Search Results

Search found 57327 results on 2294 pages for 'nested set'.

Page 500/2294 | < Previous Page | 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507  | Next Page >

  • How do I keep a table in Sync across 4 db's to be used in SQL Replication Filtering?

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I have a Win Form, Data Entry, application that uses 4 seperate Data Bases. This is an occasionally connected app that uses Merge Replication (SQL 2005) to stay in Sync. This is working just fine. The next hurdle I am trying to tackle is adding Filters to my Publications. Right now we are replicating 70mbs, compressed, to each of our 150 subscribers when, truthfully, they only need a tiny fraction of that. Using Filters I am able to accomplish this(see code below) but I had to make a mapping table in order to do so. This mapping table consists of 3 columns. A PrimaryID(Guid), WorkerName(varchar), and ClientID(int). The problem is I need this table present in all FOUR Databases in order to use it for the filter since, to my knowledge, views or cross-db query's are not allowed in a Filter Statement. What are my options? Seems like I would set it up to be maintained in 1 Database and then use Triggers to keep it updated in the other 3 Databases. In order to be a part of the Filter I have to include that table in the Replication Set so how do I flag it appropriately. Is there a better way, altogether? SELECT <published_columns> FROM [dbo].[tblPlan] WHERE [ClientID] IN (select ClientID from [dbo].[tblWorkerOwnership] where WorkerID = SUSER_SNAME()) Which allows you to chain together Filters, this next one is below the first one so it only pulls from the first's Filtered Set. SELECT <published_columns> FROM [dbo].[tblPlan] INNER JOIN [dbo].[tblHealthAssessmentReview] ON [tblPlan].[PlanID] = [tblHealthAssessmentReview].[PlanID] P.S. - I know how illogical the DB structure sounds. I didn't make it. I inherited it and was then told to make it a "disconnected app."

    Read the article

  • Get The Currency From Current Culture?

    - by leen3o
    Is there a way to get current information dynamically from the apps culture settings? Basically if the user has set the culture to US I want to know the currency is dollars, or if they have it set to UK I want to pound sterling etc... etc.. This is so I can send this information to PayPal when a payment is being made

    Read the article

  • Can a Windows Domain play along with a Hosted Exchange service?

    - by benzado
    I'm setting up a computer network for a small (10-20 people) company. They are currently using a Hosted Exchange service they are totally happy with. Other than that, they are starting from scratch (office doesn't even have furniture yet). They will need some kind of file sharing server set up in their office. If I set up a machine as a file server and nothing more, users will have three passwords to deal with: local machine, file server, and email. If I set up a Domain Controller, identities for local machine and file server will be the same. But what about the Hosted Exchange server? Must the users have a separate email password, or is it possible to combine the two? (I realize it might depend on the specific hosting provider, but is it possible?) If not, it seems like I have these options: Deal with it: users have a separate email password. Host Exchange on the local server: more than they want to manage in-house? Purchase a hosted VPS, make it part of the domain, and host Exchange there. (Or can/should a VPS be a domain controller?) I realize I have a lot of questions in there. The main one: is there any reason to use a Hosted Exchange service if I'm setting up other Windows services?

    Read the article

  • How to use command bindings in user controls in wpf?

    - by Sam
    In MainWindow the commandbinding works fine. In UserControl1 it doesnt work. Note the datacontext is set correctly as is evidenced by the content of the button which is the result of a binding. I am not trying to bind the command in the usercontrol to a command in mainwindow or any other such trickery. I am just trying to replicate what I did in MainWindow in UserControl1. // MainWindow xaml <StackPanel> <Button Content="Click Here" Command="{Binding ClickHereCommand}" Height="25" Width="90"></Button> <local:UserControl1></local:UserControl1> </StackPanel> // MainWindow public partial class MainWindow : Window { public static RoutedCommand ClickHereCommand { get; set; } public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = this; ClickHereCommand = new RoutedCommand(); CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ClickHereCommand, ClickHereExecuted)); } public void ClickHereExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { System.Windows.MessageBox.Show("hello"); } } // UserControl1 xaml <UserControl x:Class="CommandBindingTest.UserControl1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300" x:Name="root"> <Grid DataContext="{Binding ElementName=root}" > <Button Content="{Binding ButtonContent}" Command="{Binding ClickHereCommand}" Height="25" Width="90"></Button> </Grid> </UserControl> // UserControl1 public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl, INotifyPropertyChanged { private string _ButtonContent; public string ButtonContent { get { return _ButtonContent; } set { if (_ButtonContent != value) { _ButtonContent = value; OnPropertyChanged("ButtonContent"); } } } public static RoutedCommand ClickHereCommand { get; set; } public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); ClickHereCommand = new RoutedCommand(); CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ClickHereCommand, ClickHereExecuted)); ButtonContent = "Click Here"; } public void ClickHereExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { System.Windows.MessageBox.Show("hello from UserControl1"); } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public void OnPropertyChanged(string name) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(name)); } } #endregion }

