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• Strange problem with PHP and sessions

  - by Jhorra

  So the basis of this page is I set a session value when the page loads, and clear it on any other page they visit. Then the page can make an ajax call to download a file. If the session value matches the value I pass through the URL I allow them to download the file. If not I return a 404 error. I was having some weird issues, so I removed the 404 and set it to echo out the values instead to see what I was getting. Here is the top of the code on the page: $code = $this->_request->getParam('code'); $confirm = $_SESSION['mp3_code']; echo $code."-1-".$confirm; if($code != $confirm) echo $code."-2-".$confirm;//header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found"); else { Here is what displays on the page from the ajax call 12723430-1-12723430-2- As you can see when it echos out the first time they exist, then somehow after I compare them and it fails you see that it echos out blank values like they suddenly ceased to exist. Any ideas?

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• What is the best way to identify which form has been submitted?

  - by Rupert

  Currently, when I design my forms, I like to keep the name of the submit button equal to the id of the form. Then, in my php, I just do if(isset($_POST['submitName'])) in order to check if a form has been submitted and which form has been submitted. Firstly, are there any security problems or design flaws with this method? One problem I have encountered is when I wish to overlay my forms with javascript in order to provide faster validation to the user. For example, whilst I obviously need to retain server side validation, it is more convenient for the user if an error message is displayed inline, upon blurring an input. Additionally, it would be good to provide entire form validation, upon clicking the submit button. Therefore, when the user clicks on the form's submit button, I am stopping the default action, doing my validation, and then attempting to renable the traditional submit functionality, if the validation passes. In order to do this, I am using the form.submit() method but, unfortunately, this doesn't send the submit button variable (as it should be as form.submit() can be called without any button being clicked). This means my PHP script fails to detect that the form has been submitted. What is the correct way to work around this? It seems like the standard solution is to add a hidden field into the form, upon passing validation, which has the name of form's id. Then when form.submit() is called, this is passed along in place of the submit button. However, this solution seems very ungraceful to me and so I am wondering whether I should: a) Use an alternative method to detect which form has been submitted which doesn't rely rely on passing the submit button. If so what alternative is there? Obviously, just having an extra hidden field from the start isn't any better. b) Use an alternative Javascript solution which allows me to retain my non-Javascript design. For example, is there an alternative to form.submit() which allows me to pass in extra data? c) Suck it up and just insert a hidden field using Javascript.

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• Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

  - by user535617

  Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

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• Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

  - by Ryan Ternier

  Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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• varargs in lambda functions in Python

  - by brain_damage

  Is it possible a lambda function to have variable number of arguments? For example, I want to write a metaclass, which creates a method for every method of some other class and this newly created method returns the opposite value of the original method and has the same number of arguments. And I want to do this with lambda function. How to pass the arguments? Is it possible? class Negate(type): def __new__(mcs, name, bases, _dict): extended_dict = _dict.copy() for (k, v) in _dict.items(): if hasattr(v, '__call__'): extended_dict["not_" + k] = lambda s, *args, **kw: not v(s, *args, **kw) return type.__new__(mcs, name, bases, extended_dict) class P(metaclass=Negate): def __init__(self, a): self.a = a def yes(self): return True def maybe(self, you_can_chose): return you_can_chose But the result is totally wrong: >>>p = P(0) >>>p.yes() True >>>p.not_yes() # should be False Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#150>", line 1, in <module> p.not_yes() File "C:\Users\Nona\Desktop\p10.py", line 51, in <lambda> extended_dict["not_" + k] = lambda s, *args, **kw: not v(s, *args, **kw) TypeError: __init__() takes exactly 2 positional arguments (1 given) >>>p.maybe(True) True >>>p.not_maybe(True) #should be False True

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• Problem in getting response from server in jquery

  - by Alvin

  Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

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• Native Endians and Auto Conversion

