStore", "value") in Java code. Web service call made using Axis2. All works fine in test environment, but when we moved to production environment (6 servers), it appears certs are not being forwarded for the handshake. Here's what we've done: in test environment, handshake using test versions of certs has been working all along, with no ssl debugging enabled confirmed in test environment that handshake with client production endpoint succeeds (production certs, both ours and theirs, are fine) -- this was done using -Djavax.net.debug=handshake,ssl confirmed that the error condition occurs on all 6 production servers took one server out of the cluster, turned on ssl debugging for just that one (with a restart), hit it directly, handshake works! switched to a different server without the debugging turned on, handshake error condition occurs turned debugging on on that second server (with a restart), hit it directly, handshake works! From the evidence, it seems like somehow the debugging being enabled causes the certificates to be properly retrieved/conveyed, although that makes no sense! I wonder whether somehow the enabled debugging makes the system pay attention to the System.setProperty call, and ignore it otherwise. However, in local and test environments, handshake worked without debugging enabled. Do I maybe need to be setting keystore on server startup like I'm setting truststore? Have been avoiding that because the keystore will differ for each of our test environments (16 of them).

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