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  • How can I get PowerShell Added-Types to use Added References

    - by Scott Weinstein
    I'm working on a PoSh project that generates CSharp code, and then Add-Types it into memory. The new types use existing types in an on disk DLL, which is loaded via Add-Type. All is well and good untill I actualy try to invoke methods on the new types. Here's an example of what I'm doing: $PWD = "." rm -Force $PWD\TestClassOne* $code = " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassOne { public int DoNothing() { return 1; } } }" $code | Out-File tcone.cs Add-Type -OutputAssembly $PWD\TestClassOne.dll -OutputType Library -Path $PWD\tcone.cs Add-Type -Path $PWD\TestClassOne.dll $a = New-Object TEST.TestClassOne "Using TestClassOne" $a.DoNothing() "Compiling TestClassTwo" Add-Type -Language CSharpVersion3 -TypeDefinition " namespace TEST{ public class TestClassTwo { public int CallTestClassOne() { var a = new TEST.TestClassOne(); return a.DoNothing(); } } }" -ReferencedAssemblies $PWD\TestClassOne.dll "OK" $b = New-Object TEST.TestClassTwo "Using TestClassTwo" $b.CallTestClassOne() Running the above script gives the following error on the last line: Exception calling "CallTestClassOne" with "0" argument(s): "Could not load file or assembly 'TestClassOne,...' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified." At AddTypeTest.ps1:39 char:20 + $b.CallTestClassOne <<<< () + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [], MethodInvocationException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : DotNetMethodException What am I doing wrong?

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  • Jquery $.get against ASP.NET MVC not working in Opera and Firefox

    - by codelove
    Let me first put the code snippets here. I am just using the ASP.NET MVC project Visual Studio creates out of the box. So I am just putting the snippets I added to it: Site.master's head section: <head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <link href="../../Content/Site.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="../../Scripts/test.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript">$(document).ready(ready);</script> </head> Content of test.js: function ready(){ $.get("/Home/TestAjax", ajaxResponse); } function ajaxResponse(data){ alert("got response from server: " + data); } Method in HomeController: public String TestAjax() { if (Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { return "Got ajax request!"; } else { return "Non-ajax request"; } } Now the problem I am seeing in Firefox 3.5.30729 (Firebug) is when the ajax request goes out, IIS 7 on the remote box sends Http 302 back, which does the redirect and forces another get request, but it is not asynchronous. Opera also doesn't work so I assume it is the same problem. However, above code works just fine in IE 8, Chrome, and Safari. On localhost all of the above browsers work as expected including Firefox and Opera -- they all receive "Got ajax request!" as the response from the server. Anybody have any ideas what's going on here and how to fix it? I am looking for a real solution or at least explanation as to what is going on and why.

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  • SQL Full-Text Indexing Issue

    - by Phil
    UPDATE: I have figured out a way using a form of dynamic sql to fix this problem, thanks anyway for any help. Hi, there is something that I need to accomplish with the use of Full-Text Indexing. This is it: The fact of the matter is when I run a query (with a stored procedure) that looks like (with a parameter (@name) that was obviously defined above (not shown here), this parameter is sent to the stored procedure by an asp.net page, from user input): SELECT Name FROMdbo.UsersTable WHERE FREETEXT(Name, @name) Well, the fact of the matter is that a query like this will return values if, say the parameter @name's value is Joe, and say, there are 10 records of names with Joe in them, but if @name's value is just Jo, then it returns nothing, and this is the problem. Say that there are other records in this table that have Jo in them, like for example, Jole, or John. So the real question is, how do I get it to return values that are not full words, or phrases, but just from part of the word/phrase (like I said above)? Like FREETEXT(Name, @name*), which is not allowed to be used as a query, but, you get the idea. Is there a way to accomplish this? I'm sure there must be, I need to figure this out. Thanks for any help.