    Read the article

  • Having two IP Routes/Gateways of last Resort on an HP Switch

    - by SteadH
    We have an HP Layer 3 Switch that is doing IP routing between vlans. The general set up is that the switch has an IP address on each VLAN and IP routing is enabled. On our servers VLAN, we have a firewall that has a connection to the outside world. To set a IP route on the HP router, we use IOS command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 where 192.168.2.1 is the address of our firewall, and the zeros essentially mean to route all traffic that the switch doesn't know what to do with out the firewall as a gateway. We're in the middle of an ISP and firewall change. I set up the new firewall and ran the IOS command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.254 (the address of the new firewall). Things started working nicely. When I reviewed the configuration of the switch though, I noticed that it did not replace the previous ip route command, but just added another route. Now, I know how to remove the old firewall route (no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1), but what is the effect of having these two 0.0.0.0 routes? Is it switch implosion? Will a server just respond back over the route it receives the request from? I've read elsewhere that having two default gateways is an impossibility by definition, but I'm curious about this situation that our switch allowed. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I progrommatically change the target framework from 4.0 to 3.5 of a project/solution?

    - by scott
    Edit 3: After more googling it looks like you can't have the TargetFrameworkMoniker property in a .NET 3.5 application. So I guess I should be asking a different question. How do I change the Target framework from 4.0 to 3.5? Unfortunately, I can only find stuff on how to go the other way. or better yet how do i progrommatically set the target framework version of a project to something other than 4.0? Original question: I just switched to vs2010. I have an application that uses .net 3.5. It loads plugins which are generated by a different app. The plugins are using .net 4 and there for cannot be loaded. I'm using EnvDTE.Project to create a project and set the settings. I can't find what setting needs to be set for this. Edit 1: I'm generating code for about 50 solutions. When I made the switch from vs2005 to vs2010 the projects in those solutions are defaulting to .NET Framework 4.0. So I need to set the .NET Framework to 3.5 when I am generating the code for these solutions. Edit 2: After a lot of googling I found this. so then I tried this: loProp = vsGetProperty("TargetFrameworkMoniker"); vsSetValue(loProp, ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5"); the definitions for those two methods are below. as far as I can tell they do the same this as project.Properties.Item("TargetFrameworkMoniker").Value = ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0,Profile=Client"; I start getting an Property Unavailable Exception later in the code. When I remove the new lines everything works except the projects target framework is still 4.0. The code generators target framework is 3.5 so I can't use the FrameworkName class like shown in the second example in that link. here is vsGetProperty protected Property vsGetProperty(string aProperty) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; Property loProp; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { loProp = pProject.Properties.Item(aProperty); lbDone = true; return loProp; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } return null; } and vsSetValue protected void vsSetValue(Property aProperty, string aValue) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { aProperty.Value = aValue; lbDone = true; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } }

    Read the article

  • iTunes Home Sharing only works one way between 2 Windows XP PC's on the same LAN

    - by scunliffe
    Both PC's have the latest iTunes installed. PC (A) can "see" that there is a shared library "B library" but attempts to connect to it return this error message: The shared library "{Username}'s Library" is not responding (-3259) Check that any firewall software running on either the shared computer or this computer has been set to allow communication on port 3689. however the reverse works fine. e.g. PC (B) can "see" shared library "A library" and can access all content. Notes: Both PC's have Home Sharing enabled (turned off/on several times to verify). Both PC's have Windows Firewall turned on, but in the exceptions tab, iTunes is allowed, and Port 3689 is also added as a firewall exception (just in case) Both iTunes accounts have been "authorized" on both PC's Both PC's connect via LAN via D-Link DIR-615 router. In the advanced application rules, iTunes has also been added to allow traffic on port 3689 un-hindered. Is there any other magical setting/configuration option that I should be aware of and set in order to get this to work? I could care less about sharing apps etc. I just want the music sharing to work. Update: Solved! It turns out on PC (B) there were multiple accounts set up. 1 of the accounts had the checkbox checked under the Windows firewall "On" option which states "No exceptions" thus even though it was added to the exception list on the main user account, this other account was blocking access.

