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• How to get aspnet_Users.UserId for an anonymous user in ASP.NET membership ?

  - by Simon_Weaver

  I am trying to get the aspnet membership UserId field from an anonymous user. I have enabled anonymous identification in web.config : <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" /> I have also created a profile: <profile> <providers> <clear /> <add name="AspNetSqlProfileProvider" type="System.Web.Profile.SqlProfileProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" applicationName="/" /> </providers> <properties> <add name="Email" type="System.String" allowAnonymous="true"/> <add name="SomethingElse" type="System.Int32" allowAnonymous="true"/> </properties> </profile> I see data in my aspnetdb\aspnet_Users table for anonymous users that have had profile information set. Userid PropertyNames PropertyValuesString 36139818-4245-45dd-99cb-2a721d43f9c5 Email:S:0:17: [email protected] I just need to find how to get the 'Userid' value. It is not possible to use : Membership.Provider.GetUser(Request.AnonymousID, false); The Request.AnonymousID is a different GUID and not equal to 36139818-4245-45dd-99cb-2a721d43f9c5. Is there any way to get this Userid. I want to associate it with incomplete activity for an anonymous user. Using the primary key of aspnet_Users is preferable to having to create my own GUID (which I could do and store in the profile). This is basically a dupe of this question but the question was never actually answered.

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• Is there a difference between plain text emails, and multipart emails with only plain text?

  - by Brian Armstrong

  I'm using Rails to send emails and I just want to send a plain text email (there is no corresponding HTML part). I've noticed that if I just have one file named email.text.plain.erb it actually generates a multipart email with one part (the plain text part) like this: Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary=mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362 --mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 Content-Transfer-Encoding: Quoted-printable Content-Disposition: inline text of the email here... --mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362-- But if I take out the text.plain part and name it email.erb ActionMailer generates a regular plain text email without multipart like this: Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 text of the email here... Both work fine most of the time (so this is kind of nitpicky), but I guess my question is whether the second one is more correct. My goal here is just to make sure deliverability is as high as possible across a wide variety of devices and email clients. I've read that plain text emails can have slightly better deliverability rates than html and was just curious if throwing in this multipart (even if it only contained a plain text part) might throw off some of the dumber email clients. Thanks for your help!

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• Two Way Data Binding With a Object in WPF,Image Control

  - by Candy

  Sorry, my English is not very good, I have a object "Stuffs" "Stuffs" have a Property “Icon” now: xaml <Button Click="Button_Click"><Image Width="80" Height="80" Source="{Binding Path=Icon,Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/></Button> cs private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { IconFloder.Title = "Icon"; String IconFloderPath = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + ItemIconFloder; if (!System.IO.Directory.Exists(IconFloderPath)) System.IO.Directory.CreateDirectory(IconFloderPath); IconFloder.InitialDirectory = IconFloderPath; IconFloder.Filter = "Image File|*.jpeg"; IconFloder.ValidateNames = true; IconFloder.CheckPathExists = true; IconFloder.CheckFileExists = true; if (IconFloder.ShowDialog() == true) { HideImage.Text = ItemIconFloder + "\\" + IconFloder.SafeFileName; ((sender as Button).Content as Image).Source = new ImageConverter().Convert(ItemIconFloder + "\\" + IconFloder.SafeFileName, Type.GetType("System.Windows.Media.ImageSource"), null, new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("en-US")) as ImageSource; } } class ImageConverter:IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (value is string&&!String.IsNullOrEmpty(value.ToString())) { try { return new BitmapImage(new Uri(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + value)); } catch { } } return null; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I would like to click buttons, change the picture, Also change Data Binding Stuffs.Icon But failed,I have no idea?I need help? I do not know whether I speak clearly

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• Adding an observer to UIImageView? observer & notifications

