Search Results

Search found 14898 results on 596 pages for 'static initializer'.

Page 500/596 | < Previous Page | 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507  | Next Page >

  • Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

    - by user354303
    Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

    Read the article

  • Dereferencing the null pointer

    - by zilgo
    The standard says that dereferencing the null pointer leads to undefined behaviour. But what is "the null pointer"? In the following code, what we call "the null pointer": struct X { static X* get() { return reinterpret_cast<X*>(1); } void f() { } }; int main() { X* x = 0; (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (1) x = X::get(); (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (2) x = reinterpret_cast<X*>( X::get() - X::get() ); (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (3) (*(X*)0).f(); // I think that this the only null pointer here (4) } My thought is that dereferencing of the null pointer takes place only in the last case. Am I right? Is there difference between compile time null pointers and runtime according to C++ Standard?

    Read the article

  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

    Read the article

  • Block Cascade Json Serealize?

    - by CrazyJoe
    I have this Class: public class User { public string id{ get; set; } public string name{ get; set; } public string password { get; set; } public string email { get; set; } public bool is_broker { get; set; } public string branch_id { get; set; } public string created_at{get; set;} public string updated_at{get; set;} public UserGroup UserGroup {get;set;} public UserAddress UserAddress { get; set; } public List<UserContact> UserContact {get; set;} public User() { UserGroup = new UserGroup(); UserAddress = new UserAddress(); UserContact = new List<UserContact>(); } } I like to Serealize Only properties , how i block serealization of UserGroup, UserAdress, asn UserContact??? This is my Serealization function: public static string Serealize<T>(T obj) { System.Runtime.Serialization.Json.DataContractJsonSerializer serializer = new System.Runtime.Serialization.Json.DataContractJsonSerializer(obj.GetType()); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); serializer.WriteObject(ms, obj); return Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray(), 0,(int)ms.Length); }

    Read the article

  • Manually wiring up unobtrusive jquery validation client-side without Model/Data Annotations, MVC3

    - by cmorganmcp
    After searching and experimenting for 2 days I relent. What I'd like to do is manually wire up injected html with jquery validation. I'm getting a simple string array back from the server and creating a select with the strings as options. The static fields on the form are validating fine. I've been trying the following: var dates = $("<select id='ShiftDate' data-val='true' data-val-required='Please select a date'>"); dates.append("<option value=''>-Select a Date-</option>"); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { dates.append("<option value='" + data[i] + "'>" + data[i] + "</option>"); } $("fieldset", addShift).append($("<p>").append("<label for='ShiftDate'>Shift Date</label>\r").append(dates).append("<span class='field-validation-valid' data-valmsg-for='ShiftDate' data-valmsg-replace='true'></span>")); // I tried the code below as well instead of adding the data-val attributes and span manually with no luck dates.rules("add", { required: true, messages: { required: "Please select a date" } }); // Thought this would do it when I came across several posts but it didn't $.validator.unobtrusive.parse(dates.closest("form")); I know I could create a view model ,decorate it with a required attribute, create a SelectList server-side and send that, but it's more of a "how would I do this" situation now. Can anyone shed light on why the above code wouldn't work as I expect? -chad

    Read the article

  • C++ member template for boost ptr_vector

    - by Ivan
    Hi there, I'm trying to write a container class using boost::ptr_vector. Inside the ptr_vector I would like to include different classes. I'm trying to achieve that using static templates, but so far I'm not able to do that. For example, the container class is class model { private: boost::ptr_vector<elem_type> elements; public: void insert_element(elem_type *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; and what I'm trying to achieve is be able to use different elem_type classes. The code below doesn't satisfy my requirements: template <typename T>class model { private: boost::ptr_vector<T> elements; public: void insert_element(T *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; because when I initialize the container class I can only use one class as template: model <elem_type_1> model_thing; model_thing.insert_element(new elem_type_1) but not elem_type_2: model_thing.insert_element(new elem_type_2)//error, of course It is possible to do something like using templates only on the member? class model { private: template <typename T> boost::ptr_vector<T> elements; public: void insert_element(T *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; //wrong So I can call the insert_element on the specific class that I want to insert? Note that I do not want to use virtual members. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Groovy & Grails Concurrency ( quartz, executor )

