Search Results

Search found 15456 results on 619 pages for 'global temporary tables'.

Page 500/619 | < Previous Page | 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507  | Next Page >

  • Recursion in prepared statements

    - by Rob
    I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

    Read the article

  • Why isn't the Cache invalidated after table update using the SqlCacheDependency?

    - by Jason
    I have been trying to get SqlCacheDependency working. I think I have everything set up correctly, but when I update the table, the item in the Cache isn't invalidated. Can you look at my code and see if I am missing anything? I enabled the Service Broker for the Sandbox database. I have placed the following code in the Global.asax file. I also restart IIS to make sure it is called. void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlDependency.Start(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString); } I have placed this entry in the web.config file: <system.web> <caching> <sqlCacheDependency enabled="true" pollTime="10000"> <databases> <add name="Sandbox" connectionStringName="SandboxConnectionString"/> </databases> </sqlCacheDependency> </caching> </system.web> I call this code to put the item into the cache: protected void CacheDataSetButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand sqlCommand = new SqlCommand("SELECT PetID, Name, Breed, Age, Sex, Fixed, Microchipped FROM dbo.Pets", sqlConnection)) { using (SqlDataAdapter sqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCommand)) { DataSet petsDataSet = new DataSet(); sqlDataAdapter.Fill(petsDataSet, "Pets"); SqlCacheDependency petsSqlCacheDependency = new SqlCacheDependency(sqlCommand); Cache.Insert("Pets", petsDataSet, petsSqlCacheDependency, DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(10), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); } } } } Then I bind the GridView with this code: protected void BindGridViewButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache["Pets"] != null) { GridView1.DataSource = Cache["Pets"] as DataSet; GridView1.DataBind(); } } Between attempts to DataBind the GridView, I change the table's values expecting it to invalidate the Cache["Pets"] item, but it seems to stay in the Cache indefinitely.

    Read the article

  • Execute a function to affect different template class instances

    - by Samer Afach
    I have a complicated problem, and I need help. I have a base case, class ParamBase { string paramValue; //... } and a bunch of class templates with different template parameters. template <typename T> class Param : public ParamBase { T value; //... } Now, each instance of Param has different template parameter, double, int, string... etc. To make it easier, I have a vector to their base class pointers that contains all the instances that have been created: vector<ParamBase*> allParamsObjects; The question is: How can I run a single function (global or member or anything, your choice), that converts all of those different instances' strings paramValue with different templates arguments and save the conversion result to the appropriate type in Param::value. This has to be run over all objects that are saved in the vector allParamsObjects. So if the template argument of the first Param is double, paramValue has to be converted to double and saved in value; and if the second Param's argument is int, then the paramValue of the second has to be converted to int and saved in value... etc. I feel it's almost impossible... Any help would be highly appreciated :-)

    Read the article

  • Hide struct definition in static library.

    - by BobMcLaury
    Hi, I need to provide a C static library to the client and need to be able to make a struct definition unavailable. On top of that I need to be able to execute code before the main at library initialization using a global variable. Here's my code: private.h #ifndef PRIVATE_H #define PRIVATE_H typedef struct TEST test; #endif private.c (this should end up in a static library) #include "private.h" #include <stdio.h> struct TEST { TEST() { printf("Execute before main and have to be unavailable to the user.\n"); } int a; // Can be modified by the user int b; // Can be modified by the user int c; // Can be modified by the user } TEST; main.c test t; int main( void ) { t.a = 0; t.b = 0; t.c = 0; return 0; } Obviously this code doesn't work... but show what I need to do... Anybody knows how to make this work? I google quite a bit but can't find an answer, any help would be greatly appreciated. TIA!

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

    - by slack3r
    In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

    Read the article

  • Macports and virtualenv site-packages Fallback

    - by Streeter
    I've installed django and python as this link suggested with macports. However, I'd like to use virtualenv to install more packages. My understanding is that if I do not pass in the --no-site-packages to virtualenv, I should get the currently installed packages in addition to whatever packages I install into the virtual environment. Is this correct? As an example, I've installed django through macports and then create a virtual environment, but I cannot import django from within that virtual environment: [streeter@mordecai]:~$ mkvirtualenv django-test New python executable in django-test/bin/python Installing setuptools............done. ... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ pip install django-debug-toolbar Downloading/unpacking django-debug-toolbar Downloading django-debug-toolbar-0.8.4.tar.gz (80Kb): 80Kb downloaded Running setup.py egg_info for package django-debug-toolbar Installing collected packages: django-debug-toolbar Running setup.py install for django-debug-toolbar Successfully installed django-debug-toolbar Cleaning up... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Jun 24 2010, 21:47:49) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import django Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named django >>> So I can install packages into the virtual environment, but it isn't picking up the global site-packages. Or am I not doing something correctly / missing something / misunderstanding how virtualenv works? I've got Mac OS 10.6 (Snow Leopard), have updated my macports packages and am using macports' python26 (via python_select python26).