  - by sagar

  Each class has almost one method named addObserver [imgVURL addObserver:<#(NSObject *)observer#> forKeyPath:<#(NSString *)keyPath#> options:<#(NSKeyValueObservingOptions)options#> context:<#(void *)context#>] Here, imgVURL is an image which is going to be load an image asynchronously. When image will be loaded dynamically - other class will set an image from loaded data. Now, my question is how can we add an observer to UIImageView's instance. Observer and notifications are same or not ? If it is not then what's different ? Let's have some sample code That I did in my project to understand my question. // locating image view from Scroll view by it's tag imgVURL=(UIImageView*)[scrMain viewWithTag:(kTagImagesTag+i)]; // ImageViewURL is a class which contains methods of // didReceiveResponse // didReceiveData // connection ImageViewURL *tmp=[[ImageViewURL alloc] init]; // it has a nonatomic property which will take the reference of my image view tmp.imgV=imgVURL; // now I will pass a url from my an array to property strURL // in strUrl I have custom setter // in which I am initializing a connection tmp.strUrl=[NSURL URLWithString:[[tblmain objectAtIndex:i] valueForKey:@"url"]]; // from ImageViewURL.m file -(void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setNetworkActivityIndicatorVisible:NO]; // NSLog@"ImageView Ref From - %@",imgV); // see imgV has reference of my -> imgVURL (nonatomic,assign) imgV.image=[UIImage imageWithData:myWebData]; [connection release]; connection=nil; } // as you can see in above code many many images are loaded asynchronously // now How can I add an observer to an imageview whether it received or not.

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• refering Tomcat JNDI datasource in persistence.xml

  - by binary_runner

  in server.xml I've defined global resource (I'm using Tomcat 6): <GlobalNamingResources> <Resource name="jdbc/myds" auth="Container" type="javax.sql.DataSource" maxActive="10" maxIdle="3" maxWait="10000" username="sa" password="" driverClassName="org.h2.Driver" url="jdbc:h2:~/.myds/data/db" /> </GlobalNamingResources> I see in catalina.out that this is bound, so I suppose it's OK. In my web app I have the link to the datasource, I'm not sure it's OK: <Context> <ResourceLink global='jdbc/myds' name='jdbc/myds' type="javax.sql.Datasource"/> </Context> and in application there is persistence.xml : <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_2_0.xsd" version="2.0"> <persistence-unit name="oam" transaction-type="RESOURCE_LOCAL"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <non-jta-data-source>jdbc/myds</non-jta-data-source> <!-- class definitions here, nothing else --> <properties> <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="org.hibernate.dialect.H2Dialect"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> It shuld be OK, but most probably this or the ResourceLink definition is wrong because I'm getting: javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: Name jdbc is not bound in this Context What's wrong and why this does not work ?

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• Character Encoding: â??

  - by akaphenom

  I am trying to piece together the mysterious string of characters â?? I am seeing quite a bit of in our database - I am fairly sure this is a result of conversion between character encodings, but I am not completely positive. The users are able to enter text (or cut and paste) into a Ext-Js rich text editor. The data is posted to a severlet which persists it to the database, and when I view it in the database i see those strange characters... is there any way to decode these back to their original meaning, if I was able to discover the correct encoding - or is there a loss of bits or bytes that has occured through the conversion process? Users are cutting and pasting from multiple versions of MS Word and PDF. Does the encoding follow where the user copied from? Thank you website is UTF-8 We are using ms sql server 2005; SELECT serverproperty('Collation') -- Server default collation. Latin1_General_CI_AS SELECT databasepropertyex('xxxx', 'Collation') -- Database default SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS and the column: Column_name Type Computed Length Prec Scale Nullable TrimTrailingBlanks FixedLenNullInSource Collation text varchar no -1 yes no yes SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS The non-Unicode equivalents of the nchar, nvarchar, and ntext data types in SQL Server 2000 are listed below. When Unicode data is inserted into one of these non-Unicode data type columns through a command string (otherwise known as a "language event"), SQL Server converts the data to the data type using the code page associated with the collation of the column. When a character cannot be represented on a code page, it is replaced by a question mark (?), indicating the data has been lost. Appearance of unexpected characters or question marks in your data indicates your data has been converted from Unicode to non-Unicode at some layer, and this conversion resulted in lost characters. So this may be the root cause of the problem... and not an easy one to solve on our end.