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  • This 404 seems unavoidable - what am I doing wrong? [Ninject 2.0 with ASP.NET MVC 2 on .NET 4]

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I downloaded the fairly new Ninject 2.0 and Ninject.Web.Mvc (targeting mvc2) sources today, and successfully built them against .NET 4 (release configuration). When trying to run an application using Ninject 2.0, i keep getting 404 errors and I can't figure out why. This is my global.asax.cs (slightly shortified, for brevity): using ... using Ninject; using Ninject.Web.Mvc; using Ninject.Modules; namespace Booking.Web { public class MvcApplication : NinjectHttpApplication { protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { Booking.Models.AutoMapperBootstrapper.Initialize(); RegisterAllControllersIn(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); base.OnApplicationStarted(); } protected void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { ... routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Entry", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { INinjectModule[] mods = new INinjectModule[] {...}; return new StandardKernel(mods); } } } The EntryController exists, and has an Index method that simply does a return View(). I have debugged, and verified that the call to RegisterAllControllersIn() is executed. I have also tried to use Phil Haacks Routing debugger but I still get a 404. What do I do to find the cause of this?

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  • jQuery: Multiple animations with a delay on a set of divs

    - by Waleed
    Hey there, I have a group of 4 divs and I'm looking to use jQuery to animate them once, then have a delay using delay(), and then run another set of animations on them, putting the divs back to their original configuration. Here's the code that I have: //only selectors called 'option1' are affected by delay, and not 'option1 img' or 'option2' $("#option1").showOption1().delay(3000).hideOption1(); //if i don't attach to #option1, delay doesn't work, but the animations that need to happen simultaneously work $(document).showOption1().delay(3000).hideOption1(); jQuery.fn.showOption1 = function(){ $("#option2, #option3, #leftColumn").fadeOut(1000); $("#option1").css("zIndex", "5"); $("#option1").animate({ left: "370px", }, 1500); $("#option1 img").animate({ width: "500px", }, 1500, function(){ $("p.optionText").text('hello'); }); return this; } jQuery.fn.hideOption1 = function(){ $("#option1 img").animate({ width: "175px", }, 1500); $("#option1").animate({ left: "743px", }, 1500); $("#option2, #option3, #leftColumn").fadeIn(2000); $("#option1").css("zIndex", "1"); return this; } I've tried two ways of running these two functions, as seen on lines 2 and 5. In the case of line 2, showOption1() will run fine, but then only $("#option1").animate({ left: "743px", }, 1500); will work from hideOption1() after the delay. The rest of hideOption1() is fired immediately after showOption1() finishes, ignoring the delay. On the other hand, if I run line 5, all the code in hideOption1() runs simultaneously as desired, but ignores the delay entirely, running immediately after showOption1() finishes. How can I have all the code in hideOption1() run simultaneously after the delay? Thanks much in advance!

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  • Inconsistency in passing objects from VBA to .NET via COM

    - by Akash
    I have the following interface defined to expose a .NET class to COM: [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsDual)] [Guid("6A983BCC-5C83-4b30-8400-690763939659")] [ComVisible(true)] public interface IComClass { object Value { get; set; } object GetValue(); void SetValue(object value); } The implementation of this interface is trivial: [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] [Guid("66D0490F-718A-4722-8425-606A6C999B82")] [ComVisible(true)] public class ComClass : IComClass { private object _value = 123.456; public object Value { get { return this._value; } set { this._value = value; } } public object GetValue() { return this._value; } public void SetValue(object value) { this._value = value; } } I have then registered this using RegAsm, and tried to call it from Excel via the following code: Public Sub ComInterop() Dim cc As ComClass Set cc = New ComClass cc.SetValue (555.555) valueByGetter = cc.GetValue valueByProperty = cc.Value cc.Value = 555.555 End Sub When I step throught this code, valueByGetter = 555.5555 and valueByProperty = 555.555 as expected. However, I get an "Object required" runtime error on the final line. Why does setting the value via the setter method work but setting via the property fail? What do I have to change to get the property to work as expected?