    - by Pietro
    What I'm trying to do is to run multiple threads at some starting time. Those threads must stay alive for 90minutes after start. During the 90minutes they execute something after a random sleep time (ex: 5minutes to 15minutes). Here is a pseudo code on how I would implement it. The problem is that doing it in this way the threads run in an unexpected way. How can I implement correctly something like this? Class MyJob { static triggers = { cron name: 'first', cronExpression: "0 30 21 * * FRI" cron name: 'second', cronExpression: "0 30 19 * * FRI" cron name: 'third', cronExpression: "0 30 17 * * FRI" def myService def execute() { switch( between trigger name ) case 'first': model = Model.findByAttribute(...) ... myService.run( model, start_time ) break; ... } } class MyService { def run( model, start_time ) { def end_time = end_time.plusMinutes(90) model.fields.each( field -> Thread.start { executeSomeTasks( field, start_time, end_time ) } ) } def executeSomeTasks( field, start_time, end_time ) { while( start_time < end_time ) { ...do something ... sleep( Random.nextInt( 1000 ) ); } } }

    Read the article

  • java gui image problem : doesn't display in the background

    - by thegamer
    Hello, i have a query about why is my image not being displayed in my background of my program. I mean i did all the steps necessary and still it would'nt be displayed. The code runs perfectly but without having the image displayed. The directory is written in the good location of the image. I am using java with gui. If anyone could help me solve my problem, i would appreciate :) here is the code below: import java.awt.*; import java.awt.event.*; import javax.swing.*; public class hehe extends JPanel{ public hehe(){ setOpaque(false); setLayout(new FlowLayout()); } public static void main (String args[]){ JFrame win = new JFrame("yooooo"); // it is automaticcally hidden JPanel mainPanel = new JPanel(new BorderLayout()); win.add(mainPanel); JLabel titleLabel = new JLabel("title boss"); titleLabel.setFont(new Font("Arial",Font.BOLD,18)); titleLabel.setForeground(Color.blue); mainPanel.add(titleLabel,BorderLayout.NORTH); win.setSize(382,269); // the dimensions of the image win.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); win.setVisible(true); } public void paint(Graphics g) { Image a = Toolkit.getDefaultToolkit().getImage("C:\\Users\\andrea\\Desktop\\Gui\\car"); // car is the name of the image file and is in JPEG g.drawImage(a,0,0,getSize().width,getSize().height,this); super.paint(g); } }

    Read the article

  • Line End Problem Reading with Scanner Class in Java

    - by dikbas
    I am not an experienced Java programmer and i'm trying to write some text to a file and then read it with Scanner. I know there are lots of ways of doing this, but i want to write records to file with delimiters, then read the pieces. The problem is so small. When I look the output some printing isn't seen(shown in below). I mean the bold line in the Output that is only written "Scanner". I would be appreciated if anyone can answer why "String: " isn't seen there. (Please answer just what i ask) I couldn't understand if it is a simple printing problem or a line end problem with "\r\n". Here is the code and output: import java.io.FileReader; import java.io.FileWriter; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Scanner; public class Tmp { public static void main(String args[]) throws IOException { int i; boolean b; String str; FileWriter fout = new FileWriter("test.txt"); fout.write("Testing|10|true|two|false\r\n"); fout.write("Scanner|12|one|true|"); fout.close(); FileReader fin = new FileReader("Test.txt"); Scanner src = new Scanner(fin).useDelimiter("[|\\*]"); while (src.hasNext()) { if (src.hasNextInt()) { i = src.nextInt(); System.out.println("int: " + i); } else if (src.hasNextBoolean()) { b = src.nextBoolean(); System.out.println("boolean: " + b); } else { str = src.next(); System.out.println("String: " + str); } } fin.close(); } } Here is the output: String: Testing int: 10 boolean: true String: two String: false Scanner int: 12 String: one boolean: true

    Read the article

  • Sql Server 2005 multiple insert with c#

    - by bottlenecked
    Hello. I have a class named Entry declared like this: class Entry{ string Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} } and then a method that will accept multiple such Entry objects for insertion into the database using ADO.NET: static void InsertEntries(IEnumerable<Entry> entries){ //build a SqlCommand object using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand()){ ... const string refcmdText = "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id{0},@name{0});"; int count = 0; string query = string.Empty; //build a large query foreach(var entry in entries){ query += string.Format(refcmdText, count); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@id{0}",count), entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(string.Format("@name{0}",count), entry.Name); count++; } cmd.CommandText=query; //and then execute the command ... } } And my question is this: should I keep using the above way of sending multiple insert statements (build a giant string of insert statements and their parameters and send it over the network), or should I keep an open connection and send a single insert statement for each Entry like this: using(SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(){ using(SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(){ //assign connection string and open connection ... cmd.Connection = conn; foreach(var entry in entries){ cmd.CommandText= "INSERT INTO Entries (id, name) VALUES (@id,@name);"; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", entry.Id); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@name", entry.Name); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } } What do you think? Will there be a performance difference in the Sql Server between the two? Are there any other consequences I should be aware of? Thank you for your time!