    Read the article

  • C++ VB6 interfacing problem

    - by Roshan
    Hi, I'm tearing my hair out trying to solve this one, any insights will be much appreciated: I have a C++ exe which acquires data from some hardware in the main thread and processes it in another thread (thread 2). I use a c++ dll to supply some data processing functions which are called from thread 2. I have a requirement to make another set of data processing functions in VB6. I have thus created a VB6 dll, using the add-in vbAdvance to create a standard dll. When I call functions from within this VB6 dll from the main thread, everything works exactly as expected. When I call functions from this VB6 dll in thread 2, I get an access violation. I've traced the error to the CopyMemory command, it would seem that if this is used within the call from the main thread, it's fine but in a call from the process thread, it causes an exception. Why should this be so? As far as I understand, threads share the same address space. Here is the code from my VB dll Public Sub UserFunInterface(ByVal in1ptr As Long, ByVal out1ptr As Long, ByRef nsamples As Long) Dim myarray1() As Single Dim myarray2() As Single Dim i As Integer ReDim myarray1(0 To nsamples - 1) As Single ReDim myarray2(0 To nsamples - 1) As Single With tsa1din(0) ' defined as safearray1d in a global definitions module .cDims = 1 .cbElements = 4 .cElements = nsamples .pvData = in1ptr End With With tsa1dout .cDims = 1 .cbElements = 4 .cElements = nsamples .pvData = out1ptr End With CopyMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray1), VarPtr(tsa1din(0)), 4 CopyMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray2), VarPtr(tsa1dout), 4 For i = 0 To nsamples - 1 myarray2(i) = myarray1(i) * 2 Next i ZeroMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray1), 4 ZeroMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray2), 4 End Sub

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

    Read the article

  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

    Read the article

  • Drupal administration theme doesn't apply to Blocks pages (admin/build/block)

    - by hfidgen
    A site I'm creating for a customer in D6 has various images overlaying parts of the main content area. It looks very pretty and they have to be there for the general effect. The problem is, if you use this theme in the administration pages, the images get in the way of everything. My solution was to create a custom admin theme, based on the default one, which has these image areas disabled in the output template files - page.tpl.php The problem is that when you try and edit the blocks page, it uses the default theme and half the blocks admin settings are unclickable behind the images. I KNOW this is by design in Drupal, but it's annoying the hell out of me and is edging towards "bug" rather than "feature" in my mind. It also appears that there is no way of getting around it. You can edit /modules/blocks/block.admin.inc to force Drupal to show the blocks page in the chosen admin theme. BUT whichever changes you then make will not be transferred to the default theme, as Drupal treats each theme separately and each theme can have different block layouts. :x function block_admin_display($theme = NULL) { global $custom_theme; // If non-default theme configuration has been selected, set the custom theme. // $custom_theme = isset($theme) ? $theme : variable_get('theme_default', 'garland'); // Display admin theme $custom_theme = variable_get('admin_theme', '0'); // Fetch and sort blocks $blocks = _block_rehash(); usort($blocks, '_block_compare'); return drupal_get_form('block_admin_display_form', $blocks, $theme); } Can anyone help? the only thing I can think of is to push the $content area well below the areas where the image appear and use blocks only for content display. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • converting code from non-(C)ontinuation (P)assing (S)tyle to CPS