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  • Singleton Roles in Moose

    - by mjn12
    I am attempting to write a singleton role using Perl and Moose. I understand a MooseX::Singleton module is available but there is always resistance when requiring another CPAN module for our project. After trying this and having a little trouble I would like to understand WHY my method is not working. The singleton role I have written is as follows: package Singleton; use Moose::Role; my $_singleInstance; around 'new' => sub { my $orig = shift; my $class = shift; if (not defined $_singleInstance ){ $_singleInstance = $class->$orig(@_); } return $_singleInstance; }; sub getInstance { return __PACKAGE__->new(); } 1; This appears to work find when only one class uses the singleton role. However when two classes (ClassA and ClassB for example) both consume the Singleton role it appears as they are both referring to a shared $_singleInstance variable. If I call ClassA-getInstance it returns a reference to a ClassA object. If I call ClassB-getInstance sometime later in the same script it returns a reference to an object of type ClassA (even though I clearly called the getInstance method for ClassB). If I dont use a role and actually copy and paste the code from the Singleton role into ClassA and ClassB it appears to work fine. Whats going on here?

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  • Execution time in nano seconds and related issues

    - by anup
    Hi All, I am using the following code to compute execution time in milli-secs. struct timespec tp; if (clock_gettime (CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp) == 0) return ((tp.tv_sec * 1000000000) + tp.tv_nsec); else return ; Can you please tell me whether this is correct? Let's name this function comptime_nano(). Now, I write the following code in main() to check execution times of following operations. unsigned long int a, b, s1, s3; a = (unsigned long int)(1) << 63; b = (unsigned long int)(1) << 63; btime = comptime_nano(); s1 = b >> 30; atime = comptime_nano(); printf ("Time =%ld for %lu\n", (atime - btime), s1); btime = comptime_nano(); s3 = a >> 1; atime = comptime_nano(); printf ("Time =%ld for %lu\n", (atime - btime), s3); To my surprise, the first operation takes about roughly 4 times more time than the second. Again, if I change the relative ordering of these operations, the respective timings change drastically. Please comment...

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  • Linux C/C++ : How to reload dynamic modules?

    - by Arman
    Hi, Are there way to reload dynamic library? I am loading module by dlopen library: bool load_functions(){ std::string function_name="libfunction-factory.so"; void* handle = dlopen(function_name.c_str(), RTLD_NOW); //some initialization and usage // ''' // unload the library dlclose(handle); return true; } int main() { int i=0; for(;;) { cout<<"##prompt##"<<i++<<">"; if(std::cin.get()=='q') break; else { if(!load_functions()) std::cout<<"Failed to load Function Factory..."<<std::endl; } cout<<endl; } return 0; } after running I am editing library and trying to reload the library, but the new library does not load. Always the first loaded library is used. Are there way to force to reload library? Why dlclose does not unload library? Kind regards Arman.

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  • How to parse kanji numeric characters using ICU?

    - by Aki
    I'm writing a function using ICU to parse an Unicode string which consists of kanji numeric character(s) and want to return the integer value of the string. "?" = 5 "???" = 31 "???????" = 5972 I'm setting the locale to Locale::getJapan() and using the NumberFormat::parse() to parse the character string. However, whenever I pass it any Kanji characters, the parse() method is returning U_INVALID_FORMAT_ERROR. Does anyone know if ICU supports Kanji character strings in the NumberFormat::parse() method? I was hoping that since I'm setting the Locale to Japanese that it would be able to parse Kanji numeric values. Thanks! #include <iostream> #include <unicode/numfmt.h> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char **argv) { const Locale &jaLocale = Locale::getJapan(); UErrorCode status = U_ZERO_ERROR; NumberFormat *nf = NumberFormat::createInstance(jaLocale, status); UChar number[] = {0x4E94}; // Character for '5' in Japanese '?' UnicodeString numStr(number); Formattable formattable; nf->parse(numStr, formattable, status); if (U_FAILURE(status)) { cout << "error parsing as number: " << u_errorName(status) << endl; return(1); } cout << "long value: " << formattable.getLong() << endl; }

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  • How do you pass .net objects values around in F#?