  - by KnickerKicker

  so the following converts big endians to little ones uint32_t ntoh32(uint32_t v) { return (v << 24) | ((v & 0x0000ff00) << 8) | ((v & 0x00ff0000) >> 8) | (v >> 24); } works. like a charm. I read 4 bytes from a big endian file into char v[4] and pass it into the above function as ntoh32 (* reinterpret_cast<uint32_t *> (v)) that doesn't work - because my compiler (VS 2005) automatically converts the big endian char[4] into a little endian uint32_t when I do the cast. AFAIK, this automatic conversion will not be portable, so I use uint32_t ntoh_4b(char v[]) { uint32_t a = 0; a |= (unsigned char)v[0]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[1]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[2]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[3]; return a; } yes the (unsigned char) is necessary. yes it is dog slow. there must be a better way. anyone ?

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• How to return ArrayList results from an IntentService

  - by gcl1

  I have an IntentService that loads up an ArrayList with data from a network source (AWS SDB tables). The ArrayList is in a global space -- accessible to both the calling Activity and the IntentService (like this: appState = ((App)getApplicationContext())). When the IntentService is done, it notifies the Activity through a ResultReceiver, and the Activity calls adapter.notifyDataChanged() to update the ListView. This solution works most of the time, ... but it violates the rule that only the UI thread should make changes to data underlying a ListView. So as it is, I sometimes get an error: "The content of the adapter has changed but ListView did not receive a notification." I think this must be a common situation. Please let me know if you have any suggestions or best practices for this problem. Here are three options I'm aware of: Keep the IntentService, and have it store the results in another "working" ArrayList, also in the global space. When the result is ready, the IntentService calls the ResultReceiver (on the UI thread), which can then: a) copy the result to the ArrayList associated with the ListView, and b) call adapter.notifyDataChanged(). CONS: I don't like the idea of putting temp/working data in a global space, and copying the result list seems inefficient. Keep the IntentService, and have it pass the results back through a bundle loaded with a ParcelableArrayList. CONS: I'm not sure if this approach would scale for very large result sets. It also requires copying the result list. Switch to a Service which builds a local copy of the result list. Have the Activity directly access the address space of the Service in order to read the result list. CON: Still requires copying results to the ArrayList associated with the ListView. Thank you.

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• Why doesn't my text be bold when displaying on device screen

  - by john123

  My string.xml: <!--I try to bold my argument %s, like below:--> <string name="hello">Hello to: <b>%s</b> !</string> My layout main.xml: <LinearLayout ...> <TextView android:id="@+id/hello_txt" ... .../> </LinearLayout> My Fragment class: public class MyFragment extends Fragment{ TextView helloTxt; @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreateView(inflater, container, savedInstanceState); helloTxt = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.hello_txt); } @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); //pass "Monday" as the argument to my string helloTxt.setText(String.format(getString(R.string.hello), "Monday")); } } When I run my app on my device, I got "Hello to: Monday !" displaying on screen, but the "Monday" is not bold, but I used <b> in my string.xml. Why it is not bold??

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• Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

  - by user79339

  Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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• I want to input JSONObject from jquery.post() to a a simple JS chart(bar chart)?

  - by ann-stack

  HI I am very new to both json and js charts. In the example of bar chart, they are giving a hard coded array like this, var myData = new Array(['U.S.A.', 69.5], ['Canada', 2.8], ['Japan & SE.Asia', 5.6] ); var myChart = new JSChart('graph', 'bar'); myChart.setDataArray(myData); Instead of that I want to use the response of $.post() method which is in json. Here is the piece of code. var myData=[]; $.post("JSONServlet", function(data) { $.each(data.Userdetails, function(i, data) { myData[i] = []; myData[i]['text'] = data['firstname']; myData[i]['id'] = data['ssn']; alert("first name " +myData[i]['text']+ " salary " +myData[i]['id']); // I am getting correct data here, but how to assign this myData to barchart }); }, "json"); is this the logic to use or how else can i get username and salary from the response and pass it to the barchart. Please help. I am stuck with this. thanks in advance.