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• ASP.NET MVC Ajax.BeginForm eats params of submit button clicked. Looks like bug.

  - by RonnBlack

  If you are using Ajax.BeginForm() with multiple submit buttons similar to this: // View.aspx <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Action", "Controller", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "MyControl", })) { %> <span id="MyControl"> <% Html.RenderPartial("MyControl"); %> </span> <% } %> //MyControl.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <input name="prev" type="submit" value="prev" /> <input name="next" type="submit" value="next" /> //... Everything is submitted to the controller fine but the params for the submit button that was clicked are absent from the Request. In otherwords Request["next"] and Request["prev"] are always null. I looked in to the JavaScript in Microsoft.MvcAjax.js and it looks like the function Sys_Mvc_MvcHelpers$_serializeForm completely skips over the inputs that are of type 'submit'. This doesn't seem logical at all. How else can you find out what button has been clicked? It looks like a bug to me. Is there any logical reason to skip these form parameters?

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• Improving Performance of Crystal Reports using Stored Procedures

  - by mjh41

  Recently I updated a Crystal Report that was doing all of its work on the client-side (Selects, formulas, etc) and changed all of the logic to be done on the server-side through Stored Procedures using an Oracle 11g database. Now the report is only being used to display the output of the stored procedures and nothing else. Everything I have read on this subject says that utilizing stored procedures should greatly reduce the running time of the report, but it still takes roughly the same amount of time to retrieve the data from the server. Is there something wrong with the stored procedure I have written, or is the issue in the Crystal Report itself? Here is the stored procedure code along with the package that defines the necessary REF CURSOR. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE SP90_INVENTORYDATA_ALL ( invdata_cur IN OUT sftnecm.inv_data_all_pkg.inv_data_all_type, dCurrentEndDate IN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE%type, dCurrentStartDate IN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE%type ) AS BEGIN OPEN invdata_cur FOR SELECT vw_METADATA.CREATIONTIME, vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE, vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS, vw_METADATA.CASENUMBER, (CASE WHEN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE < dCurrentStartDate AND ( (vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS is null OR vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS != 'Closed') OR TO_DATE(vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, 'MM/DD/YYYY') >= dCurrentStartDate) then 1 else 0 end) InventoryBegin, (CASE WHEN (to_date(vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, 'MM/DD/YYYY') BETWEEN dCurrentStartDate AND dCurrentEndDate) AND vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE is not null AND vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS is not null then 1 else 0 end) CaseClosed, (CASE WHEN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE BETWEEN dCurrentStartDate AND dCurrentEndDate then 1 else 0 end) CaseCreated FROM vw_METADATA WHERE vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE <= dCurrentEndDate ORDER BY vw_METADATA.CREATIONTIME, vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS; END SP90_INVENTORYDATA_ALL; And the package: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE inv_data_all_pkg AS TYPE inv_data_all_type IS REF CURSOR RETURN inv_data_all_temp%ROWTYPE; END inv_data_all_pkg;

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• Map enum in JPA with fixed values ?