    - by Russell
    I am currently learning F# and functional programming in general (from a C# background) and I have a question about using .net CLR objects during my processing. The best way to describe my problem will be to give an example: let xml = new XmlDocument() |> fun doc -> doc.Load("report.xml"); doc let xsl = new XslCompiledTransform() |> fun doc -> doc.Load("report.xsl"); doc let transformedXml = new MemoryStream() |> fun mem -> xsl.Transform(xml.CreateNavigator(), null, mem); mem This code transforms an XML document with an XSLT document using .net objects. Note XslCompiledTransform.Load works on an object, and returns void. Also the XslCompiledTransform.Transform requires a memorystream object and returns void. The above strategy used is to add the object at the end (the ; mem) to return a value and make functional programming work. When we want to do this one after another we have a function on each line with a return value at the end: let myFunc = new XmlDocument("doc") |> fun a -> a.Load("report.xml"); a |> fun a -> a.AppendChild(new XmlElement("Happy")); a Is there a more correct way (in terms of functional programming) to handle .net objects and objects that were created in a more OO environment? The way I returned the value at the end then had inline functions everywhere feels a bit like a hack and not the correct way to do this. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • How do you unit test a method containing a LINQ expression?

    - by Phil.Wheeler
    I'm struggling to get my head around how to accommodate a mocked method that only accepts a Linq expression as its argument. Specifically, the repository I'm using has a First() method that looks like this: public T First(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { return All().Where(expression).FirstOrDefault(); } The difficulty I'm encountering is with my MSpec tests, where I'm (probably incorrectly) trying to mock that call: public abstract class with_userprofile_repository { protected static Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>> repository; Establish context = () => { repository = new Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>>(); repository.Setup<UserProfile>(x => x.First(up => up.OpenID == @"http://testuser.myopenid.com")).Returns(GetDummyUser()); }; protected static UserProfile GetDummyUser() { UserProfile p = new UserProfile(); p.OpenID = @"http://testuser.myopenid.com"; p.FirstName = "Joe"; p.LastLogin = DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(-7); p.LastName = "Bloggs"; p.Email = "[email protected]"; return p; } } I run into trouble because it's not enjoying the Linq expression: System.NotSupportedException: Expression up = (up.OpenID = "http://testuser.myopenid.com") is not supported. So how does one test these sorts of scenarios?

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  • Rails RJS template displays code instead of the html page

    - by Anand
    After having Googled and hurting my brain for hours on this, I finally decided to post this question. Here's the code... view1.html.erb -------------- <%=link_to_remote_redbox "Link", :url => {:action => :action1, :id => @some.id} some_controller.rb ------------------ def action1 render :layout => false end def action2 do some processing end action1.html.erb -------------------- <form onsubmit="new Ajax.Request('/some_controller/action2', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){RedBox.close(); return false;}, parameters:Form.serialize(this)}); return false;}" method="post" action="/some_controller/action2"> <input type=text name='username'> <input type='submit' value='submit'> </form> action2.rjs ----------- page.replace_html("some_div", (render(:partial => "some_partial"))) with that code in place when action2.rjs kicks in it should display the html page instead I am getting this Element.update("some_div", "<style type=\"text/css\">\n\n.............. As suggested on other posts I read, they say its caused because of the ":update = some_div" in the link_to_remote_redbox function but clearly my code doesn't have that. Help is always appreciated. Many Thanks

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  • Passing Control's Value to Modal Popup