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• Execute javascript in PHP

  - by Andreas Bonini

  I'm generating your typical Web 2.0 HTML page with PHP: it contains a lot of <script> tags and javascript code that will substantially change the DOM after the load event. Is there a way to get the final HTML code directly from PHP, without opening the page with any browser? For example, let's say the HTML for the page is (it's just an example): <html> <head> <script>...the jquery library code...</script> <script>$(document).ready(function() { $("body").append("<p>Hi!</p>");</script> </head> <body> </body> </html> This HTML is saved in the $html PHP variable. Now, I want to pass that variable to some function that will return $result = <html>....<body><p>Hi!</p></body></html>. Is this possible?

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• unable to use html form post in php

  - by kossibox

  Hello i have an html form and i'm posting data but i'm unable to get the posted data on a php page (same page) can you please help me. thanks in advance <div class="left"> <form name="form_signin" method="post" onsubmit="return signinValid();" > <table> <tr> <td> Email : </td> <td> <input type="text" id="email" length ="40"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Mot de Passe : </td> <td> <input type="password" id ="pass" length ="40"> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> &nbsp; </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Connexion" length ="40"> </td> </tr> </table> </form> <?php include 'includes.php'; include DB_CONNECT_FILE; //session_start(); print_r($_POST); // prints an empty array even if fields are filled $smart->assign('tpl_file',TEMPLATES_DIR.'signin.html'); $smart->display(TEMPLATES_DIR."with_right.html"); include DB_DISCONNECT_FILE; ?>

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• iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

  - by randombits

  According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

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• Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

  - by dede

  I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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• Add an event to HTML elements with a specific class.

  - by Juan C. Rois

  Hello everybody, I'm working on a modal window, and I want to make the function as reusable as possible. Said that, I want to set a few anchor tags with a class equals to "modal", and when a particular anchor tag is clicked, get its Id and pass it to a function that will execute another function based on the Id that was passed. This is what I have so far: // this gets an array with all the elements that have a class equals to "modal" var anchorTrigger = document.getElementsByClassName('modal'); Then I tried to set the addEventListener for each item in the array by doing this: var anchorTotal = anchorTrigger.length; for(var i = 0; i < anchorTotal ; i++){ anchorTrigger.addEventListener('click', fireModal, false); } and then run the last function "fireModal" that will open the modal, like so: function fireModal(){ //some more code here ... } My problem is that in the "for" loop, I get an error saying that anchorTrigger.addEvent ... is not a function. I can tell that the error might be related to the fact that I'm trying to set up the "addEventListener" to an array as oppose to individual elements, but I don't know what I'm supposed to do. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Python: Errors saving and loading objects with pickle module

  - by Peterstone

  Hi, I am trying to load and save objects with this piece of code I get it from a question I asked a week ago: Python: saving and loading objects and using pickle. The piece of code is this: class Fruits: pass banana = Fruits() banana.color = 'yellow' banana.value = 30 import pickle filehandler = open("Fruits.obj","wb") pickle.dump(banana,filehandler) filehandler.close() file = open("Fruits.obj",'rb') object_file = pickle.load(file) file.close() print(object_file.color, object_file.value, sep=', ') At a first glance the piece of code works well, getting load and see the 'color' and 'value' of the saved object. But, what I pursuit is to close a session, open a new one and load what I save in a past session. I close the session after putting the line filehandler.close() and I open a new one and I put the rest of your code, then after putting object_file = pickle.load(file) I get this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#5>", line 1, in <module> object_file = pickle.load(file) File "C:\Python31\lib\pickle.py", line 1365, in load encoding=encoding, errors=errors).load() AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'Fruits' Can anyone explain me what this error message means and telling me how to solve this problem? Thank so much and happy new year!!

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• How can I get the type I want?

  - by Danny Chen

  There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

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• Do I really ned bindParam?