    Read the article

  • Client-Side Dynamic Removal of <script> Tags in <head>

    - by merv
    Is it possible to remove script tags in the <head> of an HTML document client-side and prior to execution of those tags? On the server-side I am able to insert a <script> above all other <script> tags in the <head>, except one, and I would like to be able to remove all subsequent scripts. I do not have the ability to remove <script> tags from the server side. What I've tried: (function (c,h) { var i, s = h.getElementsByTagName('script'); c.log("Num scripts: " + s.length); i = s.length - 1; while(i > 1) { h.removeChild(s[i]); i -= 1; } })(console, document.head); However, the logged number of scripts comes out to only 1, since (as @ryan pointed out) the code is being executed prior to the DOM being ready. Although wrapping the code above in a document.ready event callback does enable proper calculation of the number of <script> tags in the <head>, waiting until the DOM is ready fails to prevent the scripts from loading. Is there a reliable means of manipulating the HTML prior to the DOM being ready? Background If you want more context, this is part of an attempt to consolidate scripts where no option for server-side aggregation is available. Many of the JS libraries being loaded are from a CMS with limited configuration options. The content is mostly static, so there is very little concern about manually aggregating the JavaScript and serving it from a different location. Any suggestions for alternative applicable aggregation techniques would also be welcome.

    Read the article

  • First and last UITableViewCell keep changing while scrolling.

    - by W Dyson
    I have a tableView with cells containing one UITextField as a subview for each cell. My problem is that when I scroll down, the text in the first cell is duplicated in the last cell. I can't for the life if me figure out why. I have tried loading the cells from different nibs, having the textFields as ivars. The UITextFields don't seem to be the problem, I'm thinking it has something to do with the tableView reusing the cells. The textFields all have a data source that keeps track of the text within the textField and the text is reset each time the cell is shown. Any ideas? UPDATE: Thanks guys, here's a sample: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"Section %i, Row %i", indexPath.section, indexPath.row); static NSString *JournalCellIdentifier = @"JournalCellIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = (UITableViewCell *)[self.tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:JournalCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:JournalCellIdentifier] autorelease]; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; } if (indexPath.section == 0) { UITextField *textField = (UITextField *)[self.authorCell viewWithTag:1]; [cell addSubview:textField]; self.authorTextField = textField; self.authorTextField.text = [self.textFieldDictionary objectForKey:@"author"]; NSLog(@"Reading Author:%@", [self.textFieldDictionary objectForKey:@"author"]); } else if (indexPath.section == 1) { UITextField *textField = (UITextField *)[self.yearCell viewWithTag:1]; [cell addSubview:textField]; self.yearTextField = textField; self.yearTextField.text = [self.textFieldDictionary objectForKey:@"year"]; NSLog(@"Reading Year:%@", [self.textFieldDictionary objectForKey:@"year"]); } else if (indexPath.section == 2) { UITextField *textField = (UITextField *)[self.volumeCell viewWithTag:1]; [cell addSubview:textField]; self.volumeTextField = textField; self.volumeTextField.text = [self.textFieldDictionary objectForKey:@"volume"]; NSLog(@"Reading Volume:%@", [self.textFieldDictionary objectForKey:@"volume"]); } return cell; }

