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  • Query next/previous record

    - by Rob
    I'm trying to find a better way to get the next or previous record from a table. Let's say I have a blog or news table: CREATE TABLE news ( news_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTO_INCREMENT, news_datestamp DATETIME NOT NULL, news_author VARCHAR(100) NOT NULL, news_title VARCHAR(100) NOT NULL, news_text MEDIUMTEXT NOT NULL ); Now on the frontend I want navigation buttons for the next or previous records, if i'm sorting by news_id, I can do something rather simple like: SELECT MIN(news_id) AS next_news_id FROM news WHERE news_id > '$old_news_id' LIMIT 1 SELECT MAX(news_id) AS prev_news_id FROM news WHERE news_id < '$old_news_id' LIMIT 1 But the news can be sorted by any field, and I don't necessarily know which field is sorted on, so this won't work if the user sorts on news_author for example. I've resorted to the rather ugly and inefficient method of sorting the entire table and looping through all records until I find the record I need. $res = mysql_query("SELECT news_id FROM news ORDER BY `$sort_column` $sort_way"); $found = $prev = $next = 0; while(list($id) = mysql_fetch_row($res)) { if($found) { $next = $id; break; } if($id == $old_news_id) { $found = true; continue; } $prev = $id; } There's got to be a better way.

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  • convert htmlelement to string for comparison javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, I am using a function that obtains a target element id at onclick. Example, if I click on the text element that has the id of 'help'. var click = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); The var click would contain the ref to the id of "help". I want to compare the var click to the string 'help' using the if statement below. if (click == 'about') {do something} The comparison does not work because the var click is not a string. When I use the alert(click) to debug, it shows click as "object HTMLElement". How would you compare whether the id 'help' is obtained from var click? I could write out something like if (click == document.getElementById('help')) {do something} but that would make a long statement. also if the var click is document.getElementById('help'), how would you make a new var "show" as document.getElementById('showhelp') basically, I want to use the same function to generate dynamic responses to each element that was clicked on, and not having to create a separate function for each element.

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • Why Backbone.js isn't binding my event

    - by Saif Bechan
    I have a router like this, as main entry point: window.AppRouter = Backbone.Router.extend({ routes: { '': 'login' }, login: function(){ userLoginView = new UserLoginView(); } }); var appRouter = new AppRouter; Backbone.history.start({pushState: true}); I have a model/collection/view like this: window.User = Backbone.Model.extend({}); window.Users = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: User }); window.UserLoginView = Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click #login-button': 'loginAction' }, initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'loginAction'); }, loginAction: function(){ var uid = $("#login-username").val(); var pwd = $("#login-password").val(); var user = new User({uid:uid, pwd:pwd}); } }); And body of my HTML looks like this: <form action="#" method="POST" id="login-form"> <p> <label for="login-username">username</label> <input type="text" id="login-username" autofocus /> </p> <p> <label for="login-password">password</label> <input type="password" id="login-password" /> </p> <a id="login-button" href="#">Inloggen</a> </form> Note: The HTML comes from Node.js using express.js, should I maybe wait for a document ready event somewhere? Edit: I have tried this, create the view when ready, did not solve the problem. $(function(){ userLoginView = new UserLoginView(); });

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  • Using lambda expressions and linq

    - by Andy
    So I've just started working with linq as well as using lambda expressions. I've run into a small hiccup while trying to get some data that I want. This method should return a list of all projects that are open or in progress from Jira Here's the code public static List<string> getOpenIssuesListByProject(string _projectName) { JiraSoapServiceService jiraSoapService = new JiraSoapServiceService(); string token = jiraSoapService.login(DEFAULT_UN, DEFAULT_PW); string[] keys = { getProjectKey(_projectName) }; RemoteStatus[] statuses = jiraSoapService.getStatuses(token); var desiredStatuses = statuses.Where(x => x.name == "Open" || x.name == "In Progress") .Select(x=>x.id); RemoteIssue[] AllIssues = jiraSoapService.getIssuesFromTextSearchWithProject(token, keys, "", 99); IEnumerable<RemoteIssue> openIssues = AllIssues.Where(x=> { foreach (var v in desiredStatuses) { if (x.status == v) return true; else return false; } return false; }); return openIssues.Select(x => x.key).ToList(); } Right now this only select issues that are "Open", and seems to skip those that are "In Progress". My question: First, why am I only getting the "Open" Issues, and second is there a better way to do this? The reason I get all the statuses first is that the issue only stores that statuses ID, so I get all the statuses, get the ID's that match "Open" and "In Progress", and then match those ID numbers to the issues status field.