  - by sandelius

  Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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• Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

  - by thanikkal

  I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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• Really Need a Facebook App to post to Facebook Page Wall?

  - by Lee Englestone

  Hi, I'm using the Facebook API Graph (C# & ASP.NET) to try to dynamically post to a Facebook page I created. Looking at the code samples floating around.. they suggest creating a Facebook App first (which I have done).. However.. I have 3 different pages I want to post to.. Do I need to create an app for each? (I want to post different things to the 3 pages, not the same posts to each) I just want messages & links to appear as Wall posts. I'm not bothered about having an 'app' that has 'canvas' that is placed in an IFrame. Question : So do I still need to write one or more Facebook Apps to post to my 3 different Facebook pages?? Where I am so far.. I can pass in my apps credentials and get back the access_token. But my posts don't appear to be going anywhere. I'd rather drop the 'facebook application /canvas' approach if possible If I can post directly to a wall (For the above reasons). Oh, and before you ask. I don't want to post to my Apps Wall page, I want to post to my other pages (Unless I have to post to my Apps Wall page first?). I'm sure loads of people have the same questions.. Thanks in advance. -- Lee

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• Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

  - by JPM

  Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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• Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

  - by IrfanRaza

  Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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• Play Multiple iPod Library Songs On iPhone At The Same Time With Pitch Bending & Other Effects

  - by Dino

  Hi, I have been going at this for the past two weeks and it is driving me crazy. I asked this question a couple of days ago (Extract iPod Library raw PCM samples and play with sound effects) and whilst the answer got me half way there I am still stuck. Basically what I am trying to achieve is load up multiple songs from the iPod library for playback with effects such as pitch bend, eq effects etc... I have gone down the route of AVPlayer and AVAudioPlayer which are too simple. The only framework I've seen that can play audio with these effects is OpenAL. I have tried a few objective c wrappers (Finch and ObjectAL) Finch does not play compressed audio whilst ObjectAL will only convert it for me if I pass in a URL for the file (which is something I cannot do because I only have an incompatible iPod library URL). An example of an app that does what I want beautifilly is Tap DJ. It can load up songs from the iPod library fast (unlike TouchDJ and it plays them with all sorts of effects. Any help would be much appreciated.

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• LDAP query using Python: always no result

  - by Grey

  I am trying to use python to query LDAP server, and it always returns me no result. and anyone help me find what wrong with my python code? it runs fine without excpetions, and it always has no result. i played around with the filter like "cn=partofmyname" but just no luck. thanks for help import ldap try: l = ldap.open("server") l.protocol_version = ldap.VERSION3 l.set_option(ldap.OPT_REFERRALS, 0) output =l.simple_bind("cn=username,cn=Users,dc=domian, dc=net",'password$R') print output except ldap.LDAPError, e: print e baseDN = "DC=rim,DC=net" searchScope = ldap.SCOPE_SUBTREE ## retrieve all attributes - again adjust to your needs - see documentation for more options retrieveAttributes = None Filter = "(&(objectClass=user)(sAMAccountName=myaccount))" try: ldap_result_id = l.search(baseDN, searchScope, Filter, retrieveAttributes) print ldap_result_id result_set = [] while 1: result_type, result_data = l.result(ldap_result_id, 0) if len(result_data) == 0: print 'no reslut' break else: for i in range(len(result_set)): for entry in result_set[i]: try: name = entry[1]['cn'][0] email = entry[1]['mail'][0] phone = entry[1]['telephonenumber'][0] desc = entry[1]['description'][0] count = count + 1 print "%d.\nName: %s\nDescription: %s\nE-mail: %s\nPhone: %s\n" %\ (count, name, desc, email, phone) except: pass ## here you don't have to append to a list ## you could do whatever you want with the individual entry #if result_type == ldap.RES_SEARCH_ENTRY: # result_set.append(result_data) # print result_set except ldap.LDAPError, e: print e l.unbind()

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