    Read the article

  • Problem Routing domains subfolder

    - by hkda150
    Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

    Read the article

  • [Netbeans 6.9] Java MethodOverloading error with double values

    - by Nimitips
    Here is a part of my code I'm having trouble with: ===Class Overload=== public class Overload { public void testOverLoadeds() { System.out.printf("Square of integer 7 is %d\n",square(7)); System.out.printf("Square of double 7.5 is %d\n",square(7.5)); }//..end testOverloadeds public int square(int intValue) { System.out. printf("\nCalled square with int argument: %d\n",intValue); return intValue * intValue; }//..end square int public double square(double doubleValue) { System.out.printf("\nCalled square with double argument: %d\n", doubleValue); return doubleValue * doubleValue; }//..end square double }//..end class overload ===Main=== public static void main(String[] args) { Overload methodOverload = new Overload(); methodOverload.testOverLoadeds(); } It compiles with no error, however when I try to run it the output is: Called square with int argument: 7 Square of integer 7 is 49 Exception in thread "main" java.util.IllegalFormatConversionException: d != java.lang.Double at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.failConversion(Formatter.java:3999) at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.printInteger(Formatter.java:2709) at java.util.Formatter$FormatSpecifier.print(Formatter.java:2661) at java.util.Formatter.format(Formatter.java:2433) at java.io.PrintStream.format(PrintStream.java:920) at java.io.PrintStream.printf(PrintStream.java:821) at methodoverload.Overload.square(Overload.java:19) at methodoverload.Overload.testOverLoadeds(Overload.java:8) at methodoverload.Main.main(Main.java:9) Called square with double argument:Java Result: 1 What am I doing wrong? I'm on Ubuntu 10.10, Netbeans 6.9. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is locking on the requested object a bad idea?

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    Most advice on thread safety involves some variation of the following pattern: public class Thing { private static readonly object padlock = new object(); private string stuff, andNonsense; public string Stuff { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Threadsafe!"; } return this.stuff; } } public string AndNonsense { get { lock (Thing.padlock) { if (this.andNonsense == null) this.andNonsense = "Also threadsafe!"; } return this.andNonsense; } } // Rest of class... } In cases where the get operations are expensive and unrelated, a single locking object is unsuitable because a call to Stuff would block all calls to AndNonsense, degrading performance. And rather than create a lock object for each call, wouldn't it be better to acquire the lock on the member itself (assuming it is not something that implements SyncRoot or somesuch for that purpose? For example: public string Stuff { get { lock (this.stuff) { // Pretend that this is a very expensive operation. if (this.stuff == null) this.stuff = "Still threadsafe and good?"; } return this.stuff; } } Strangely, I have never seen this approach recommended or warned against. Am I missing something obvious?

    Read the article

  • cannot convert from string to system.windows.forms.string iwin32window

    - by Michael Quiles
    This is supposed to show the winner in the xWinner form label but I cant figure it out. xWinnerForm.Show(b1.Text);. I'm new to c# so can you please explain in layman terms thanks. static public bool CheckWinner(Button[] myControls) { bool gameOver = false; for (int i = 0; i < 8; i++) { int a = Winners[i, 0]; int b = Winners[i, 1]; int c = Winners[i, 2]; Button b1 = myControls[a], b2 = myControls[b], b3 = myControls[c]; if (b1.Text == "" || b2.Text == "" || b3.Text == "") continue; if (b1.Text == b2.Text && b2.Text == b3.Text) { gameOver = true; Form xWinnerForm = new xWinnerForm(); xWinnerForm.Show(b1.Text); } public void Show(string text) { this.xWinnerLabel.Text = text; this.Show(); } } return gameOver; }

    Read the article

  • Generating authentication header from azure table through objective-c

    - by user923370
    I'm fetching data from iCloud and for that I need to generate a header (azure table storage). I used the code below for that and it is generating the headers. But when I use these headers in my project it is showing "make sure that the value of authorization header is formed correctly including the signature." I googled a lot and tried many codes but in vain. Can anyone kindly please help me with where I'm going wrong in this code. -(id)generat{ NSString *messageToSign = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/%@/%@", dateString,AZURE_ACCOUNT_NAME, tableName]; NSString *key = @"asasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasas=="; const char *cKey = [key cStringUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; const char *cData = [messageToSign cStringUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; unsigned char cHMAC[CC_SHA256_DIGEST_LENGTH]; CCHmac(kCCHmacAlgSHA256, cKey, strlen(cKey), cData, strlen(cData), cHMAC); NSData *HMAC = [[NSData alloc] initWithBytes:cHMAC length:sizeof(cHMAC)]; NSString *hash = [Base64 encode:HMAC]; NSLog(@"Encoded hash: %@", hash); NSURL *url=[NSURL URLWithString: @"http://my url"]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request addValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"SharedKeyLite %@:%@",AZURE_ACCOUNT_NAME, hash] forHTTPHeaderField:@"Authorization"]; [request addValue:dateString forHTTPHeaderField:@"x-ms-date"]; [request addValue:@"application/atom+xml, application/xml"forHTTPHeaderField:@"Accept"]; [request addValue:@"UTF-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Accept-Charset"]; NSLog(@"Headers: %@", [request allHTTPHeaderFields]); NSLog(@"URL: %@", [[request URL] absoluteString]); return request; } -(NSString*)rfc1123String:(NSDate *)date { static NSDateFormatter *df = nil; if(df == nil) { df = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; df.locale = [[[NSLocale alloc] initWithLocaleIdentifier:@"en_US"] autorelease]; df.timeZone = [NSTimeZone timeZoneWithAbbreviation:@"GMT"]; df.dateFormat = @"EEE',' dd MMM yyyy HH':'mm':'ss 'GMT'"; } return [df stringFromDate:date]; }

    Read the article

  • Simple wxPython Frame Contents Resizing - Ratio?