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  • beforeClose not working in jGrowl?

    - by sparkymark75
    I have the following code which pulls json data from an ASP.NET page and displays these as notifications. The code will also take a note of what's been pulled through and store it in an array to prevent it being shown again in the same session. I'm now trying to implement functionality so that when the user closes a message, it's ID is recorded in a cookie to prevent it ever being shown again. To do this, I'm trying to write to the cookie when the beforeClose event fires. Everything else works fine apart from the saving to a cookie bit. Is there something wrong with my code that I'm missing? var alreadyGrowled = new Array(); var noteCookie = $.cookie("notificationsViewed"); if (noteCookie != null) { alreadyGrowled = noteCookie.split(","); } function growlCheckNew() { $.getJSON('getNotifications.aspx', function(data) { $(data).each(function(entryIndex, entry) { var newMessage = true; $(alreadyGrowled).each(function(index, msg_id) { if (entry['ID'] == msg_id) { newMessage = false; } }); if (newMessage == true) { $.jGrowl(entry['Message'], { sticky: true, header: entry['Title'], beforeClose: function(e, m) { $.cookie("notificationsViewed", entry['ID']); } }); } alreadyGrowled.push(entry['ID']); }); }); }

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  • Paging using Linq-To-Sql based on two parameters in asp.net mvc...

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    As two parameters i say currentPage and pagesize .....I thus far used sql server stored procedures and implemented paging like this, GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetMaterialsInView] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @CurrentPage INT, @PageSize INT AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM ( SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM InTimePagingView ) AS InTimePages WHERE Row >= (@CurrentPage - 1) * @PageSize + 1 AND Row <= @CurrentPage*@PageSize SELECT COUNT(*) as TotalCount FROM InTimePagingView SELECT CEILING(COUNT(*) / CAST(@PageSize AS FLOAT)) NumberOfPages FROM InTimePagingView END Now i am using Linq-to-sql and i use this, public IQueryable<MaterialsObj> FindAllMaterials() { var materials = from m in db.Materials join Mt in db.MeasurementTypes on m.MeasurementTypeId equals Mt.Id where m.Is_Deleted == 0 select new MaterialsObj() { Id = Convert.ToInt64(m.Mat_id), Mat_Name = m.Mat_Name, Mes_Name = Mt.Name, }; return materials; } Now i want to return the records,TotalCount where i use Total count to generate pagenumbers..... Is this possible... Any suggestion... EDIT: Just found this... NorthWindDataContext db = new NorthWindDataContext(); var query = from c in db.Customers select c.CompanyName; //Assuming Page Number = 2, Page Size = 10 int iPageNum = 2; int iPageSize = 10; var PagedData = query.Skip((iPageNum - 1) * iPageSize).Take(iPageSize); ObjectDumper.Write(PagedData);

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  • In DBD::CSV what does a /r in the f_ext attribute mean?

    - by sid_com
    Why does only the second example append the extension to the filename and what is the "/r" in ".csv/r" for. #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use 5.012; use DBI; my $dbh = DBI->connect( "DBI:CSV:f_dir=/home/mm", { RaiseError => 1, f_ext => ".csv/r"} ); my $table = 'new_1'; $dbh->do( "DROP TABLE IF EXISTS $table" ); $dbh->do( "CREATE TABLE $table ( id INT, name CHAR, city CHAR )" ); my $sth_new = $dbh->prepare( "INSERT INTO $table( id, name, city ) VALUES ( ?, ?, ?, )" ); $sth_new->execute( 1, 'Smith', 'Greenville' ); $dbh->disconnect(); # -------------------------------------------------------- $dbh = DBI->connect( "DBI:CSV:f_dir=/home/mm", { RaiseError => 1 } ); $dbh->{f_ext} = ".csv/r"; $table = 'new_2'; $dbh->do( "DROP TABLE IF EXISTS $table" ); $dbh->do( "CREATE TABLE $table ( id INT, name CHAR, city CHAR )" ); $sth_new = $dbh->prepare( "INSERT INTO $table( id, name, city ) VALUES ( ?, ?, ?, )" ); $sth_new->execute( 1, 'Smith', 'Greenville' ); $dbh->disconnect();