    - by Sherwin Valdez
    Hello, Just would like know how to pass textbox value to a modal popup after clicking a button using ModalPopUpExtender in ASP.NET, I've tried these codes but seems that I have no luck :( <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button1.Attributes.Add("onclick", "showModalPopup(); return false;"); } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick='showModalPopup(); return false;' /> <cc1:ModalPopupExtender ID="ModalPopupExtender1" runat="server" TargetControlID="Button1" PopupControlID="Panel1" CancelControlID="btnCancel" OkControlID="btnOkay" BackgroundCssClass="ModalPopupBG"> </cc1:ModalPopupExtender> <asp:Panel ID="Panel1" Style="display: none" runat="server"> <div class="HellowWorldPopup"> <div class="PopupHeader" id="PopupHeader"> Header</div> <div class="PopupBody"> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server"></asp:Label> </div> <div class="Controls"> <input id="btnOkay" type="button" value="Done" /> <input id="btnCancel" type="button" value="Cancel" /> </div> </div> </asp:Panel> javascript function showModalPopup() { //show the ModalPopupExtender var value; value = document.getElementById("TextBox1").value; $get("<%=Label1.ClientID %>").value = value; $find("<%=ModalPopupExtender1.ClientID %>").show(); } I wonder what I miss out :(, Thanks and I hope someone could help me :)

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  • Django model operating on a queryset

    - by jmoz
    I'm new to Django and somewhat to Python as well. I'm trying to find the idiomatic way to loop over a queryset and set a variable on each model. Basically my model depends on a value from an api, and a model method must multiply one of it's attribs by this api value to get an up-to-date correct value. At the moment I am doing it in the view and it works, but I'm not sure it's the correct way to achieve what I want. I have to replicate this looping elsewhere. Is there a way I can encapsulate the looping logic into a queryset method so it can be used in multiple places? I have this atm (I am using django-rest-framework): class FooViewSet(viewsets.ModelViewSet): model = Foo serializer_class = FooSerializer bar = # some call to an api def get_queryset(self): # Dynamically set the bar variable on each instance! foos = Foo.objects.filter(baz__pk=1).order_by('date') for item in foos: item.needs_bar = self.bar return items I would think something like so would be better: def get_queryset(self): bar = # some call to an api # Dynamically set the bar variable on each instance! return Foo.objects.filter(baz__pk=1).order_by('date').set_bar(bar) I'm thinking the api hit should be in the controller and then injected to instances of the model, but I'm not sure how you do this. I've been looking around querysets and managers but still can't figure it out nor decided if it's the best method to achieve what I want. Can anyone suggest the correct way to model this with django? Thanks.

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  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

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  • evaluation of a java thread dump

    - by raticulin
    I got a thread dump of one of my processes. It has a bunch of these threads. I guess they are keeping a bunch of memory so I am getting OOM. "Thread-8264" prio=6 tid=0x4c94ac00 nid=0xf3c runnable [0x4fe7f000] java.lang.Thread.State: RUNNABLE at java.util.zip.Inflater.inflateBytes(Native Method) at java.util.zip.Inflater.inflate(Inflater.java:223) - locked <0x0c9bc640 (a java.util.zip.Inflater) at org.apache.commons.compress.archivers.zip.ZipArchiveInputStream.read(ZipArchiveInputStream.java:235) at com.my.ZipExtractorCommonsCompress.extract(ZipExtractorCommonsCompress.java:48) at com.my.CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper$ExtractionThread.run(CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper.java:151) Locked ownable synchronizers: - None "Thread-8241" prio=6 tid=0x4c94a400 nid=0xb8c runnable [0x4faef000] java.lang.Thread.State: RUNNABLE at java.util.zip.Inflater.inflateBytes(Native Method) at java.util.zip.Inflater.inflate(Inflater.java:223) - locked <0x0c36b808 (a java.util.zip.Inflater) at org.apache.commons.compress.archivers.zip.ZipArchiveInputStream.read(ZipArchiveInputStream.java:235) at com.my.ZipExtractorCommonsCompress.extract(ZipExtractorCommonsCompress.java:48) at com.my.CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper$ExtractionThread.run(CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper.java:151) Locked ownable synchronizers: - None I am trying to find out how it arrived to this situation. CustomThreadedExtractorWrapper is a wrapper class that fires a thread to do some work (ExtractionThread, which uses ZipExtractorCommonsCompress to extract zip contents from a compressed stream). If the task is taking too long, ExtractionThread.interrupt(); is called to cancel the operation. I can see in my logs that the cancellation happened 25 times. And I see 21 of these threads in my dump. My questions: What is the status of these threads? Alive and running? Blocked somehow? They did not die with .interrupt() apparently? Is there a sure way to really kill a thread? What does really mean 'locked ' in the stack trace? Line 223 in Inflater.java is: public synchronized int inflate(byte[] b, int off, int len) { ... //return is line 223 return inflateBytes(b, off, len); }