  - by Kartoch

  I'm looking for the different ways to map an enum using JPA. I especially want to set the integer value of each enum entry and to save only the integer value. @Entity @Table(name = "AUTHORITY_") public class Authority implements Serializable { public enum Right { READ(100), WRITE(200), EDITOR (300); private int value; Right(int value) { this.value = value; } public int getValue() { return value; } }; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "AUTHORITY_ID") private Long id; // the enum to map : private Right right; } A simple solution is to use the Enumerated annotation with EnumType.ORDINAL: @Column(name = "RIGHT") @Enumerated(EnumType.ORDINAL) private Right right; But in this case JPA maps the enum index (0,1,2) and not the value I want (100,200,300). Th two solutions I found do not seem simple... First Solution A solution, proposed here, uses @PrePersist and @PostLoad to convert the enum to an other field and mark the enum field as transient: @Basic private int intValueForAnEnum; @PrePersist void populateDBFields() { intValueForAnEnum = right.getValue(); } @PostLoad void populateTransientFields() { right = Right.valueOf(intValueForAnEnum); } Second Solution The second solution proposed here proposed a generic conversion object, but still seems heavy and hibernate-oriented (@Type doesn't seem to exist in JEE): @Type( type = "org.appfuse.tutorial.commons.hibernate.GenericEnumUserType", parameters = { @Parameter( name = "enumClass", value = "Authority$Right"), @Parameter( name = "identifierMethod", value = "toInt"), @Parameter( name = "valueOfMethod", value = "fromInt") } ) Is there any other solutions ? I've several ideas in mind but I don't know if they exist in JPA: use the setter and getter methods of right member of Authority Class when loading and saving the Authority object an equivalent idea would be to tell JPA what are the methods of Right enum to convert enum to int and int to enum Because I'm using Spring, is there any way to tell JPA to use a specific converter (RightEditor) ?

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• Workflow Foundation (WF) -- Why does setting a DependencyProperty to a COM object using SetValue() t

  - by stakx

  Assume that I have a .NET Workflow Foundation (WF) SequenceActivity class with the following property: public IWorkspace Workspace { get; set; } // ^^^^^^^^^^ // important: this is a COM interface type! public static DependencyProperty WorkspaceProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Workspace", typeof(IWorkspace), typeof(FoobarActivity)); // <-- this activity class This activity executes some code that sets both of the above like this: this.Workspace = ...; // exact code not relevant; property set to a COM object SetValue(WorkspaceProperty, this.Workspace); The last line (which makes the call to SetValue) results in an ArgumentException for the second parameter (having the value of this.Workspace): Type […].IWorkspace of dependency property Workspace does not match the value's type System.__ComObject.                                           (translated from German, the English exception text might differ slightly) As soon as I register the dependency property with typeof(object) instead of typeof(IWorkspace) as the second parameter, the code executes just fine. However, that would result in the possibility to assign just about any value to the dependency property, and I do not want that. It seems to me that WF dependency properties don't work for COM interop objects.Does anyone have a solution to this?

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• Why doesn't jquery .load() load a text file from an external website?

  - by Edward Tanguay

  In the example below, when I click the button, it says "Load was performed" but no text is shown. I have a clientaccesspolicy.xml in the root directory and am able to asynchronously load the same file from silverlight. So I would think I should be able to access from AJAX as well. What do I have to change so that the text of the file http://www.tanguay.info/knowsite/data.txt is properly displayed in the #content element? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); google.setOnLoadCallback(function() { $('#loadButton').click(loadDataFromExernalWebsite); }); function loadDataFromExernalWebsite() { $('#content').load('http://www.tanguay.info/knowsite/data.txt', function() { alert('Load was performed.'); }); } </script> </head> <body> <p>Click the button to load content:</p> <p id="content"></p> <input id="loadButton" type="button" value="load content"/> </body> </html>

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• Can't submit new object to WCF DataService because of Primary Key constraint