    Read the article

  • Serialize problem with cookie

    - by cagin
    Hi there, I want use cookie in my web project. I must serialize my classes. Although my code can seralize an int or string value, it cant seralize my classes. This is my seralize and cookie code : public static bool f_SetCookie(string _sCookieName, object _oCookieValue, DateTime _dtimeExpirationDate) { bool retval = true; try { if (HttpContext.Current.Request[_sCookieName] != null) { HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Remove(_sCookieName); } BinaryFormatter bf = new BinaryFormatter(); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); bf.Serialize(ms, _oCookieValue); byte[] bArr = ms.ToArray(); MemoryStream objStream = new MemoryStream(); DeflateStream objZS = new DeflateStream(objStream, CompressionMode.Compress); objZS.Write(bArr, 0, bArr.Length); objZS.Flush(); objZS.Close(); byte[] bytes = objStream.ToArray(); string sCookieVal = Convert.ToBase64String(bytes); HttpCookie cook = new HttpCookie(_sCookieName); cook.Value = sCookieVal; cook.Expires = _dtimeExpirationDate; HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cook); } catch { retval = false; } return retval; } And here is one of my classes: [Serializable] public class Tahlil { #region Props & Fields public string M_KlinikKodu{ get; set; } public DateTime M_AlinmaTarihi { get; set; } private List<Test> m_Tesler; public List<Test> M_Tesler { get { return m_Tesler; } set { m_Tesler = value; } } #endregion public Tahlil() {} Tahlil(DataRow _rwTahlil){} } I m calling my Set Cookie method: Tahlil t = new Tahlil(); t.M_AlinmaTarihi = DateTime.Now; t.M_KlinikKodu = "2"; t.M_Tesler = new List<Test>(); f_SetCookie("Tahlil", t, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I cant see cookie in Cookie folder and Temporary Internet Files but if i will call method like that: f_SetCookie("TRY", 5, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I can see cookie. What is the problem? I dont understand. Thank you for your helps.

    Read the article

  • Multi-tier applications using L2S, WCF and Base Class

    - by Gena Verdel
    Hi all. One day I decided to build this nice multi-tier application using L2S and WCF. The simplified model is : DataBase-L2S-Wrapper(DTO)-Client Application. The communication between Client and Database is achieved by using Data Transfer Objects which contain entity objects as their properties. abstract public class BaseObject { public virtual IccSystem.iccObjectTypes ObjectICC_Type { get { return IccSystem.iccObjectTypes.unknownType; } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order = 1)] public virtual long ID { //get; //set; get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } } [DataContract] public class BaseObjectWrapper<T> where T : BaseObject { #region Fields private T _DBObject; #endregion #region Properties [DataMember] public T Entity { get { return _DBObject; } set { _DBObject = value; } } #endregion } Pretty simple, isn't it?. Here's the catch. Each one of the mapped classes contains ID property itself so I decided to override it like this [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.TableAttribute(Name="dbo.Divisions")] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute()] public partial class Division : INotifyPropertyChanging, INotifyPropertyChanged { [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_ID", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order=1)] public override long ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } } Wrapper for division is pretty straightforward as well: public class DivisionWrapper : BaseObjectWrapper<Division> { } It worked pretty well as long as I kept ID values at mapped class and its BaseObject class the same(that's not very good approach, I know, but still) but then this happened: private CentralDC _dc; public bool UpdateDivision(ref DivisionWrapper division) { DivisionWrapper tempWrapper = division; if (division.Entity == null) { return false; } try { Table<Division> table = _dc.Divisions; var q = table.Where(o => o.ID == tempWrapper.Entity.ID); if (q.Count() == 0) { division.Entity._errorMessage = "Unable to locate entity with id " + division.Entity.ID.ToString(); return false; } var realEntity = q.First(); realEntity = division.Entity; _dc.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { division.Entity._errorMessage = ex.Message; return false; } } When trying to enumerate over the in-memory query the following exception occurred: Class member BaseObject.ID is unmapped. Although I'm stating the type and overriding the ID property L2S fails to work. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Setting default_scope according to some criteria

    - by Tam
    I'm trying to set default scope according to some criteria determined by ana ActionController before_filter. In controller: before_filter :authorize ... def authorize if some_condition @default_scope_conditions = something elsif another_condition @default_scope_conditions = something_else end end Inside the ActiveRecord default_scope :conditions => @default_scope_conditions But it doesn't seem to work, the before filter gets called but the default_scope doesn't get set. Could you please advise me what I'm doing wrong and how to fix it or suggest me some other way of achieving that.

