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  • Reversing a circular deque without a sentinel

    - by SDLFunTimes
    Hey Stackoverflow I'm working on my homework and I'm trying to reverse a circular-linked deque without a sentinel. Here are my data structures: struct DLink { TYPE value; struct DLink * next; struct DLink * prev; }; struct cirListDeque { int size; struct DLink *back; }; Here's my approach to reversing the deque: void reverseCirListDeque(struct cirListDeque* q) { struct DLink* current; struct DLink* temp; temp = q->back->next; q->back->next = q->back->prev; q->back->prev = temp; current = q->back->next; while(current != q->back->next) { temp = current->next; current->next = current->prev; current->prev = temp; current = current->next; } } However when I run it and put values 1, 2 and 3 on it (TYPE is just a alias for int in this case) and reverse it I get 2, 3, null. Does anyone have any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • Implementation/interface inheritance design question.

    - by Neil G
    I would like to get the stackoverflow community's opinion on the following three design patterns. The first is implementation inheritance; the second is interface inheritance; the third is a middle ground. My specific question is: Which is best? implementation inheritance: class Base { X x() const = 0; void UpdateX(A a) { y_ = g(a); } Y y_; } class Derived: Base { X x() const { return f(y_); } } interface inheritance: class Base { X x() const = 0; void UpdateX(A a) = 0; } class Derived: Base { X x() const { return x_; } void UpdateX(A a) { x_ = f(g(a)); } X x_; } middle ground: class Base { X x() const { return x_; } void UpdateX(A a) = 0; X x_; } class Derived: Base { void UpdateX(A a) { x_ = f(g(a)); } } I know that many people prefer interface inheritance to implementation inheritance. However, the advantage of the latter is that with a pointer to Base, x() can be inlined and the address of x_ can be statically calculated.

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  • Can't write to dynamic iframe using jQuery

    - by Fremont Troll
    My goal is to dynamically create an iframe and write ad JavaScript into it using jQuery (e.g. Google AdSense script). My code works on Chrome, but fails intermittently in Firefox i.e. sometimes the ad script runs and renders the ad, and other times it doesn't. When it doesn't work, the script code itself shows up in the iframe. My guess is these intermittent failures occur because the iframe is not ready by the time I write to it. I have tried various iterations of *iframe_html* (my name for the function which is supposed to wait for the iframe to be ready), but no luck. Any help appreciated! PS: I have read various threads (e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/205087/jquery-ready-in-a-dynamically-inserted-iframe). Just letting everyone know that I've done my research on this, but I'm stuck :) Iteration 1: function iframe_html(html){ $('<iframe name ="myiframe" id="myiframe"/>').appendTo('#maindiv'); $('#myiframe').load( function(){ $('#myiframe').ready( function(){ var d = $("#myiframe")[0].contentWindow.document; d.open(); d.close(); d.write(html); }); } ); }; Iteration 2: function iframe_html(html){ $('<iframe id="myiframe"/>').appendTo('#maindiv').ready( function(){ $("#myiframe").contents().get(0).write(html); } ); };

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  • How to access different domain data using Java script

    - by shoaibmohammed
    Hello there, Here is the issue. Suppose there is a DOMAIN A which is going to be the server containing a PHP Script file. The data from Domain A is to be accessed by a Client at DOMAIN B. I know it cannot be accessed directly using JavaScript. So what I did is, in Domain A I created a a JavaScript file as front-end for the PHP Script which AJAXes the PHP and returns the data. But unfortunately it din't work I came across an example having PHP as a Middle Man in the client side. But I donot want to keep any server side PHP code as a middle man in the client side. I just want to give out the Javascript to the client domain. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/578095/how-to-get-data-with-javascript-from-another-server DOMAIN A PHP - data.php <?php echo "Server returns data"; ?> JS - example.js Does the Ajax to the PHP function getData() { //assume ajax is done for data.php and data is retrieved, now return the data return ajaxed_data; } Domain B JS Client includes the example.js file from Domain A in his HTML <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.DomainA.com/example.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert(getData()); </script> I hope I have made myself understandable ! Can this be established ? Its something like Google friend connect, what I mean is, just provide JavaScript to the client and thats it. Every thing carried out in server side Thankx for providing this forum

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  • jquery: Writing a method

    - by Mark
    This is the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2890620/jquery-running-a-function-in-a-context-and-adding-to-a-variable But that question was poorly posed. Trying again, I'm trying to do something like this: I have a bunch of elements I want to grab data from, the data is in the form of classes of the element children. <div id='container'> <span class='a'></span> <span class='b'></span> <span class='c'></span> </div> <div id='container2'> <span class='1'></span> <span class='2'></span> <span class='3'></span> </div> I have a method like this: jQuery.fn.grabData = function(expr) { return this.each(function() { var self = $(this); self.find("span").each(function (){ var info = $(this).attr('class'); collection += info; }); }); }; I to run the method like this: var collection = ''; $('#container').grabData(); $('#container2').grabData(); The collection should be adding to each other so that in the end I get this console.log(collection); : abc123 But collection is undefined in the method. How can I let the method know which collection it should be adding to? Thanks.