  - by Rob

  I've got a SQL database that uses Guid's for PK's and upon insert, it generates a NewId(). I have an EF data context setup pointing to that database with the primary keys setup with the Entity key:true, Setter:private and StoreGeneratedPattern:Identity because I want the DB to manage the keys and not have code set the PK property. I have an OData (System.Web.Data.Services.DataService) endpoint to access this data (just like: Hanselman did. I have another app that has a service reference to this service. Upon trying to create a new object from this reference (i.e. Product), the ProductId Primary Key is being defaulted to Guid.Empty when doing var serviceEntities = new ServiceEntities(serviceUri); //OData endpoint var product = new Product(); product.Name = "New Product"; serviceEntities.AddToProducts(product); serviceEntities.SaveChanges(); // error happens here When debugging, I look at the Product.ProductId property and it's set to Guid.Empty. When called SaveChanges, I do not want the ProductId field to be sent to the service. The response I get is: Error processing request stream. Property 'ProductId' is a read-only property and cannot be updated. Please make sure that this property is not present in the request payload. Is there a way to do this or what can I do to get this setup correctly and still have the DB generated the keys. Here is the same setup as the Product example above.

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• Visual Studio 2008 project organization for executable and assembly

  - by user304582

  Hi - I am having a problem setting up the following in Visual Studio 2008: a parent project which includes the entrypoint Main() method class and which declares an interface, and a child project which has classes that implement the interface declared in the parent project. I have specified that Parent's Output type is a Console application, and Child's Output type is a Class library. In Child I have add a reference to the Parent as a project, and specified that Child depends on Parent and that the build order should be Parent, then Child. The build succeeds, and as far I can tell, the right things show up in the Child/bin/debug directory: Parent.exe and Child.dll. However, if I run Parent.exe, then at the point when it should load a class from the Child.dll, it fails with the error message: exception executing operation System.TypeLoadException: Could not load type 'Child.some.class' from assembly 'Parent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'. I guess I'm confused as to how to get the Parent and Child projects to play together. I plan on having more child projects that use the same framework that is set up in the Parent, and so I do not want to move the entrypoint class down into the Child project. If I try to specify that the Child project is also a Console application, then the build process fails because there is no Main() entrypoint class in the child (even though the Parent project is included as a reference). Any help would be welcome! Thanks, Martin

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• HTML - Correct way of coding a checkbox with a Label.

  - by egarcia

  I've been using formtastic in order to generate HTML forms on rails applications. My question, however, is really HTML-related. Today I found a strange behaviour on the way formtastic generates checkboxes (fields of type :boolean on formtastic lingo). The rest of the fields (non-checkboxes) are generated this way: <li> <label for="my_textbox_field">My TextBox</label> <input id="my_textbox_field" type="text" ... > </li> Checkboxes, however, are enclosed inside their <label> tags completely - like this: <li> <label for="my_boolean_field"> <input id="my_boolean_field" type="checkbox" ... > This is my boolean field </label> </li> Formtastic phylosophy seems to be based on the Learning to Love Forms presentation. In effect, on slide 36 of that presentation this structure is suggested for checkboxes. I guess in the presentation itself the presenter explained why this was done, but it is not written on the slides. Can anyone tell me why enclosing checkboxes inside their <label> tag might be a good idea, as opposed to putting them outside, like with textboxes?

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• Create Keyword Object Perl Microsoft::AdCenter

  - by toobsco42

  So I looked at the perldoc for the Microsoft::AdCenter module and it shows this as an example of how to create a keyword object: ~$ perldoc Microsoft::AdCenter #Create a Keyword object my $keyword = Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Keyword->new ->Text("some text") ->BroadMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)) ->ExactMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)); However, doesn't this violate the new policy of using only one match type per keyword? Campaign Management changes: "Previously, you would create a single Keyword object and specify a bid value for each match that you wanted to bid on (for example, exact match or phrase match). If you did not specify a bid value at the keyword-level, adCenter used the default bid value specified at the ad group level. Now, you must create a Keyword object for each match type that you want to bid on. For example, to bid on the keyword car by using exact match and phrase match, create a Keyword object and set the Text element to car and the ExactMatchBid element to a bid amount. Then, create a second Keyword object and set the Text element to car and PhraseMatchBid to a bid amount. When you add the keywords, you’ll get a unique keyword ID for each keyword and match-type combination."