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  • Keyword to SQL search

    - by jdelator
    Use Case When a user goes to my website, they will be confronted with a search box much like SO. They can search for results using plan text. ".net questions", "closed questions", ".net and java", etc.. The search will function a bit different that SO, in that it will try to as much as possible of the schema of the database rather than a straight fulltext search. So ".net questions" will only search for .net questions as opposed to .net answers (probably not applicable to SO case, just an example here), "closed questions" will return questions that are closed, ".net and java" questions will return questions that relate to .net and java and nothing else. Problem I'm not too familiar with the words but I basically want to do a keyword to SQL driven search. I know the schema of the database and I also can datamine the database. I want to know any current approaches there that existing out already before I try to implement this. I guess this question is for what is a good design for the stated problem. Proposed My proposed solution so far looks something like this Clean the input. Just remove any special characters Parse the input into chunks of data. Break an input of "c# java" into c# and java Also handle the special cases like "'c# java' questions" into 'c# java' and "questions". Build a tree out of the input Bind the data into metadata. So convert stuff like closed questions and relate it to the isclosed column of a table. Convert the tree into a sql query. Thoughts/suggestions/links?

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  • Boost.MultiIndex: Are there way to share object between two processes?

    - by Arman
    Hello, I have a Boost.MultiIndex big array about 10Gb. In order to reduce the reading I thought there should be a way to keep the data in the memory and another client programs will be able to read and analyse it. What is the proper way to organize it? The array looks like: struct particleID { int ID;// real ID for particle from Gadget2 file "ID" block unsigned int IDf;// postition in the file particleID(int id,const unsigned int idf):ID(id),IDf(idf){} bool operator<(const particleID& p)const { return ID<p.ID;} unsigned int getByGID()const {return (ID&0x0FFF);}; }; struct ID{}; struct IDf{}; struct IDg{}; typedef multi_index_container< particleID, indexed_by< ordered_unique< tag<IDf>, BOOST_MULTI_INDEX_MEMBER(particleID,unsigned int,IDf)>, ordered_non_unique< tag<ID>,BOOST_MULTI_INDEX_MEMBER(particleID,int,ID)>, ordered_non_unique< tag<IDg>,BOOST_MULTI_INDEX_CONST_MEM_FUN(particleID,unsigned int,getByGID)> > > particlesID_set; Any ideas are welcome. kind regards Arman.

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  • Interface Casting vs. Class Casting

    - by Legatou
    I've been led to believe that casting can, in certain circumstances, become a measurable hindrance on performance. This may be moreso the case when we start dealing with incoherent webs of nasty exception throwing\catching. Given that I wish to create more correct heuristics when it comes to programming, I've been prompted to ask this question to the .NET gurus out there: Is interface casting faster than class casting? To give a code example, let's say this exists: public interface IEntity { IParent DaddyMommy { get; } } public interface IParent : IEntity { } public class Parent : Entity, IParent { } public class Entity : IEntity { public IParent DaddyMommy { get; protected set; } public IParent AdamEve_Interfaces { get { IEntity e = this; while (this.DaddyMommy != null) e = e.DaddyMommy as IEntity; return e as IParent; } } public Parent AdamEve_Classes { get { Entity e = this; while (this.DaddyMommy != null) e = e.DaddyMommy as Entity; return e as Parent; } } } So, is AdamEve_Interfaces faster than AdamEve_Classes? If so, by how much? And, if you know the answer, why?