    - by Wes
    I have a wxPython app with one frame and one panel. On that panel are a number of static boxes, each of which has buttons and textboxes. I have just begun reading about sizers, but they seem like they might be more than what I need, or it could that they are exactly what I need but I don't know how to use them correctly! The frame currently opens at 1920 x 1080. If the user drags the bottom right corner to resize the app, I just want everything to get smaller or larger as needed to keep the same size ratio. Is this possible? Thank you! edit: additional info: I used wxPython 2.8 and Boa to construct the GUI. I am contemplating trying another gui ide. So after reading some more about sizers, I am thinking about doing the following: add a gridsizer and basically divide my window's elements into rows and columns, then set each row and column's size as necessary until I achieve the original layout. Then I guess set the rows and columns to resize correctly? Is this a decent idea?

    Read the article

  • _beginthreadx and socket

    - by user638197
    hi, i have a question about the _beginthreadx function In the third and fourth parameter: if i have this line to create the thread hThread=(HANDLE)_beginthreadex(0,0, &RunThread, &m_socket,CREATE_SUSPENDED,&threadID ); m_socket is the socket that i want inside the thread (fourth parameter) and i have the RunThread function (third parameter) in this way static unsigned __stdcall RunThread (void* ptr) { return 0; } It is sufficient to create the thread independently if m_socket has something or not? Thanks in advance Thank you for the response Ciaran Keating helped me understand better the thread I'll explain a little more the situation I´m creating the tread in this function inside a class public: void getClientsConnection() { numberOfClients = 1; SOCKET temporalSocket = NULL; firstClient = NULL; secondClient = NULL; while (numberOfClients < 2) { temporalSocket = SOCKET_ERROR; while (temporalSocket == SOCKET_ERROR) { temporalSocket = accept(m_socket, NULL, NULL); //----------------------------------------------- HANDLE hThread; unsigned threadID; hThread=(HANDLE)_beginthreadex(0,0, &RunThread, &m_socket,CREATE_SUSPENDED,&threadID ); WaitForSingleObject( hThread, INFINITE ); if(!hThread) printf("ERROR AL CREAR EL HILO: %ld\n", WSAGetLastError()); //----------------------------------------------- } if(firstClient == NULL) { firstClient = temporalSocket; muebleC1 = temporalSocket; actionC1 = temporalSocket; ++numberOfClients; printf("CLIENTE 1 CONECTADO\n"); } else { secondClient = temporalSocket; muebleC2 = temporalSocket; actionC2 = temporalSocket; ++numberOfClients; printf("CLIENTE 2 CONECTADO\n"); } } } What i'm trying to do is to have the socket inside the thread while wait for a client connection Is this feasible as i have the code of the thread? I can change the state of the thread that is not a problem Thanks again

    Read the article

  • Is is possible to do an end-run around generics covariance in C# < 4 in this hypothetical situation?

    - by John Feminella
    Suppose I have a small inheritance hierarchy of Animals: public interface IAnimal { string Speak(); } public class Animal : IAnimal { public Animal() {} public string Speak() { return "[Animal] Growl!"; } } public class Ape : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Ape] Rawrrrrrrr!"; } } public class Bat : IAnimal { public string Speak() { return "[Bat] Screeeeeee!"; } } Next, here's an interface offering a way to turn strings into IAnimals. public interface ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal { T Transmogrify(string s); } And finally, here's one strategy for doing that: public class Transmogrifier<T> : ITransmogrifier<T> where T : IAnimal, new() { public T Transmogrify(string s) { T t = default(T); if (typeof(T).Name == s) t = new T(); return t; } } Now, the question. Is it possible to replace the sections marked [1], [2], and [3] such that this program will compile and run correctly? If you can't do it without touching parts other than [1], [2], and [3], can you still get an IAnimal out of each instance of a Transmogrifier in a collection containing arbitrary implementations of an IAnimal? Can you even form such a collection to begin with? static void Main(string[] args) { var t = new Transmogrifier<Ape>(); Ape a = t.Transmogrify("Ape"); Console.WriteLine(a.Speak()); // Works! // But can we make an arbitrary collection of such animals? var list = new List<Transmogrifier< [1] >>() { // [2] }; // And how about we call Transmogrify() on each one? foreach (/* [3] */ transmogrifier in list) { IAnimal ia = transmogrifier.Transmogrify("Bat"); } } }