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• JavaScript To Clear Form Field On Submit Before Form Submission To Perl Script

  - by Russell C.

  We have a very long form that has a number of fields and 2 different submit buttons. When a user clicks the 1st submit button ("Photo Search") the form should POST and our script will do a search for matching photos based on what the user entered in the text input ("photo_search_text") next to the 1st submit button and reload the entire form with matching photos added to the form. Upon clicking the 2nd submit button ("Save Changes") at the end of the form, it should POST and our script should update the database with the information the user entered in the form. Unfortunately the layout of the form makes it impossible to separate it into 2 separate forms. I checked the entire form POST and unfortunately the submitted fields are identical to the perl script processing the form submission no matter which submit button is clicked so the perl script can't differentiate which action to perform based on which submit button is pushed. The only thing I can think of is to update the onclick action of the 2nd submit button so it clears the "photo_search_text" field before the form is submitted and then only perform a photo search if that fields has a value. Based on all this, my question is what does the JavaScript look that could clear out the "photo_search_text" field when someone clicks on the 2nd submit button? Here is what I've tried so far none of which has worked successfully: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onsubmit="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.getElementById('photo_search_text')='';" value="Save Changes"> We also use JQuery on the site so if there is a way to do this with jQuery instead of plain JavaScript feel free to provide example code for that instead. Lastly, if there is another way to handle this that I'm not thinking of any and all suggestions would be welcome. Thanks in advance for your help!

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• Using datetime float representation as primary key

  - by devanalyst

  From my experience I have learn that using an surrogate INT data type column as primary key esp. an IDENTITY key column offers better performance than using GUID or char/varchar data type column as primary key. I try to use IDENTITY key as primary key wherever possible. But recently I came across a schema where the tables were horizontally partitioned and were managed via a Partitioned view. So the tables could not have an IDENTITY column since that would make the Partitioned View non updatable. One work around for this was to create a dummy 'keygenerator' table with an identity column to generate IDs for primary key. But this would mean having a 'keygenerator' table for each of the Partitioned View. My next thought was to use float as a primary key. The reason is the following key algorithm that I devised DECLARE @KEY FLOAT SET @KEY = CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 SET @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY Heres how it works. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE()) gives float representation of current datetime since internally all datetime are represented by SQL as a float value. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 converts the float representation into complete decimal value i.e. all digits are pushed to right side of ".". @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY adds the Employee ID which is an integer to this decimal value. The logic is that the Employee ID is guaranteed to be unique across sessions since an employee cannot connect to an application more than once at the same time. And for the same employee each time a key will be generated the current datetime will be unique. In all an unique key across all employee sessions and across time. So for Emp Ids 11 and 12, I have key values like 12.40046693321566357, 11.40046693542361111 But my concern whether float data type as primary key offer benefits compared to choosing GUID or char/varchar as primary keys. Also important thing is because of partitioning the float column is going to be part of a composite key.

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• Style Trigger on Attached Property

  - by vanja.

  I have created my own Attached Property like this: public static class LabelExtension { public static bool GetSelectable(DependencyObject obj) { return (bool)obj.GetValue(SelectableProperty); } public static void SetSelectable(DependencyObject obj, bool value) { obj.SetValue(SelectableProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Selectable. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty SelectableProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("Selectable", typeof(bool), typeof(Label), new UIPropertyMetadata(false)); } And then I'm trying to create a style with a trigger that depends on it: <!--Label--> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Util:LabelExtension.Selectable" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <TextBox IsReadOnly="True" Text="{TemplateBinding Content}" /> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> But I'm getting a run time exception: Cannot convert the value in attribute 'Property' to object of type 'System.Windows.DependencyProperty'. Error at object 'System.Windows.Trigger' in markup file How can I access the value of the attached property in a style trigger? I have tried using a DataTrigger with a RelativeSource binding but it wasn't pulling the value through.