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

    - by Thomas Dekiere
    i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

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  • Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

    - by Jesse
    So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

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  • Check for child duplicates

    - by ebb
    My console app will loop through each User to get their Websites, so that it can take new screenshots of them. However, to prevent taking screenshot of the same website twice I have to check whether there already has been taken screenshot of the website, while looping through another users websites. My current solution is: Database: User |--> ID: 1 |--> FirstName: Joe |--> ID: 2 |--> FirstName: Stranger Websites |--> ID: 1 |--> UserID: 1 |--> URL: http://site.com |--> ID: 2 |--> UserID: 2 |--> URL: http://site.com Console app: static void RenewWebsiteThumbNails() { Console.WriteLine("Starting renewal process..."); using (_repository) { var websitesUpdated = new List<string>(); foreach (var user in _repository.GetAll()) { foreach (var website in user.Websites.Where(website => !websitesUpdated.Contains(website.URL))) { _repository.TakeScreenDumpAndSave(website.URL); websitesUpdated.Add(website.URL); Console.WriteLine(new string('-', 50)); Console.WriteLine("{0} has successfully been renewed", website.URL); } } } } However, it seems wrong to declare a List for such a scenario, just to check whether a specific URL already has been added... any suggestions for an alternative way?

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  • ASP.NET GridView "Client-Side Confirmation when Deleting" stopped working on ie - how come?

    - by tarnold
    A few months ago, I have programmed an ASP.NET GridView with a custom "Delete" LinkButton and Client-Side JavaScript Confirmation according to this msdn article: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb428868.aspx (published in April 2007) or e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/218733/javascript-before-aspbuttonfield-click The code looks like this: <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="deleteLinkButton" runat="server" Text="Delete" OnCommand="deleteLinkButtonButton_Command" CommandName='<%# Eval("id") %>' OnClientClick='<%# Eval("id", "return confirm(\"Delete Id {0}?\")") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> Surprisingly, "Cancel" doesn't work no more with my ie (Version: 6.0.2900.2180.xpsp_sp2_qfe.080814-1242) - it always deletes the row. With Opera (Version 9.62) it still works as expeced and described in the msdn article. More surprisingly, on a fellow worker's machine with the same ie version, it still works ("Cancel" will not delete the row). The generated code looks like <a onclick="return confirm(...);" href="javascript:__doPostBack('...')"> As confirm(...) returns false on "Cancel", I expect the __doPostBack event in the href not to be fired. Are there any strange ie settings I accidentally might have changed? What else could be the cause of this weird behaviour? Or is this a "please reinstall WinXP" issue?

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  • Changing property of ItemTemplate controls in ListView

    - by arturito
    I have ListView containig LinkButtons in ItemTemplate. ListView is inside UpdatePanel so it is not doing page refresh. When users click on one the LinkButtons it changes its css property in order to mark the selection: protected void ListView1_ItemCommand1(object sender, ListViewCommandEventArgs e) { ((LinkButton)e.CommandSource).CssClass = "selected"; } That allows multiple selections. But once the page is refreshed the selection disappears, meaning that css property of control goes back to default. <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="local" Text='<%#Eval("Local.Name")%>' runat="server" CommandName="selectLocal" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("Local.Id") %>' CssClass="notSelected" > </asp:LinkButton> <asp:LinkButton ID="guest" Text='<%#Eval("Guest.Name")%>' runat="server" CommandName="selectGuest" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("Guest.Id") %>' CssClass="notSelected" > </asp:LinkButton> </ItemTemplate> How can I select them programatically on page reload? (I'm mainating selection list in session)