    Read the article

  • Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

    - by Sir Code-A-Lot
    Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

    Read the article

  • add database Tablenames to the JList in java

    - by Litecia
    // Declare JList private JList jlstTab, jlstCol; . . . DefaultListModel dlmTables = new DefaultListModel(); DefaultListModel dlmCol = new DefaultListModel(); // Instantiate dlmTables.addElement("kl"); jlstTab= new JList(dlmTables); jlstTab.setSelectedIndex(0); jlstTab.setSelectionMode(ListSelectionModel.SINGLE_SELECTION); . . . . Connect to the database public static void main(String args[]) { DBToolSwing cs = new DBToolSwing("DB Tool Swing"); try DBAccessObject dbAccess1 = new DBAccessObject("jdbc:odbc:JavaClassDSN"); DBAccessObject dbAccess2 = new DBAccessObject(); ResultSet rsTables = dbAccess1.getDatabaseTableNames(); while (rsTables.next()) System.out.println(rsTables.getString("TABLE_NAME")); I need to get the table names from the database, the output shouldn't be printed on the screen, instead I need the output added to the JlstTab so dlmTables.addElement("TABLE_NAME"); Please if someone can help I would appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Call Oracle package function using Odbc from C#

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I have a function defined inside an Oracle package: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY TESTUSER.TESTPKG as FUNCTION testfunc(n IN NUMBER) RETURN NUMBER as begin return n + 1; end testfunc; end testpkg; / How can I call it from C# using Odbc? I tried the following: using System; using System.Data; using System.Data.Odbc; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { using (OdbcConnection connection = new OdbcConnection("DSN=testdb;UID=testuser;PWD=testpwd")) { connection.Open(); OdbcCommand command = new OdbcCommand("TESTUSER.TESTPKG.testfunc", connection); command.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; command.Parameters.Add("ret", OdbcType.Int).Direction = ParameterDirection.ReturnValue; command.Parameters.Add("n", OdbcType.Int).Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; command.Parameters["n"].Value = 42; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); Console.WriteLine(command.Parameters["ret"].Value); } } } But I get an exception saying "Invalid SQL Statement". What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Code Analysis Warning CA1004 with generic method

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following generic method: // Load an object from the disk public static T DeserializeObject<T>(String filename) where T : class { XmlSerializer xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); try { TextReader textReader = new StreamReader(filename); var result = (T)xmlSerializer.Deserialize(textReader); textReader.Close(); return result; } catch (FileNotFoundException) { } return null; } When I compile I get the following warning: CA1004 : Microsoft.Design : Consider a design where 'MiscHelpers.DeserializeObject(string)' doesn't require explicit type parameter 'T' in any call to it. I have considered this and I don't know a way to do what it requests with out limiting the types that can be deserialized. I freely admit that I might be missing an easy way to fix this. But if I am not, then is my only recourse to suppress this warning? I have a clean project with no warnings or messages. I would like to keep it that way. I guess I am asking "why this is a warning?" At best this seems like it should be a message. And even that seems a bit much. Either it can or it can't be fixed. If it can't then you are just stuck with the warning with no recourse but suppressing it. Am I wrong?

    Read the article

  • Catching exception in Main() method

    - by Corvin
    Consider the following simple application: a windows form created by a "new C# windows application" sequence in VS that was modified in a following way: public static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); try { Application.Run(new Form1()); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("An unexpected exception was caught."); } } Form1.cs contains the following modifications: private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { throw new Exception("Error"); } If I press F5 in IDE, then, as I expect, I see a message box saying that exception was caught and the application quits. If I go to Debug(or Release)/bin and launch the executable, I see the standard "Unhandled exception" window, meaning that my exception handler doesn't work. Obviously, that has something to do with exception being thrown from a different thread that Application.Run is called from. But the question remains - why the behavior differs depending on whether the application has been run from IDE or from command line? What is the best practice to ensure that no exceptions remain unhandled in the application?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503 504 505 506 507  | Next Page >