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• How to start a marquee with JavaScript based on user input?

  - by APShredder

  Hello everybody. I am trying to use JavaScript to start a marquee when a user puts their name into a textbox and then clicks a button. I've got an idea as to how to do it, but my script never fully works. Any help is appreciated! Here's what I have so far: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript"> function StartMarquee() { var text = document.getElementById(namebox); if (text != null) { document.write("<marquee behavior='scroll' direction='right'>Hello " + text + "!</marquee>"); } else { alert("Enter your name first!!!"); } } </script> </head> <body> <table style="margin:0px auto 0px auto;"> <tr><td>Enter your name!</td> <td><input type="text" id="namebox"/></td> <td><input type="button" value="Enter" onclick="StartMarquee()"/></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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• What's with the love of dynamic Languages

  - by Kibbee

  It seems that everybody is jumping on the dynamic, non-compiled bandwagon lately. I've mostly only worked in compiled, static typed languages (C, Java, .Net). The experience I have with dynamic languages is stuff like ASP (Vb Script), JavaScript, and PHP. Using these technologies has left a bad taste in my mouth when thinking about dynamic languages. Things that usually would have been caught by the compiler such as misspelled variable names and assigning an value of the wrong type to a variable don't occur until runtime. And even then, you may not notice an error, as it just creates a new variable, and assigns some default value. I've also never seen intellisense work well in a dynamic language, since, well, variables don't have any explicit type. What I want to know is, what people find so appealing about dynamic languages? What are the main advantages in terms of things that dynamic languages allow you to do that can't be done, or are difficult to do in compiled languages. It seems to me that we decided a long time ago, that things like uncompiled asp pages throwing runtime exceptions was a bad idea. Why is there is a resurgence of this type of code? And why does it seem to me at least, that Ruby on Rails doesn't really look like anything you couldn't have done with ASP 10 years ago?

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• Singleton Roles in Moose

  - by mjn12

  I am attempting to write a singleton role using Perl and Moose. I understand a MooseX::Singleton module is available but there is always resistance when requiring another CPAN module for our project. After trying this and having a little trouble I would like to understand WHY my method is not working. The singleton role I have written is as follows: package Singleton; use Moose::Role; my $_singleInstance; around 'new' => sub { my $orig = shift; my $class = shift; if (not defined $_singleInstance ){ $_singleInstance = $class->$orig(@_); } return $_singleInstance; }; sub getInstance { return __PACKAGE__->new(); } 1; This appears to work find when only one class uses the singleton role. However when two classes (ClassA and ClassB for example) both consume the Singleton role it appears as they are both referring to a shared $_singleInstance variable. If I call ClassA-getInstance it returns a reference to a ClassA object. If I call ClassB-getInstance sometime later in the same script it returns a reference to an object of type ClassA (even though I clearly called the getInstance method for ClassB). If I dont use a role and actually copy and paste the code from the Singleton role into ClassA and ClassB it appears to work fine. Whats going on here?

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• How to generate comments in hbm2java created POJO?

  - by jschoen

  My current setup using hibernate uses the hibernate.reveng.xml file to generate the various hbm.xml files. Which are then turned into POJOs using hbm2java. We spent some time while designing our schema, to place some pretty decent descriptions on the Tables and there columns. I am able to pull these descriptions into the hbm.xml files when generating them using hbm2jhbmxml. So I get something similar to this: <class name="test.Person" table="PERSONS"> <comment>The comment about the PERSONS table.</comment> <property name="firstName" type="string"> <column name="FIRST_NAME" length="100" not-null="true"> <comment>The first name of this person.</comment> </column> </property> <property name="middleInitial" type="string"> <column name="MIDDLE_INITIAL" length="1"> <comment>The middle initial of this person.</comment> </column> </property> <property name="lastName" type="string"> <column name="LAST_NAME" length="100"> <comment>The last name of this person.</comment> </column> </property> </class> So how do I tell hbm2java to pull and place these comments in the created Java files? I have read over this about editing the freemarker templates to change the way code is generated. I under stand the concept, but it was not to detailed about what else you could do with it beyond there example of pre and post conditions.

