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• IE8 removes background-color of header row of Asp:Gridview

  - by Hitesh Riziya

  I am using Asp.net 4.0 GridView control to display data from database. I have applied the inbuilt theme to GridView. <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" CellPadding="4" EmptyDataText="No records found." ForeColor="#333333" OnRowCommand="gv_RowCommand" Width="99%" OnPageIndexChanging="gv_PageIndexChanged" PageSize="50" AllowPaging="True" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="true"> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#7C6F57" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle CssClass="GridHeader" BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#666666" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#E3EAEB" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#C5BBAF" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <SortedAscendingCellStyle BackColor="#F8FAFA" /> <SortedAscendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#246B61" /> <SortedDescendingCellStyle BackColor="#D4DFE1" /> <SortedDescendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#15524A" /></asp:GridView> I tried setting the CSS forcefully in my Master page .GridHeader { background-color:#1C5E55 !important;} But I am still missing the background-color. I can see the backgroundcolor applied to grid (for less-than 1 sec) while the page loading the js/css content NOTE: I already tried clearing cache of IE, ctrl + F5, shift + reload etc. Here is sample page of my issue. http://vd2.weenggs.com/Items.aspx email: [email protected] pass: test Thanks

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• $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA and Wordpress media_handle_upload

  - by BaronVonKaneHoffen

  Hi there! So I'm making something for which users need to upload images from a canvas element (on the front end) using Wordpress's in-built Media Upload API. I've successfully uploaded images with the API from a file input in a form: <input type="file" name="async-upload" id="async-upload" size="40" /> ... <?php $new_attach_id = media_handle_upload( 'async-upload', $new_id ); ?> and I've saved images from the canvas using my own script: <script type="text/javascript"> ... var img = canvas.toDataURL("image/png"); ... ajax.send(img ); </script> ... <?php $imageData=$GLOBALS['HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA']; $filteredData=substr($imageData, strpos($imageData, ",")+1); $unencodedData=base64_decode($filteredData); $fp = fopen( 'saved_images/canv_save_test.png', 'wb' ); fwrite( $fp, $unencodedData); ... ?> Problem is, Wordpress's media_handle_upload() only accepts an index to the $_FILES array for the upload. So the question is: How can I pass the image data from HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA to it? Could I make the $_FILES['tmp-name'] point to it somehow? Could I use another script as an intermediate step somehow? Could I unleash the monkeys on the typewriter until they come up with the answer? Any help very very much appreciated! Thanks, Kane

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• iOS - Passing variable to view controller

  - by gj15987

  I have a view with a view controller and when I show this view on screen, I want to be able to pass variables to it from the calling class, so that I can set the values of labels etc. First, I just tried creating a property for one of the labels, and calling that from the calling class. For example: SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] init]; vc.myLabel.text = self.teamCount; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; However, this didn't work. So I tried creating a convenience initializer. SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] initWithTeamCount:self.teamCount]; And then in the SetTeamsViewController I had - (id)initWithTeamCount:(int)teamCount { self = [super initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.teamCountLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",teamCount]; } return self; } However, this didn't work either. It's just loading whatever value I've given the label in the nib file. I've littered the code with NSLog()s and it is passing the correct variable values around, it's just not setting the label. Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: I've just tried setting an instance variable in my designated initializer, and then setting the label in viewDidLoad and that works! Is this the best way to do this? Also, when dismissing this modal view controller, I update the text of a button in the view of the calling ViewController too. However, if I press this button again (to show the modal view again) whilst the other view is animating on screen, the button temporarily has it's original value again (from the nib). Does anyone know why this is?

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• iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

  - by randombits

  According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

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• What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

  - by Knut Arne Vedaa

  Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

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• UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

  - by user1461135

  I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

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• File streaming in PHP - How to replicate this C#.net code in PHP?

  - by openid_kenja

  I'm writing an interface to a web service where we need to upload configuration files. The documentation only provides a sample in C#.net which I am not familiar with. I'm trying to implement this in PHP. Can someone familiar with both languages point me in the right direction? I can figure out all the basics, but I'm trying to figure out suitable PHP replacements for the FileStream, ReadBytes, and UploadDataFile functions. I believe that the RecService object contains the URL for the web service. Thanks for your help! private void UploadFiles() { clientAlias = “<yourClientAlias>”; string filePath = “<pathToYourDataFiles>”; string[] fileList = {"Config.txt", "ProductDetails.txt", "BrandNames.txt", "CategoryNames.txt", "ProductsSoldOut.txt", "Sales.txt"}; RecommendClient RecService = new RecommendClient(); for (int i = 0; i < fileList.Length; i++) { bool lastFile = (i == fileList.Length - 1); //start generator after last file try { string fileName = filePath + fileList[i]; if (!File.Exists(fileName)) continue; // file not found } // set up a file stream and binary reader for the selected file and convert to byte array FileStream fStream = new FileStream(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); BinaryReader br = new BinaryReader(fStream); byte[] data = br.ReadBytes((int)numBytes); br.Close(); // pass byte array to the web service string result = RecService.UploadDataFile(clientAlias, fileList[i], data, lastFile); fStream.Close(); fStream.Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { // log an error message } } }