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  • Linker error: wants C++ virtual base class destructor

    - by jdmuys
    Hi, I have a link error where the linker complains that my concrete class's destructor is calling its abstract superclass destructor, the code of which is missing. This is using GCC 4.2 on Mac OS X from XCode. I saw http://stackoverflow.com/questions/307352/g-undefined-reference-to-typeinfo but it's not quite the same thing. Here is the linker error message: Undefined symbols: "ConnectionPool::~ConnectionPool()", referenced from: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool()in RKConnector.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Here is the abstract base class declaration: class ConnectionPool { public: static ConnectionPool* newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~ConnectionPool() =0; virtual int keepAlive() =0; virtual int disconnect() =0; virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL) =0; virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection) =0; }; Here is the concrete class declaration: class AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool: public ConnectionPool { protected: <snip data members> public: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(); virtual int keepAlive(); // will make sure the connection doesn't time out. Call regularly virtual int disconnect(); // disconnects/destroys all connections. virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL); virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection); }; Needless to say, all those members are implemented. Here is the destructor: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool() { printf("AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool destructor call"); // nothing to destruct in fact } and also maybe the factory routine: ConnectionPool* ConnectionPool::newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b) { return new AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(h, p, u, pw, b); } I can fix this by artificially making my abstract base class concrete. But I'd rather do something better. Any idea? Thanks

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  • Navigating through code with keyboard shortcuts

    - by MarceloRamires
    I'm starting to feel the need to run fastly through code with keyboard shortcuts, to arrive faster where I want to make any changes (avoiding use of mouse or long times holding [up], [left], [right] and [down]). I'm already using some: [home] - first position in current line [end] - last position in current line [ctrl] + [home] - first line of the entire code [ctrl] + [end] - last line of the entire code [pageup] - same vertical position, one screen above [pagedown] - same vertical position, one screen below [ctrl] + [pageup] - first line in current screen [ctrl] + [end] - last line in current screen [ctrl] + [left/right] - skipping word per word What have you got ? I use Visual Studio. (but I'm open to any answer, as I maybe can use others soon) obs: I've searched through stackoverflow and didn't find a nice question with this content, nor a list of keyboard code searching. If it's repeated, I'm sorry for not finding it, I'm here in my best intentions. This question is NOT about any shortcuts, and not only about visual studio, it's about running through code with shortcuts. Answers that suit the question so far: [Ctrl] + [-] - jumps to last cursor position [Ctrl] + [F3] - Jumps to next occurance of the word the curson is in [Shift] + [F3] - Same as the above, backwards. [F12] - Goes to definition of method/variable the cursor is in [Ctrl] + [ ] ] - Jumps to matching brace and select I'll ad more as there are answers.

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  • Cufon selector problems

    - by meep
    Hello StackOverflow. I am using Cufon (http://cufon.shoqolate.com/generate/) to replace some text in a menu. Problem is that I only need to style the first <li> of the first <ul>. I have tried using: Cufon.replace('#menu ul li > a', { fontFamily: 'Christopherhand', hover: { color: '#99c635'}}); With the > seperator, but it does not work. It still replaces the #menu ul li ul li a This is my markup: <div id="menu"> <ul> <li class="current"> <a href="#1">About JW</a> <ul> <li><a href="#2">Subpage 1</a></li> <li><a href="#3">Subpage 2</a></li> <li><a href="#4">Subpage 3</a></li> <li><a href="#5">Subpage 4</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#2">Our Products</a></li> <li><a href="#3">Best Recipes</a></li> <li><a href="#4">Health &amp; Diet</a></li> <li><a href="#5">Our Ads</a></li> </ul> </div> Can anyone see the problem? It should work without adding a class to sub <ul>. :-) Thank you.

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  • Better way to summarize data about stop times?