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• jquery access sibling TD in table

  - by Rob

  I have the following HTML Code. What I'm try to do is to have the div named javaRatingDiv to be displayed once the checkbox with the name java is checked. I can't seem to figure out how to navigate to the next TD in a table via jquery. <div id="languages"> <table style="width:inherit"> <tr style="height:50px; vertical-align:top"> <td>Select the languages that you are familiar with and rate your knowledge:</td> </tr> <tr> <table style="width:75%;" align="center"> <tr id="tableRow"> <td id="firstTD"><input type="checkbox" name="java" value="java" />&nbsp;Java</td> <td id="secondTD" style="width:200px;"> <div id="javaRatingDiv" style="display:none"> <input name="javaRating" type="radio" value="1" class="star"/> <input name="javaRating" type="radio" value="2" class="star"/> </div> </td> </tr> </table> </tr> </table> </div>

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• Multiple undo managers for a text view

  - by Rui Pacheco

  Hi, I've a text view that gets its content from an attributed string stored in a model object. I list several of these model objects in a drawer and when the user clicks on one the text view swaps its content. I now need to also swap the undo manager for the text view. I initialise an undo manager on my model object and use undoManagerForTextView to return it to the text view, but something's not quite right. Strategically placed logging statements show me that everything's working as planned: on startup a new model object is initialised correctly and a non-null undo manager is always pulled by the text view. But when it comes to actually doing undo, I just can't get the behaviour I want. I open a window, type something and press cmd+z, and undo works. I open a window, type something, select a new model on the table, type something, go back to the first model and try to undo and all I get is a beep. Something on the documentation made me raise an eyebrow, as it would mean that I can't have undo with several model objects: The default undo and redo behavior applies to text fields and text in cells as long as the field or cell is the first responder (that is, the focus of keyboard actions). Once the insertion point leaves the field or cell, prior operations cannot be undone.

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• Database design for invoices, invoice lines & revisions

  - by FreshCode

  I'm designing the 2nd major iteration of a relational database for a franchise's CRM (with lots of refactoring) and I need help on the best database design practices for storing job invoices and invoice lines with a strong audit trail of any changes made to each invoice. Current schema Invoices Table InvoiceId (int) // Primary key JobId (int) StatusId (tinyint) // Pending, Paid or Deleted UserId (int) // auditing user Reference (nvarchar(256)) // unique natural string key with invoice number Date (datetime) Comments (nvarchar(MAX)) InvoiceLines Table LineId (int) // Primary key InvoiceId (int) // related to Invoices above Quantity (decimal(9,4)) Title (nvarchar(512)) Comment (nvarchar(512)) UnitPrice (smallmoney) Revision schema InvoiceRevisions Table RevisionId (int) // Primary key InvoiceId (int) JobId (int) StatusId (tinyint) // Pending, Paid or Deleted UserId (int) // auditing user Reference (nvarchar(256)) // unique natural string key with invoice number Date (datetime) Total (smallmoney) Schema design considerations 1. Is it sensible to store an invoice's Paid or Pending status? All payments received for an invoice are stored in a Payments table (eg. Cash, Credit Card, Cheque, Bank Deposit). Is it meaningful to store a "Paid" status in the Invoices table if all the income related to a given job's invoices can be inferred from the Payments table? 2. How to keep track of invoice line item revisions? I can track revisions to an invoice by storing status changes along with the invoice total and the auditing user in an invoice revision table (see InvoiceRevisions above), but keeping track of an invoice line revision table feels hard to maintain. Thoughts? 3. Tax How should I incorporate sales tax (or 14% VAT in SA) when storing invoice data?

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