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• Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

  - by dede

  I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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• Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

  - by druffmuff

  I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

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• Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

  - by user79339

  Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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• Do I really ned bindParam?

  - by sandelius

  Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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• Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

  - by thanikkal

  I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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• How do I start a service which is defined in a different package?

  - by Brad Hein

  I have two apps, one runs in namespace com.gtosoft.voyager and the other is com.gtosoft.dash. From com.gtosoft.dash I would like to start up the service which is defined in com.gtosoft.voyager... I think I need an intent, but what arg(s) would I pass to the intent before kicking it off with startService()? If they were in the same package I could just use Intent svc=new Intent (SettingsActivity.this,VoyagerService.class); startService(svc); Snippet of Manifest which defines the service <application android:icon="@drawable/voyagercarlogo" android:label="@string/app_name" android:debuggable="false"> <provider android:name="com.gtosoft.voyager.VoyagerCProvider" android:authorities="com.gtosoft.voyager"/> <service android:name=".VoyagerService"/> <activity android:name=".SettingsActivity" android:label="Voyager" android:configChanges="keyboardHidden|orientation"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity>

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• Cakephp Search Plugin: DateTime Range

  - by Chris

  I am trying to search a model by dates using the CakePHP Search plugin The idea is: The user enters a date of a flight and the engine returns all flights within +- one day of that. My form: <?php echo $form->create('Flight', array( 'url' => array_merge(array('action' => 'find'), $this->params['pass']) )); echo $form->input('departure', array('div' => false, 'dateFormat' => 'DMY','timeFormat' => 'NONE')); echo $form->submit(__('Search', true), array('div' => false)); echo $form->end(); ?> My flight model: public $filterArgs = array( array('name' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression', 'method' => 'makeRangeCondition', 'field' => 'ABS((TO_Days(Flight.departure))-( TO_Days(?))) < 2') ); The controller: public $presetVars = array( array('field' => 'departure', 'type' => 'expression') ); public function find() { $this->Prg->commonProcess(); $this->paginate['conditions'] = $this->Flight->parseCriteria($this->passedArgs); $this->set('flights', $this->paginate()); } When I try to search, the values for departure are packed in an array; Array ([departure] => Array ) And the filterArgs(...) function doesn't seem to understand this. What is the correct way to do this?

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• String Parameter in url

  - by Ivan90

  Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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• Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

  - by Bhaskar

  Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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• How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

  - by tucaz

  Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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• Android: SurfaceView and Z-Level Question

  - by JimBadger

  I have a FrameLayout containint first a SurfaceView, and second a RelativeLayout which in turn contians various Buttons and TextViews. Upon the canvas of the SurfaceView I am drawing numerous Bitmaps, and, via Touch and Motion Events am allowing the user to drag them around. These Bitmaps, when dragged around pass underneath the Buttons etc that are inside the RelativeLayout. Now, it's my (possibly mistaken) understanding that the "Z-level" of the SurfaceView, or whatever it has that passes for it, is entirely unrelated to the actual Z-level of the rest of the Layout. Is this the case? If so, how may I get around it, so that dragged Bitmaps are drawn ontop of other Views? Or what other way can I implement a full-screen canvas and yet not have my buttons etc act like the controls of an overlay. I guess what I actually need is an underlay, where touch events can still be picked up by the Buttons etc underneath. But I don't know how to achieve this, as, when redrawing my Canvas, I have to also redraw the background. Can I swap the order of the RelativeLayout and the SurfaceView inside the FrameLayout, and then make the background of the Canvas transparent? If so how? Will touch events still "fall through" to the buttons underneath? Thanks for bearing with me, I know I'm a bit of a waffler.

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• Java: which configuration framework to use?