    - by Vimvq1987
    This question is close to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2947963/find-the-period-of-over-speed Here's my table: Longtitude Latitude Velocity Time 102 401 40 2010-06-01 10:22:34.000 103 403 50 2010-06-01 10:40:00.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:00:03.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:10:05.000 105 406 35 2010-06-01 11:15:30.000 106 403 60 2010-06-01 11:20:00.000 108 404 70 2010-06-01 11:30:05.000 109 405 0 2010-06-01 11:35:00.000 109 405 0 2010-06-01 11:40:00.000 105 407 40 2010-06-01 11:50:00.000 104 406 30 2010-06-01 12:00:00.000 101 409 50 2010-06-01 12:05:30.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:05:30.000 I want to summarize times when vehicle had stopped (velocity = 0), include: it had stopped since "when" to "when" in how much minutes, how many times it stopped and how much time it stopped. I wrote this query to do it: select longtitude, latitude, MIN(time), MAX(time), DATEDIFF(minute, MIN(Time), MAX(time)) as Timespan from table_1 where velocity = 0 group by longtitude,latitude select DATEDIFF(minute, MIN(Time), MAX(time)) as minute into #temp3 from table_1 where velocity = 0 group by longtitude,latitude select COUNT(*) as [number]from #temp select SUM(minute) as [totaltime] from #temp3 drop table #temp This query return: longtitude latitude (No column name) (No column name) Timespan 104 405 2010-06-01 11:00:03.000 2010-06-01 11:10:05.000 10 109 405 2010-06-01 11:35:00.000 2010-06-01 11:40:00.000 5 number 2 totaltime 15 You can see, it works fine, but I really don't like the #temp table. Is there anyway to query this without use a temp table? Thank you.

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  • Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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  • How to learn a C++ GUI library effectively?

    - by Chan
    Hello everyone, I have many options for GUI in my head while searching in stackoverflow, but these are what I chose among others: Qt gtkmm GTK+ I used GTK+ couple years ago, and I felt so painful when using C API without string object and containers. I prefer C++ style, I then switched to C++ gtkmm, but the documentation was bad at that time. I found no help when encountering an issue. Now I want to give a hard try for Qt4, but I really want to know how to learn a GUI librarie effectively. With core C++, I usually pick up a problem and try to solve it in different ways using that particular technique, functionality. On the other hand, after skimming through the documentation from Qt site, I don't think this way of studying is applicable, since the GUI classes and APIs are so much bigger. Plus I'm still in school, so I won't have much time to play all the day long with it. How do you guys learn GUI before? Can anyone share some experiences how they learn thing, that would be an invaluable input for me! Best regards, Chan Nguyen

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  • DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

    - by David Stratton
    I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

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  • How to generate lots of redundant ajax elements like checkboxes and pulldowns in Django?

    - by iJames
    Hello folks. I've been getting lots of answers from stackoverflow now that I'm in Django just be searching. Now I hope my question will also create some value for everybody. In choosing Django, I was hoping there was some similar mechanism to the way you can do partials in ROR. This was going to help me in two ways. One was in generating repeating indexed forms or form elements, and also in rendering only a piece of the page on the round trip. I've done a little bit of that by using taconite with a simple URL click but now I'm trying to get more advanced. This will focus on the form issue which boils down to how to iterate over a secondary object. If I have a list of photo instances, each of which has a couple of parameters, let's say a size and a quantity. I want to generate form elements for each photo instance separately. But then I have two lists I want to iterate on at the same time. Context: photos : Photo.objects.all() and forms = {} for photo in photos: forms[photo.id] = PhotoForm() In other words we've got a list of photo objects and a dict of forms based on the photo.id. Here's an abstraction of the template: {% for photo in photos %} {% include "photoview.html" %} {% comment %} So here I want to use the photo.id as an index to get the correct form. So that each photo has its own form. I would want to have a different action and each form field would be unique. Is that possible? How can I iterate on that? Thanks! {% endcomment %} Quantity: {{ oi.quantity }} {{ form.quantity }} Dimensions: {{ oi.size }} {{ form.size }} {% endfor %} What can I do about this simple case. And how can I make it where every control is automatically updating the server instead of using a form at all? Thanks! James

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  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

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  • Set .aspx page title to that of an Eval

    - by user1860529
    I am trying to use an <%# Eval("name") %> to be the title of my page. I can't seem to figure out any solutions online. I have tried the other StackOverflow question but that did now work either. The page is a bio.aspx and on the site it is displayed as bio.aspx?id=123 so the page title needs to vary depending on the ID. I figured I could just use the Eval("name") but no luck yet. I currently am using JavaScript: window.onload = function() { document.title = '<%# Eval("name") %> | Title Line'; } This works, but it still leaves the title tags empty, and it's kind of spammy. Here is the codebehind: using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; public partial class DoctorBio : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Page.Title = "Your Page Title"; HtmlMeta metaDescription = new HtmlMeta(); metaDescription.Name = "description"; metaDescription.Content = "brief description"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(metaDescription); HtmlMeta metaKeywords = new HtmlMeta(); metaKeywords.Name = "keywords"; metaKeywords.Content = "keywords, keywords"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(metaKeywords); } protected void SetPageTitle(object title) { this.Title = title.ToString(); } protected string ReplaceLineBreaks(object text) { string newText = text as string; if (newText == null) { return string.Empty; } return newText.Replace("\r\n", "<br />"); } }