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  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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  • Are ternary operators not valid for linq-to-sql queries?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am trying to display a nullable date time in my JSON response. In my MVC Controller I am running the following query: var requests = (from r in _context.TestRequests where r.scheduled_time == null && r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0 select new { id = r.id, name = r.name, start = DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue ? DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value) : string.Empty }); When I run requests.ToArray() I get the following exception: Could not translate expression ' Table(TestRequest) .Where(r => ((r.scheduled_time == null) AndAlso (r.TestRequestRuns.Count > 0))) .Select(r => new <>f__AnonymousType18`4(id = r.id, name = r.name, start = value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().start_dt), end = IIF(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.HasValue, value(QAWebTools.Controllers.TestRequestsController). DateAndTimeDisplayString(r.TestRequestRuns.First().end_dt.Value), Invoke(value(System.Func`1[System.String])))))' into SQL and could not treat it as a local expression. If I comment out the end = line, everything seems to run correctly, so it doesn't seem to be the use of my local DateAndTimeDisplayString method, so the only thing I can think of is Linq to Sql doesn't like Ternary operators? I think I've used ternary operators before, but I can't remember if I did it in this code base or another code base (that uses EF4 instead of L2S). Is this true, or am I missing some other issue?

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  • Javascript - event listener toggle button

    - by user2546157
    I'm trying to create a button which can toggle "double click" to "single click" and in the opposite. For some reason, once it toggles to single click and it cannot toggle back. Can anyone please help! function init() { normal_listeners(); } function addListener(){ var image1 = document.getElementById('image_1'); var image2 = document.getElementById('image_2'); var image3 = document.getElementById('image_3'); if(document.getElementById('listener_1').value == "Listener"){ document.getElementById('listener_1').style.backgroundColor = "red"; alert("Normal"); image1.addEventListener("dblclick", function(){userChoice(1);}, false); image2.addEventListener("dblclick", function(){userChoice(2);}, false); image3.addEventListener("dblclick", function(){userChoice(3);}, false); document.getElementById('listener_1').value = "Normal"; } else if(document.getElementById('listener_1').value == "Normal") { document.getElementById('listener_1').style.backgroundColor = "green"; alert("Listener"); image1.addEventListener("click", function(){userChoice(1);}, false); image2.addEventListener("click", function(){userChoice(2);}, false); image3.addEventListener("click", function(){userChoice(3);}, false); document.getElementById('listener_1').value = "Listener"; } } function normal_listeners(){ var image1 = document.getElementById('image_1'); var image2 = document.getElementById('image_2'); var image3 = document.getElementById('image_3'); var listener1 = document.getElementById('listener_1'); listener1.addEventListener("click", addListener, false); image1.addEventListener("dblclick", function(){userChoice(1);}, false); image2.addEventListener("dblclick", function(){userChoice(2);}, false); image3.addEventListener("dblclick", function(){userChoice(3);}, false); } window.onload = init; <img id="image_1" src="rock.jpg" alt="ROCK" width="100" height="100"> <img id="image_2" src="paper.jpg" alt="PAPER" width="100" height="100"> <img id="image_3" src="scissors.jpg" alt="SCISSORS" width="100" height="100"> <input type="button" id="listener_1" value="Normal" style="background-color:red">

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  • Why is my PHP upload script not working?

    - by Turner
    Hello all, I am doing some simple work with uploading a file. I am ignoring error checking and exceptions at this point just to get my uploads working. I have this HTML form: <form action='addResult.php' method='post' enctype='multipart/form-data' target='results_iFrame' onsubmit='startUpload();'> Entry: <input type='text' id='entry' /> Stop: <input type='text' id='stop' /> Final: <input type='text' id='final' /> Chart: <input type='file' id='chart' /> <input type='submit' value='Add' /></form> As you can see, it calls 'addResult.php' within the iFrame 'results_iFrame'. The Javascript is just for animation purposes and to tell me when things are finished. addResult.php has this code in it (along with processing the other inputs): $upload_dir = "../img/"; $chart_loc = $upload_dir.basename($_FILES['chart']['name']); move_uploaded_file($_FILES['chart']['tmp_name'], $chart_loc); print_r($_FILES); It uses the 'chart' input from the form and tries to upload it. I have the print_r() function to display some information on $_FILES, but the array is empty, thus making this fail. What could I be doing wrong?

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  • How do I initialize the controls in an InsertItemTemplate?