    - by Delirium tremens
    before: function sc_startSiteCompare(){ var visitinguri; var validateduri; var downloaduris; var compareuris; var tryinguri; sc_setstatus('started'); visitinguri = sc_getvisitinguri(); validateduri = sc_getvalidateduri(visitinguri); downloaduris = new Array(); downloaduris = sc_generatedownloaduris(validateduri); compareuris = new Array(); compareuris = sc_generatecompareuris(validateduri); tryinguri = 0; sc_finishSiteCompare(downloaduris, compareuris, tryinguri); } function sc_getvisitinguri() { var visitinguri; visitinguri = content.location.href; return visitinguri; } after (I'm trying): function sc_startSiteCompare(){ var visitinguri; sc_setstatus('started'); visitinguri = sc_getvisitinguri(sc_startSiteComparec1); } function sc_startSiteComparec1 (visitinguri) { var validateduri; validateduri = sc_getvalidateduri(visitinguri, sc_startSiteComparec2); } function sc_startSiteComparec2 (visitinguri, c) { var downloaduris; downloaduris = sc_generatedownloaduris(validateduri, sc_startSiteComparec3); } function sc_startSiteComparec3 (validateduri, c) { var compareuris; compareuris = sc_generatecompareuris(downloaduris, validateduri, sc_startSiteComparec4); } function sc_startSiteComparec4 (downloaduris, compareuris, validateduri, c) { var tryinguri; tryinguri = 0; sc_finishSiteCompare(downloaduris, compareuris, tryinguri); } function sc_getvisitinguri(c) { var visitinguri; visitinguri = content.location.href; c(visitinguri); } I'm having to pass lots of arguments to functions now. global in procedural code look like this / self in modular code. Any difference? Will I really have to use OO now? As a last resort, does CPS have an alternative?

    Read the article

  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

    Read the article

  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

    Read the article

  • Opening a xul file in response to a toolbar extension button click

    - by Graham
    I'm currently building my first Firefox extension, and am having a little difficulty with one piece of functionality. I'd like to open a new browser tab in response to a button click on the toolbar. The new tab should contain the contents of a webpage, together with some extra buttons. At the moment I've created a separate xul file for the contents of the new tab: <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <window id="myapp-report-window" title="Example 4.5.1" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://myapp/content/main.js" /> <toolbox> <toolbar id="nav-toolbar"> <toolbarbutton label="This-is-going-to-do-some-stuff"/> </toolbar> </toolbox> <iframe id="myapp-report-frame" flex="1"/> <script type="text/javascript"> function loadPage(url){ document.getElementById('myapp-report-frame').setAttribute('src',url); } </script> </window> This xul file is launched via this javascript, referenced from the main myapptoolbar.xul: gBrowser.selectedTab = gBrowser.addTab('chrome://myapp/content/report.xul'); var newTabBrowser = gBrowser.getBrowserForTab(gBrowser.selectedTab); newTabBrowser.addEventListener("load", function(){ loadPage('http://www.somedynamicallysetwebsite.com'); }, true); The problem that I'm having is that the loadPage function is not being found, so the src attribute of the iframe is never set. I'm sure it's some silly scoping problem, but I'm very new to firefox extensions (day 2!) so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks for looking! Graham

    Read the article

  • How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

    - by boatingcow
    Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

    Read the article

  • Outgoing Emails (Git Patches) Blocked by Windows Live

    - by SteveStifler
    Just recently I dove into the VideoLAN open source project. This was my first time using git, and when sending in my first patch (using git send-email --to [email protected] patches), I was sent the following message from my computer's local mail in the terminal (I'm on OSX 10.6 by the way): Mail rejected by Windows Live Hotmail for policy reasons. We generally do not accept email from dynamic IP's as they are not typically used to deliver unauthenticated SMTP e-mail to an Internet mail server. http:/www.spamhaus.org maintains lists of dynamic and residential IP addresses. If you are not an email/network admin please contact your E-mail/Internet Service Provider for help. Email/network admins, please visit http://postmaster.live.com for email delivery information and support They must think I'm a spammer. I have a dynamic IP and my ISP (Charter) won't let me get a static one, so I tried editing git preferences: git config --global user.email "[email protected]" to my gmail account. However I got the exact same message again. My guess is that it has something to do with the native mail's preferences, but I have no idea how to access them or modify them. Anybody have any ideas for solving this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