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  • how does hash element make a secure login on zend framework?

    - by ulduz114
    hello all i saw a example for login form same blow code class Form_Login extends Zend_Form { //put your code here public function init($timeout=360){ $this->addElement('hash', 'token', array( 'timeout' => $timeout )); $this->setName('Login'); $username = $this->createElement ( 'text', 'username' ); $username->setLabel('user name:') ->setRequired(); $this->addElement($username); $password=$this->createElement('password','password'); $password->setLabel('password:'); $password->setRequired(); $this->addElement($password); $login=$this->createElement('submit','login'); $login->setLabel('Login'); $this->addElement($login); $this->setMethod('post'); $this->setAction(Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance()->getBaseUrl().'/authentication/login'); } } and in submitAction a part code same below if (!$form->isValid($request->getPost())) { if (count($form->getErrors('token')) > 0) { return $this->_forward('csrf-forbidden', 'error'); } $this->view->form = $form; return $this->render('login'); } now , my question, whats the reason for use of hash element? how this hash element make secure login? anybody may help explain these? thanks

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  • Entity Framework with ASP.NET MVC. Updating entity problem

    - by Kitaly
    Hi people. I'm trying to update an entity and its related entities as well. For instance, I have a class Car with a property Category and I want to change its Category. So, I have the following methods in the Controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var categories = context.Categories.ToList(); ViewData["categories"] = new SelectList(categories, "Id", "Name"); var car = context.Cars.Where(c => c.Id == id).First(); return PartialView("Form", car); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { var category = context.Categories.Where(c => c.Id == car.Category.Id).First(); car.Category = category; context.UpdateCar(car); context.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } The UpdateCar method, in ObjectContext class, follows: public void UpdateCar(Car car) { var attachedCar = Cars.Where(c => c.Id == car.Id).First(); ApplyItemUpdates(attachedCar, car); } private void ApplyItemUpdates(EntityObject originalItem, EntityObject updatedItem) { try { ApplyPropertyChanges(originalItem.EntityKey.EntitySetName, updatedItem); ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(updatedItem, originalItem); } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } public void ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(IEntityWithRelationships newEntity, IEntityWithRelationships oldEntity) { foreach (var relatedEnd in oldEntity.RelationshipManager.GetAllRelatedEnds()) { var oldRef = relatedEnd as EntityReference; if (oldRef != null) { var newRef = newEntity.RelationshipManager.GetRelatedEnd(oldRef.RelationshipName, oldRef.TargetRoleName) as EntityReference; oldRef.EntityKey = newRef.EntityKey; } } } The problem is that when I set the Category property after the POST in my controller, the entity state changes to Added instead of remaining as Detached. How can I update one-to-one relationship with Entity Framework and ASP.NET MVC without setting all the properties, one by one like this post?

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  • WPF: How to data bind an object to an element and apply a data template through code?

    - by Boris
    I have created a class LeagueMatch. public class LeagueMatch { public string Home { get { return home; } set { home = value; } } public string Visitor { get { return visitor; } set { visitor = value; } } private string home; private string visitor; public LeagueMatch() { } } Next, I have defined a datatemplate resource for LeagueMatch objects in XAML: <DataTemplate x:Key="MatchTemplate" DataType="{x:Type entities:LeagueMatch}"> <Grid Name="MatchGrid" Width="140" Height="50" Margin="5"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding Home}" /> <TextBlock Grid.Row="1" Text="- vs -" /> <TextBlock Grid.Row="2" Text="{Binding Visitor}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> In the XAML code-behind, I want to create a ContentPresenter object and to set it's data binding to a previously initialized LeagueMatch object and apply the defined data template. How is that supposed to be done? Thanks.