  - by Laimoncijus

  Hi, I need to decide which configuration framework to use. At the moment I am thinking between using properties files and XML files. My configuration needs to have some primitive grouping, e.g. in XML format would be something like: <configuration> <group name="abc"> <param1>value1</param1> <param2>value2</param2> </group> <group name="def"> <param3>value3</param3> <param4>value4</param4> </group> </configuration> or a properties file (something similar to log4j.properties): group.abc.param1 = value1 group.abc.param2 = value2 group.def.param3 = value3 group.def.param4 = value4 I need bi-directional (read and write) configuration library/framework. Nice feature would be - that I could read out somehow different configuration groups as different objects, so I could later pass them to different places, e.g. - reading everything what belongs to group "abc" as one object and "def" as another. If that is not possible I can always split single configuration object into smaller ones myself in the application initialization part of course. Which framework would best fit for me?

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• PHP Exceptions in Classes

  - by mike condiff

  I'm writing a web application (PHP) for my friend and have decided to use my limited OOP training from Java. My question is what is the best way to note in my class/application that specific critical things failed without actually breaking my page. Currently my problem is I have an Object "SummerCamper" which takes a camper_id as it's argument to load all of the necessary data into the object from the database. Say someone specifies a camper_id in the querystring that does not exist, I pass it to my objects constructor and the load fails. Currently I don't see a way for me to just return false from the constructor. I have read I could possibly do this with Exceptions, throwing an exception if no records are found in the database or if some sort of validation fails on input of the camper_id from the application etc. However, I have not really found a great way to alert my program that the Object Load has failed. I tried returning false from within the CATCH but the Object still persists in my php page. I do understand I could put a variable $is_valid = false if the load fails and then check the Object using a get method but I think there may be better ways. What is the best way of achieving the essential termination of an object if a load fails? Should I load data into the object from outside the constructor? Is there some osrt of design pattern that I should look into? Any help would be appreciated.

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• Javamail doesn't send a mail

  - by Jose Hdez

  I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

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• Native Endians and Auto Conversion

  - by KnickerKicker

  so the following converts big endians to little ones uint32_t ntoh32(uint32_t v) { return (v << 24) | ((v & 0x0000ff00) << 8) | ((v & 0x00ff0000) >> 8) | (v >> 24); } works. like a charm. I read 4 bytes from a big endian file into char v[4] and pass it into the above function as ntoh32 (* reinterpret_cast<uint32_t *> (v)) that doesn't work - because my compiler (VS 2005) automatically converts the big endian char[4] into a little endian uint32_t when I do the cast. AFAIK, this automatic conversion will not be portable, so I use uint32_t ntoh_4b(char v[]) { uint32_t a = 0; a |= (unsigned char)v[0]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[1]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[2]; a <<= 8; a |= (unsigned char)v[3]; return a; } yes the (unsigned char) is necessary. yes it is dog slow. there must be a better way. anyone ?

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• Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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• Android: Adding data to Intent fails to load Activity

  - by DroidIn.net

  I have a widget that supposed to call an Activity of the main app when the user clicks on widget body. My setup works for a single widget instance but for a second instance of the same widget the PendingIntent gets reused and as result the vital information that I'm sending as extra gets overwritten for the 1st instance. So I figured that I should pass widget ID as Intent data however as soon as I add Intent#setData I would see in the log that 2 separate Intents are appropriately fired but the Activity fails to pick it up so basically Activity will not come up and nothing happens (no error or warning ether) Here's how the activity is setup in the Manifest: <activity android:name=".SearchResultsView" android:label="@string/search_results" <intent-filter> <action android:name="bostone.android.search.RESULTS" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> And here's code that is setup for handling the click Intent di = new Intent("bostone.android.search.RESULTS"); di.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); // if line below is commented out - the Activity will start di.setData(ContentUris.withAppendedId(Uri.EMPTY, widgetId)); di.putExtra("URL", url); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.widgetContent, PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, di, 0)); The main app and the widget are packaged as 2 separate APK each in its own package and Manifest

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• C++ converting back and forth from derived and base classes

  - by user127817

  I was wondering if there is a way in C++ to accomplish the following: I have a base class called ResultBase and two class that are Derived from it, Variable and Expression. I have a few methods that do work on vector<ResultBase> . I want to be able to pass in vectors of Variable and Expression into these methods. I can achieve this by creating a vector<ResultBase> and using static_cast to fill it with the members from my vector of Variable/Expression. However, once the vector has run through the methods, I want to be able to get it back as the vector of Result/Expression. I'll know for sure which one I want back. static_cast won't work here as there isn't a method to reconstruct a Variable/Expression from a ResultBase, and more importantly I wouldn't have the original properties of the Variables/Expressions The methods modify some of the properties of the ResultBase and I need those changes to be reflected in the original vectors. (i.e. ResultBase has a property called IsLive, and one of the methods will modify this property. I want this IsLive value to be reflected in the derived class used to create the ResultBase Whats the easiest way to accomplish this?

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