    - by Slauma
    I have - for instance - an asp:FormView which supports Read, Insert, Update, Delete and is bound to a DataSource: <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </InsertItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> If I am in Read-Mode or Edit-Mode the control is initialized with the property MyText of the current object which is bound to the FormView. But when I go to Insert-Mode I do not have a "current object" (FormView1.DataItem is indeed null) and the controls are empty. If I want to have my TextBox control initialized with a specific value how can I do that? In which event can I hook in to set default values to the controls in the InsertItemTemplate? Especially I have in mind using an ObjectDataSource. I was expecting that the InsertItemTemplate is initialized with a business object which underlies my ObjectDataSource and which is created by the ASP.NET framework simply by using its default constructor when the InsertItemTemplate gets activated. In the default constructor I would init the class members to the default values I'd like to have in my controls of the InsertItemTemplate. But unfortunately that's not the case: No "default" object is created and bound to the FormView. So it seems I have to initialize all controls separately or to create the default object manually and bind it to the InsertItemTemplate of the FormView. But how and where can I do that? Thanks in advance!

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  • JQuery checkbox state is updated differently between group click() and $.each(obj.click())

    - by teerapap
    The code below doesn't work in the same behavior. The sequence of click event and calling foo() is different. I want to know why they behave different sequence between call click() and iterate the objects before call click() on each. <script type="text/javascript"> function foo(obj){ alert(obj.id+" ->"+obj.checked); } function clickAll(val){ if (val) { $(":checkbox").click(); } else { $(":checkbox").each(function(i,obj){ obj.click(); }); } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="checkbox" id="check1" onclick="foo(this)" /> a <input type="checkbox" id="check2" onclick="foo(this)" /> b <input type="checkbox" id="check3" onclick="foo(this)" /> c <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(true)" value="click all" /> <input type="button" onclick="clickAll(false)" value="click all each" /> </body>

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  • Ajax not working in visual studio 2005

    - by sachin
    I am trying to do an ajax website, but my ajax is not working. I checked my GAC and system.web,extensions dll is available. Why it is not working .? I am also not getting any errors. I tried many ways. I wrote the below code to test ajax. <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <%@ Register Assembly="System.Web.Extensions" Namespace="System.Web.UI" TagPrefix="asp" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <cc1:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server"> </cc1:ToolkitScriptManager> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:CalendarExtender ID="CalendarExtender1" runat="server" TargetControlID="TextBox1"> </cc1:CalendarExtender> </div> </form> </body> </html> JAvascript error that i got 1.Type is not defined http://localhost:1467/testnew/Default.aspx?_TSM_HiddenField_=ToolkitScriptManager1_HiddenField&_TSM_CombinedScripts_=%3b%3bAjaxControlToolkit%2c+Version%3d1.0.20229.20821%2c+Culture%3dneutral%2c+PublicKeyToken%3d28f01b0e84b6d53e%3aen-US%3ac5c982cc-4942-4683-9b48-c2c58277700f%3ae2e86ef9%3aa9a7729d%3a9ea3f0e2%3a9e8e87e9%3a1df13a87%3a4c9865be%3aba594826%3a507fcf1b%3ac7a4182e

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  • Forcing user to new page in php. (PHP newbie)

    - by JohnC
    Hello I'm a newbie web programmer. My background is writing Windows applications with sql. I'm putting together my 1st data entry screens in Php. I have a search form that links to a form that displays records in a grid. On each row of the grid I have a delete url to allow the user to remove a record. This links to a form delete.php (which calls the sql to remove the record). Ideally I would like to automatically take the user back to the search form rather than forcing the user to click on a link to do so. I have used ob_start with the header to do this elsewhere but cannot get it to work on this page. Is there another way to do it? (Using php 5 as part of LAMP) file delete.php <?php $id = $_GET['recordID']; //ob_start(); require_once('connections/local.php'); mysql_select_db($database_local, $local); mysql_query("DELETE FROM user_access WHERE id = {$id}") or die(mysql_error()); echo("Record ".$id." deleted"); echo("<br>"); //header("location:http://localhost/search7.htm); //ob_flush(); echo("<a href=\"http://localhost/search7.htm\">Search for Members</a>"); ?>

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  • my dialog box did not show up whene i compile it using sdk 7.1,