    Read the article

  • MS Access (Jet) transactions, workspaces & scope

    - by Eric G
    I am having trouble with committing a transaction (using Access 2003 DAO). It's acting as if I never had called BeginTrans -- I get error 3034 on CommitTrans, "You tried to commit or rollback a transaction without first beginning a transaction"; and the changes are written to the database (presumably because they were never wrapped in a transaction). However, BeginTrans is run, if you step through it. I am running it within the Access environment using the DBEngine(0) workspace. The tables I'm updating are all opened via a Jet database connection (to the same database) and updated using DAO.Recordset.update. The connection is opened before starting BeforeTrans. I'm not doing anything weird in the middle of the transaction like closing/opening connections or multiple workspaces etc. There is one nested transaction level (basically it's wrapping multiple transacted updates in an outer transaction, so if any fail they all fail). The inner transactions run without errors, it's the outer transaction that doesn't work. Here are a few things I've looked into and ruled out: The transaction is spread across several methods and BeginTrans and CommitTrans (and Rollback) are all in different places. But when I tried a simple test of running a transaction this way, it doesn't seem like this should matter. I thought maybe the database connection gets closed when it goes out of local scope, even though I have another 'global' reference to it (I'm never sure what DAO does with dbase connections to be honest). But this seems not to be the case -- right before the commit, the connection and its recordsets are alive (I can check their properties, EOF = False, etc.) My CommitTrans and Rollback are done within event callbacks. (Very basically, a parser program is throwing an 'onLoad' or 'onLoadFail' event at the end of parsing, which I am handling by either committing or rolling back the inserts I made during processing.) However, again, trying a simple test, it doesn't seem like this should matter. Any ideas why this isn't working for me? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • SFINAE + sizeof = detect if expression compiles

    - by FredOverflow
    I just found out how to check if operator<< is provided for a type. template<class T> T& lvalue_of_type(); template<class T> T rvalue_of_type(); template<class T> struct is_printable { template<class U> static char test(char(*)[sizeof( lvalue_of_type<std::ostream>() << rvalue_of_type<U>() )]); template<class U> static long test(...); enum { value = 1 == sizeof test<T>(0) }; typedef boost::integral_constant<bool, value> type; }; Is this trick well-known, or have I just won the metaprogramming Nobel prize? ;) EDIT: I made the code simpler to understand and easier to adapt with two global function template declarations lvalue_of_type and rvalue_of_type.

    Read the article

  • How can a SVN::Error callback identify the context from which it was called

    - by Colin Fine
    I've written some fairly extensive Perl modules and scripts using the Perl bindings SVN::Client etc. Since the calls to SVN::Client are all deep in a module, I have overridden the default error handling. So far I have done so by setting $SVN::Error::handler = undef as described in [1], but this makes the individual calls a bit messy because you have to remember to make each call to SVN::Client in list context and test the first value for errors. I would like to switch to using an error handler I would write; but $SVN::Error::handler is global, so I can't see any way that my callback can determine where the error came from, and what object to set an error code in. I wondered if I could use a pool for this purpose: so far I have ignored pools as irrelevant to working in Perl, but if I call a SVN::Client method with a pool I have created, will any SVN::Error object be created in the same pool? Has anybody any knowledge or experience which bears on this? [1]: http://search.cpan.org/~mschwern/Alien-SVN-1.4.6.0/src/subversion/subversion/bindings/swig/perl/native/Core.pm#svn_error_t_-_SVN::Error SVN::Core POD

    Read the article

  • pure/const functions in C++

    - by Albert
    Hi, I'm thinking of using pure/const functions more heavily in my C++ code. (pure/const attribute in GCC) However, I am curious how strict I should be about it and what could possibly break. The most obvious case are debug outputs (in whatever form, could be on cout, in some file or in some custom debug class). I probably will have a lot of functions, which don't have any side effects despite this sort of debug output. No matter if the debug output is made or not, this will absolutely have no effect on the rest of my application. Or another case I'm thinking of is the use of my own SmartPointer class. In debug mode, my SmartPointer class has some global register where it does some extra checks. If I use such an object in a pure/const function, it does have some slight side effects (in the sense that some memory probably will be different) which should not have any real side effects though (in the sense that the behaviour is in any way different). Similar also for mutexes and other stuff. I can think of many complex cases where it has some side effects (in the sense of that some memory will be different, maybe even some threads are created, some filesystem manipulation is made, etc) but has no computational difference (all those side effects could very well be left out and I would even prefer that). How does it work out in practice? If I mark such functions as pure/const, could it break anything (considering that the code is all correct)?