    Read the article

  • Problem during JBoss Launch

    - by Rob
    Hi folks, I've a problem with JBoss 3.2.6. When I try to launch it, I get this error. 09:19:22,449 ERROR [StatefulSessionContainer] Starting failed jboss.j2ee:jndiName=TypicalBean,service=EJB java.rmi.ServerException: Could not bind home; nested exception is: javax.naming.CommunicationException: Network is unreachable [Root exception is java.io.IOException: Network is unreachable] at org.jboss.proxy.ejb.ProxyFactory.bindProxy(ProxyFactory.java:385) at org.jboss.proxy.ejb.ProxyFactory.start(ProxyFactory.java:187) and so on ... I use Java 1.6, and I can access to the Web, so I can't really figure out why this problem appears ... Thanks (and sorry for my poor english) Rob

    Read the article

  • Rails/mysql SUM distinct records - optimization

    - by pepernik
    Hey. How would you optimize this SQL SELECT SUM(tmp.cost) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT clients.id as client, countries.credits_cost AS cost FROM countries INNER JOIN clients ON clients.country_id = countries.id INNER JOIN clients_groups ON clients_groups.client_id=clients.id WHERE clients_groups.group_id IN (1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9) GROUP BY clients.id ) AS tmp; I'm using this example as part of my Ruby on Rails project. Note that my nested SQL (tmp) can have more then 10 milion records. You can split that in more SQLs if the performance is better. Should I add any indexes to make it quicker (i have it on IDs)?

    Read the article

  • How to make Android not to recycle my Bitmap until I don't need it?

    - by RankoR
    I'm getting drawing cache of the view, that is set as contentView to the Activity. Then I set new content view to the activity and pass that drawing cache to it. But Android recycles my bitmaps and I'm getting this exception: 06-13 01:58:04.132: E/AndroidRuntime(15106): java.lang.RuntimeException: Canvas: trying to use a recycled bitmap android.graphics.Bitmap@40e72dd8 Any way to fix it? I had an idea to extend Bitmap class, but it's final. Why GC is recycling it?

    Read the article

  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

    Read the article

  • Speed up math code in C# by writing a C dll?

    - by Projectile Fish
    I have a very large nested for loop in which some multiplications and additions are performed on floating point numbers. for (int i = 0; i < length1; i++) { s = GetS(i); c = GetC(i); for(int j = 0; j < length2; j++) { double oldU = u[j]; u[j] = c * oldU + s * omega[i][j]; omega[i][j] = c * omega[i][j] - s * oldU; } } This loop is taking up the majority of my processing time and is a bottleneck. Would I be likely to see any speed improvements if I rewrite this loop in C and interface to it from C#?

    Read the article

  • pdns-recursor allocates resources to non-existing queries

    - by azzid
    I've got a lab-server running pdns-recursor. I set it up to experiment with rate limiting, so it has been resolving requests openly from the whole internet for weeks. My idea was that sooner or later it would get abused, giving me a real user case to experiment with. To keep track of the usage I set up nagios to monitor the number of concurrent-queries to the server. Today I got notice from nagios that my specified limit had been reached. I logged in to start trimming away the malicious questions I was expecting, however, when I started looking at it I couldn't see the expected traffic. What I found is that even though I have over 20 concurrent-queries registered by the server I see no requests in the logs. The following command describes the situation well: $ sudo rec_control get concurrent-queries; sudo rec_control top-remotes 22 Over last 0 queries: How can there be 22 concurrent-queries when the server has 0 queries registered? EDIT: Figured it out! To get top-remotes working I needed to set ################################# # remotes-ringbuffer-entries maximum number of packets to store statistics for # remotes-ringbuffer-entries=100000 It defaults to 0 storing no information to base top-remotes statistics on.

    Read the article

  • Can jQuery UI's Sortable handle complex selectors for the items option?