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  • Rails Browser Detection Methods

    - by alvincrespo
    Hey Everyone, I was wondering what methods are standard within the industry to do browser detection in Rails? Is there a gem, library or sample code somewhere that can help determine the browser and apply a class or id to the body element of the (X)HTML? Thanks, I'm just wondering what everyone uses and whether there is accepted method of doing this? I know that we can get the user.agent and parse that string, but I'm not sure if that is that is an acceptable way to do browser detection. Also, I'm not trying to debate feature detection here, I've read multiple answers for that on StackOverflow, all I'm asking for is what you guys have done. [UPDATE] So thanks to faunzy on GitHub, I've sort of understand a bit about checking the user agent in Rails, but still not sure if this is the best way to go about it in Rails 3. But here is what I've gotten so far: def users_browser user_agent = request.env['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].downcase @users_browser ||= begin if user_agent.index('msie') && !user_agent.index('opera') && !user_agent.index('webtv') 'ie'+user_agent[user_agent.index('msie')+5].chr elsif user_agent.index('gecko/') 'gecko' elsif user_agent.index('opera') 'opera' elsif user_agent.index('konqueror') 'konqueror' elsif user_agent.index('ipod') 'ipod' elsif user_agent.index('ipad') 'ipad' elsif user_agent.index('iphone') 'iphone' elsif user_agent.index('chrome/') 'chrome' elsif user_agent.index('applewebkit/') 'safari' elsif user_agent.index('googlebot/') 'googlebot' elsif user_agent.index('msnbot') 'msnbot' elsif user_agent.index('yahoo! slurp') 'yahoobot' #Everything thinks it's mozilla, so this goes last elsif user_agent.index('mozilla/') 'gecko' else 'unknown' end end return @users_browser end

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  • Remove redundant SQL code

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Code The following code calculates the slope and intercept for a linear regression against a slathering of data. It then applies the equation y = mx + b against the same result set to calculate the value of the regression line for each row. Can the two separate sub-selects be joined so that the data and its slope/intercept are calculated without executing the data gathering part of the query twice? SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR * ymxb.SLOPE + ymxb.INTERCEPT as REGRESSION_LINE, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D, (SELECT ((avg(t.AMOUNT * t.YEAR)) - avg(t.AMOUNT) * avg(t.YEAR)) / (stddev( t.AMOUNT ) * stddev( t.YEAR )) as CORRELATION, ((sum(t.YEAR) * sum(t.AMOUNT)) - (count(1) * sum(t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as SLOPE, ((sum( t.YEAR ) * sum( t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT )) - (sum( t.AMOUNT ) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2)))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as INTERCEPT FROM ( SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR ) t ) ymxb WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR Question How do I execute the duplicate bits only once per query, instead of twice? The duplicate bit is the WHERE clause: $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' Related http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1595659/how-to-eliminate-duplicate-calculation-in-sql Thank you!

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  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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  • How to properly translate the "var" result of a lambda expression to a concrete type?

    - by CrimsonX
    So I'm trying to learn more about lambda expressions. I read this question on stackoverflow, concurred with the chosen answer, and have attempted to implement the algorithm using a console app in C# using a simple LINQ expression. My question is: how do I translate the "var result" of the lambda expression into a usable object that I can then print the result? I would also appreciate an in-depth explanation of what is happening when I declare the outer => outer.Value.Frequency (I've read numerous explanations of lambda expressions but additional clarification would help) C# //Input : {5, 13, 6, 5, 13, 7, 8, 6, 5} //Output : {5, 5, 5, 13, 13, 6, 6, 7, 8} //The question is to arrange the numbers in the array in decreasing order of their frequency, preserving the order of their occurrence. //If there is a tie, like in this example between 13 and 6, then the number occurring first in the input array would come first in the output array. List<int> input = new List<int>(); input.Add(5); input.Add(13); input.Add(6); input.Add(5); input.Add(13); input.Add(7); input.Add(8); input.Add(6); input.Add(5); Dictionary<int, FrequencyAndValue> dictionary = new Dictionary<int, FrequencyAndValue>(); foreach (int number in input) { if (!dictionary.ContainsKey(number)) { dictionary.Add(number, new FrequencyAndValue(1, number) ); } else { dictionary[number].Frequency++; } } var result = dictionary.OrderByDescending(outer => outer.Value.Frequency); // How to translate the result into something I can print??