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  • Which of these is pythonic? and Pythonic vs. Speed

    - by Kashyap Nadig
    Hi! I'm new to python and just wrote this module level function: def _interval(patt): """ Converts a string pattern of the form '1y 42d 14h56m' to a timedelta object. y - years (365 days), M - months (30 days), w - weeks, d - days, h - hours, m - minutes, s - seconds""" m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} for (n,q) in m: if q=='y': args['days'] += float(n)*365 elif q=='M': args['days'] += float(n)*30 elif q=='w': args['weeks'] += float(n) elif q=='d': args['days'] += float(n) elif q=='h': args['hours'] += float(n) elif q=='m': args['minutes'] += float(n) elif q=='s': args['seconds'] += float(n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) My issue is with the for loop here i.e the long if elif block, and was wondering if there is a more pythonic way of doing it. So I re-wrote the function as: def _interval2(patt): m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} argsmap = {'y': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*365), 'M': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*30), 'w': ('weeks', lambda x: float(x)), 'd': ('days', lambda x: float(x)), 'h': ('hours', lambda x: float(x)), 'm': ('minutes', lambda x: float(x)), 's': ('seconds', lambda x: float(x))} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += argsmap[q][1](n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) I tested the execution times of both the codes using timeit module and found that the second one took about 5-6 seconds longer (for the default number of repeats). So my question is: 1. Which code is considered more pythonic? 2. Is there still a more pythonic was of writing this function? 3. What about the trade-offs between pythonicity and other aspects (like speed in this case) of programming? p.s. I kinda have an OCD for elegant code. EDITED _interval2 after seeing this answer: argsmap = {'y': ('days', 365), 'M': ('days', 30), 'w': ('weeks', 1), 'd': ('days', 1), 'h': ('hours', 1), 'm': ('minutes', 1), 's': ('seconds', 1)} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += float(n)*argsmap[q][1]

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  • Pin animatesDrop mapView-iOS

    - by user1724168
    I have implemented code as seen below. I would like to add animation with dropping effect. However, once I type pinView.animatesDrop does not recognize! I could not able to figure out what I am doing wrong? - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)mV viewForAnnotation:(id <MKAnnotation>)annotation { MKAnnotationView *pinView=nil; if(![annotation isKindOfClass:[Annotation class]]) // Don't mess user location return nil; static NSString *defaultPinID = @"StandardIdentifier"; pinView = (MKAnnotationView *)[self.mapView dequeueReusableAnnotationViewWithIdentifier:defaultPinID]; if (pinView == nil){ pinView = [[MKAnnotationView alloc] initWithAnnotation:annotation reuseIdentifier:defaultPinID]; } // Build our annotation if ([annotation isKindOfClass:[Annotation class]]) { Annotation *a = (Annotation *)annotation; pinView.image = [ZSPinAnnotation pinAnnotationWithColor:a.color];// ZSPinAnnotation Being Used pinView.annotation = a; pinView.enabled = YES; pinView.centerOffset=CGPointMake(6.5,-16); pinView.calloutOffset = CGPointMake(-11,0); //pinView.animatesDrop = YES; } pinView.canShowCallout = YES; UIButton *rightButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; [rightButton setTitle:annotation.title forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [pinView setRightCalloutAccessoryView:rightButton]; pinView.leftCalloutAccessoryView = [[UIView alloc] init]; pinView.leftCalloutAccessoryView=nil; /*UIButton *leftButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeInfoLight]; [leftButton setTitle:annotation.title forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [pinView setLeftCalloutAccessoryView:leftButton];*/ return pinView; }

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