    - by jverdi
    I have list items in an unordered list that when double clicked, can be edited in place via a wysiwyg editor. $('ul.mtm_section').sortable({ disabled: true, distance: 10, items: '> li:not(:has(form))' }); My goal is to prevent the list item from being sorted while it is being edited - aka once a form element has been swapped in place of the contents. Unfortunately my selector for items is not working. Is sortable able to handle complex selectors like these? If not, are there other clever means to disable some items from being sortable, perhaps a callback function? I would prefer to rely on this sortable option, as the wysiwyg plugin is deeply nested with jEditable and as far as I know does not open up any events for me to hook into. Using jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1

    Read the article

  • How to handle a Security Alert Pop Up on IE by VBScript

    - by eightants
    I need to create a VBScript (WSH) to automatically open Internet Explorer and navigate a security web page. However, it always pops up a security alert before displaying that website. Can anyone provide a solution for either disables the pop up function (security certification) in IE or accepts the pop-up by the script? Here is my script: Dim objIE Set objIE = CreateObject("InternetExplorer.Application") objIE.Visible = True objIE.Navigate "https://10.10.10.101:9000/Portal" ???? Set objIE = Nothing Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Creating a Jenkins build farm in a hands-off manner?

    - by user183394
    My colleague and I have set up and run Jenkins on a KVM guest running Ubuntu 12.04 with good results for a while now. We are thinking about deploying a cluster of Jenkins CI hosts in master/slave configuration, with the libvirt slave plugin to keep our hardware count low. Our environment is strictly Linux (CentOS, Scientific Linux, Fedora, and Ubuntu). Both of us are competent in setting up large clusters. We typically use tools like cobbler + a configuration management tool (Puppet, Chef, and alike) to set up a large number of machines (physical and/or virtual) hands off (hundreds of nodes in less than an hour typical). We would like to do the same for nodes running Jenkins. But the step by step guide doesn't give us any clues in this regard. I did see a Multi-slave config plugin. But, being used to dealing with hundreds or more machines completely hands-off, clicking the UI for many machines just doesn't feel right. Can someone point to us a reference that talks about how to set up large cluster of Jenkins CI hosts more in the hands-off way?

    Read the article

  • How do I create a thread-safe write-once read-many value in Java?

    - by Software Monkey
    This is a problem I encounter frequently in working with more complex systems and which I have never figured out a good way to solve. It usually involves variations on the theme of a shared object whose construction and initialization are necessarily two distinct steps. This is generally because of architectural requirements, similar to applets, so answers that suggest I consolidate construction and initialization are not useful. By way of example, let's say I have a class that is structured to fit into an application framework like so: public class MyClass { private /*ideally-final*/ SomeObject someObject; MyClass() { someObject=null; } public void startup() { someObject=new SomeObject(...arguments from environment which are not available until startup is called...); } public void shutdown() { someObject=null; // this is not necessary, I am just expressing the intended scope of someObject explicitly } } I can't make someObject final since it can't be set until startup() is invoked. But I would really like it to reflect it's write-once semantics and be able to directly access it from multiple threads, preferably avoiding synchronization. The idea being to express and enforce a degree of finalness, I conjecture that I could create a generic container, like so: public class WoRmObject<T> { private T object; WoRmObject() { object=null; } public WoRmObject set(T val) { object=val; return this; } public T get() { return object; } } and then in MyClass, above, do: private final WoRmObject<SomeObject> someObject; MyClass() { someObject=new WoRmObject<SomeObject>(); } public void startup() { someObject.set(SomeObject(...arguments from environment which are not available until startup is called...)); } Which raises some questions for me: Is there a better way, or existing Java object (would have to be available in Java 4)? Is this thread-safe provided that no other thread accesses someObject.get() until after it's set() has been called. The other threads will only invoke methods on MyClass between startup() and shutdown() - the framework guarantees this. Given the completely unsynchronized WoRmObject container, it is ever possible under either JMM to see a value of object which is neither null nor a reference to a SomeObject? In other words, does has the JMM always guaranteed that no thread can observe the memory of an object to be whatever values happened to be on the heap when the object was allocated.

    Read the article

  • Jquery: Handling Checkbox Click Event with JQuery

    - by wcolbert
    I can't figure out what is going on here. I have some nested lists of checkboxes that I would like to check when the parent is checked. More importantly, I can't even get the alert to show up. It's as if the click event is not firing. Any ideas? $(document).ready(function() { $("#part_mapper_list input[type=checkbox]").click(function(){ alert("clicked"); if ($(this).attr("checked") == "checked"){ $(this + " input").attr("checked") = "checked"; } else { $(this + " input").attr("checked") = ""; } }); }

    Read the article

  • Longest common substring from more than two strings - Python

    - by Nicolas Noël
    Hi, I'm looking for a python library for finding the longest common substring from a set of python strings. I'have read that it exist to way to solve this problem : - one using suffix trees - the other using dynamic programming. The method implemented is not important. Otherwise, it is important to have a implementation that can be use for a set of strings and not only two strings Thanks,

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507  | Next Page >