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  • Unable to persist objects in GAE JDO

    - by Basil Dsouza
    Hello Guys, I am completely fresh to both JDO and GAE, and have been struggling to get my data layer to persist any code at all! The issues I am facing may be very simple, but I just cant seem to find any a way no matter what solution I try. Firstly the problem: (Slightly simplified, but still contains all the info necessary) My data model is as such: User: (primary key) String emailID String firstName Car: (primary key) User user (primary key) String registration String model This was the initial datamodel. I implemented a CarPK object to get a composite primary key of the User and the registration. However that ran into a variety of issues. (Which i will save for another time/question) I then changed the design as such: User: (Unchanged) Car: (primary key) String fauxPK (here fauxPK = user.getEmailID() + SEP + registration) User user String registration String model This works fine for the user, and it can insert and retrieve user objects. However when i try to insert a Car Object, i get the following error: "Cannot have a java.lang.String primary key and be a child object" Found the following helpful link about it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2063467/persist-list-of-objects Went to the link suggested there, that explains how to create Keys, however they keep talking about "Entity Groups" and "Entity Group Parents". But I cant seem to find any articles or sites that explain what are "Entity Group"s or an "Entity Group Parents" I could try fiddling around some more to figure out if i can store an object somehow, But I am running sort on patience and also would rather understand and implement than vice versa. So i would appreciate any docs (even if its huge) that covers all these points, and preferably has some examples that go beyond the very basic data modeling. And thanks for reading such a long post :)

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  • How to generate XML from an Excel VBA macro?

    - by SuperNES
    So, I've got a bunch of content that was delivered to us in the form of Excel spreadsheets. I need to take that content and push it into another system. The other system takes its input from an XML file. I could do all of this by hand (and trust me, management has no problem making me do that!), but I'm hoping there's an easy way to write an Excel macro that would generate the XML I need instead. This seems like a better solution to me, as this is a job that will need to be repeated regularly (we'll be getting a LOT of content in Excel sheets) and it just makes sense to have a batch tool that does it for us. However, I've never experimented with generating XML from Excel spreadsheets before. I have a little VBA knowledge but I'm a newbie to XML. I guess my problem in Googling this is that I don't even know what to Google for. Can anyone give me a little direction to get me started? Does my idea sound like the right way to approach this problem, or am I overlooking something obvious? Thanks StackOverflow!

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  • How to specialize a type parameterized argument to multiple different types for in Scala?

    - by jmount
    I need a back-check (please). In an article ( http://www.win-vector.com/blog/2010/06/automatic-differentiation-with-scala/ ) I just wrote I stated that it is my belief in Scala that you can not specify a function that takes an argument that is itself a function with an unbound type parameter. What I mean is you can write: def g(f:Array[Double]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double but you can not write something like: def g(f[Y]:Array[Y]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double because Y is not known. The intended use is that inside g() I will specialize fY to multiple different types at different times. You can write: def g[Y](f:Array[Y]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double but then f() is of a single type per call to g() (which is exactly what we do not want). However, you can get all of the equivalent functionality by using a trait extension instead insisting on passing around a function. What I advocated in my article was: 1) Creating a trait that imitates the structure of Scala's Function1 trait. Something like: abstract trait VectorFN { def apply[Y](x:Array[Y]):Y } 2) declaring def g(f:VectorFN,Double):Double (using the trait is the type). This works (people here on StackOverflow helped me find it, and I am happy with it)- but am I mis-representing Scala by missing an even better solution?

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  • XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

    - by Danny
    As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

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  • Few Basic Questions in Overriding

    - by Dahlia
    I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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  • Facebook offline access step-by-step

    - by Ben
    After searchinge litteraly 1 day on fb and google for an up-to-date and working way to do something seemingly simple: I am looking for a step-by-step explanation to get offline_access for a user for a facebook app and then using this (session key) to retrieve offline & not within a browser friends & profile data. Preferrably doing this in the Fb Java API. Thanks. And yes I did check the facebook wiki. Update: Anyone? this: http://www.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=<api-key>&v=1.0&ext_perm=offline_access gives me offline_Access, however how to retrieve the session_key? Why can't facebook just do simple documentation, I mean there are like 600 people working there? The seemingly same question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/617043/getting-offlineaccess-to-work-with-facebook Does not answer how to retrieve the session key Edit: I am still stuck with that. I guess nobody really tried such a batch access out yet...

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