    Read the article

  • Behavior of local variables in JavaScripts with()-statement

    - by thr
    I noticed some weird (and to my knowledge undefined behavior, by the ECMA 3.0 Spec at least), take the following snippet: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); alert(bar); } alert(bar); It crashes in both Firefox and Chrome, because "bar" doesn't exist in the first alert(); statement, this is as expected. But if you add a declaration of bar inside the with()-statement, so it looks like this: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; alert(bar); } alert(bar); It will produce the following: undefined, 1, g2, undefined It seems as if you create a variable inside a with()-statement most browsers (tested on Chrome or Firefox) will make that variable exist outside that scope also, it's just set to undefined. Now from my perspective bar should only exist inside the with()-statement, and if you make the example even weirder: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; var zoo; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; zoo = function() { return bar; } alert(bar); } alert(bar); alert(zoo()); It will produce this: undefined, 1, g2, undefined, g2 So the bar inside the with()-statement does not exist outside of it, yet the runtime somehow "automagically" creates a variable named bar that is undefined in its top level scope (global or function) but this variable does not refer to the same one as inside the with()-statement, and that variable will only exist if a with()-statement has a variable named bar that is defined inside it. Very weird, and inconsistent. Anyone have an explanation for this behavior? There is nothing in the ECMA Spec about this.

    Read the article

  • Getting an non-object error in my php script

    - by Disowned
    Hey I was trying to call a script to made some changes to an html file, however when I run the script it tells me that it's making a call to a non-object. Obviously I did something wrong, but what? Here's the script. /*Dom controllers*/ $dom = new DOMDocument(); $dom->loadHTML('index.html'); $id = $dom->getElementById('contact_us'); $p = $dom->appendChild(new DOMElement('p')); $op = $dom->getElementsByTagName('p'); /* Dem POST vars used by dat Ajax mah ziggen, yeah boi*/ if (isset($_POST['Home']) && isset($_POST['About']) && isset($_POST['Contact']) && isset($_POST['sexyText'])){ $home = $_POST['Home']; $about = $_POST['About']; $contact = $_POST['Contact']; $text = $_POST['sexyText']; trim($home); trim($about); trim($contact); trim($text); } function post(){ global $dom, $id, $home, $about, $contact, $text, $textp, $p, $op; $textp = $dom->createTextNode($text); $p->appendChild($textp); $id->replaceChild($p, $op); $dom->saveHTMLFile('index.html'); } post(); echo 1; ?> The error happens at the replaceChild function.

    Read the article

  • How to get rid of exceptions thrown by the .NET Framework

    - by Hans Løken
    In a recent project I'm using a lot of databinding and xml-serialization. I'm using C#/VS2008 and have downloaded symbol information for the .NET framework to help me when debugging. The app I'm working on has a global "catch all" exception handler to present a more presentable messages to users if there happens to be any uncaught exceptions being thrown. My problem is when I turn on Exceptions-Thrown to be able to debug exceptions before they are caught by the "catch all". It seems to me that the framework throws a lot of exceptions that are not immediately caught (for example in ReflectPropertyDescriptor) so that the exception I'm actually trying to debug gets lost in the noise. Is there any way to get rid of exceptions caused by the framework but keep the ones from my own code? Update: after more research and actually trying to get rid of the exceptions that get thrown by the framework (many which turn out to be known issues in the framework, example: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1127431/xmlserializer-giving-filenotfoundexception-at-constructor) I finally found a solution that works for me, which is turning on "Just my code" in Tools Options Debugging General Enable Just My Code in VS2008.

    Read the article

  • Flex profiling - what is [enterFrameEvent] doing?

    - by Herms
    I've been tasked with finding (and potentially fixing) some serious performance problems with a Flex application that was delivered to us. The application will consistently take up 50 to 100% of the CPU at times when it is simply idling and shouldn't be doing anything. My first step was to run the profiler that comes with FlexBuilder. I expected to find some method that was taking up most of the time, showing me where the bottleneck was. However, I got something unexpected. The top 4 methods were: [enterFrameEvent] - 84% cumulative, 32% self time [reap] - 20% cumulative and self time [tincan] - 8% cumulative and self time global.isNaN - 4% cumulative and self time All other methods had less than 1% for both cumulative and self time. From what I've found online, the [bracketed methods] are what the profiler lists when it doesn't have an actual Flex method to show. I saw someone claim that [tincan] is the processing of RTMP requests, and I assume [reap] is the garbage collector. Does anyone know what [enterFrameEvent] is actually doing? I assume it's essentially the "main" function for the event loop, so the high cumulative time is expected. But why is the self time so high? What's actually going on? I didn't expect the player internals to be taking up so much time, especially since nothing is actually happening in the app (and there are no UI updates going on). Is there any good way to find dig into what's happening? I know something is going on that shouldn't be (it looks like there must be some kind of busy wait or other runaway loop), but the profiler isn't giving me any results that I was expecting. My next step is going to be to start adding debug trace statements in various places to try and track down what's actually happening, but I feel like there has to be a better way.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507  | Next Page >