    - by zirek
    hello and welcom everyone .. i'd like to build a win32 application using sdk 7.1, i create the dialog box using visual c++ 2012 resource editor, i copy resource.rc and resource.h to my folder and i write this simple main.cpp file: #include <windowsx.h> #include <Windows.h> #include <tchar.h> #include "resource.h" #define my_PROCESS_MESSAGE(hWnd, message, fn) \ case(message): \ return( \ SetDlgMsgResult(hWnd, uMsg, \ HANDLE_##message((hWnd), (wParam), (lParam), (fn)) )) \ LRESULT CALLBACK DlgProc(HWND, UINT, WPARAM, LPARAM); BOOL Cls_OnInitDialog(HWND hwnd, HWND hwndFocus, LPARAM lParam); void Cls_OnCommand(HWND hwnd, int id, HWND hwndCtl, UINT codeNotify); int WINAPI _tWinMain( HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE, LPTSTR, int iCmdLine ) { DialogBoxParam( hInstance, MAKEINTRESOURCE(IDD_INJECTOR), NULL, (DLGPROC) DlgProc, NULL ); return FALSE; } LRESULT CALLBACK DlgProc( HWND hwnd, UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { switch (uMsg) { my_PROCESS_MESSAGE(hwnd, WM_INITDIALOG, Cls_OnInitDialog); my_PROCESS_MESSAGE(hwnd, WM_COMMAND, Cls_OnCommand); default: break; } return DefWindowProc(hwnd, uMsg, wParam, lParam); } BOOL Cls_OnInitDialog(HWND hwnd, HWND hwndFocus, LPARAM lParam) { return TRUE; } void Cls_OnCommand(HWND hwnd, int id, HWND hwndCtl, UINT codeNotify) { switch(id) { case IDCANCEL: EndDialog(hwnd, id); break; default: break; } } then i use the following command line to compile my code, wich i found on this forum cl main.cpp /link /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS user32.lib my problem is that my dialog box did not show up, and when i use procexp, to see what happen, i found that that my application is created then closed in the same time, and what make me wondering is that its working fine on visual c++ 2012. my sdk 7.1, installed correctly, i testing it against a basic window without any resource file any ideas, ill be really thankful Best, Zirek

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  • JAVASCRIPT - What am I doing incorrectly?

    - by DarkLightA
    LIVE CODE: http://jsfiddle.net/vy4nY/ I'm following this challenge, but I'm having some issues. I'm trying to make the Email Address box only appear when the checkbox is clicked on. What have I done incorrectly? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>JavaScript Challenges</title> <style type="text/css"> #emailpara {visibility:hidden;} </style> </head> <body> <form action=""> <fieldset> <legend>Email subscriptions</legend> <p id="subscribepara"> <label> <input type="checkbox" name="subscribe" id="subscribe"> Yes! I would like to receive the occasional newsletter via email. </label> </p> <p id="emailpara"> <label> Email Address: <input type="text" name="email" id="email"> </label> </p> </fieldset> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> document.getElementById('subscribe').onclick = (document.getElementById('subscribe').checked ? (document.getElementById('emailpara').style.visibility = 'visible') : (document.getElementById('emailpara').style.visibility = 'hidden')); </script> </body> </html>

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  • Finding a list of indices from master array using secondary array with non-unique entries

    - by fideli
    I have a master array of length n of id numbers that apply to other analogous arrays with corresponding data for elements in my simulation that belong to those id numbers (e.g. data[id]). Were I to generate a list of id numbers of length m separately and need the information in the data array for those ids, what is the best method of getting a list of indices idx of the original array of ids in order to extract data[idx]? That is, given: a=numpy.array([1,3,4,5,6]) # master array b=numpy.array([3,4,3,6,4,1,5]) # secondary array I would like to generate idx=numpy.array([1,2,1,4,2,0,3]) The array a is typically in sequential order but it's not a requirement. Also, array b will most definitely have repeats and will not be in any order. My current method of doing this is: idx=numpy.array([numpy.where(a==bi)[0][0] for bi in b]) I timed it using the following test: a=(numpy.random.uniform(100,size=100)).astype('int') b=numpy.repeat(a,100) timeit method1(a,b) 10 loops, best of 3: 53.1 ms per loop Is there a better way of doing this?

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