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  • What can be a cookie? How to set with OUTPUT? RETURNVALUE?

    - by Ronnie Chester Lynwood
    hello. i think i got some problems with setting a cookie data. for this code: Set cmdDB = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmdDB .ActiveConnection = ADOConM .CommandText = "usp_jaljava_member_select" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("RETURN_VALUE", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 0) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TLoginName", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,lcase(TLoginName)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPassword", adVarChar, adParamInput, 20,TPassword) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@retval", adVarChar, adParamOutput, 50) ' .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPinCode", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,TPinCode) .Execute,,adExecuteNoRecords RetVal = .Parameters("@retval") Ret = Trim(.Parameters("RETURN_VALUE")) 'Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With Set cmdDB = Nothing UTid = RetVal if Ret = 100 then deleteInvalidLogin(TLoginName) SetDomainCookie "UTid",UTid SetDomainCookie "Uid", TLoginName if redirect_domain <> "" then Response.Write "<form name=frm action=" & urlserver & " method=post><input type=hidden name=loginname value='" & TLoginName & "'><input type=hidden name=id value=""" & Request.Cookies("UTID") & """></form><script>frm.submit();</script>" Response.End else%> <% Response.Redirect ("kologin.asp?id=OK") Response.End end if RETURN_VALUE is returns as 100. But I don't know.. UTID! What is UTID have to be? If I set UTID same as UID will it work? thanks..

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  • How do I fix my "Stream closed" error in spring-ws?

    - by mcherm
    I have working code using the spring-ws library to respond to soap requests. I moved this code to a different project (I'm merging projects) and now it is failing. I would like to figure out the reason for the failure. The symptom I get is this: when the HTTP request arrives, spring begins handling the call. Then I get the following exception: org.springframework.ws.soap.saaj.SaajSoapEnvelopeException: Could not access envelope: java.io.IOException: Stream closed; nested exception is javax.xml.soap.SOAPException: java.io.IOException: Stream closed at org.springframework.ws.soap.saaj.SaajSoapMessage.getEnvelope(SaajSoapMessage.java:109) <<more lines that don't matter>> Caused by: java.io.IOException: Stream closed at java.io.PushbackInputStream.ensureOpen(PushbackInputStream.java:57) at java.io.PushbackInputStream.read(PushbackInputStream.java:116) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLEntityManager$RewindableInputStream.read(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLEntityManager.setupCurrentEntity(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.impl.XMLVersionDetector.determineDocVersion(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XML11Configuration.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.XMLParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.parsers.AbstractSAXParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.jaxp.SAXParserImpl$JAXPSAXParser.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.xerces.jaxp.SAXParserImpl.parse(Unknown Source) at org.apache.axis.encoding.DeserializationContext.parse(DeserializationContext.java:227) at org.apache.axis.SOAPPart.getAsSOAPEnvelope(SOAPPart.java:696) ... 30 more Examining it in a debugger, it appears that spring successfully handles HTTP headers, but then when it begins to process the contents of the SOAP message itself, it chokes when reading the very first character of the body. Some googling for the error message suggests that the problem is that a PushbackInputStream which is apparently used for reading from the socket is read twice or perhaps has close() called and then is read afterward. It is happening inside of spring-ws, not my code, and since it worked fine before I moved the code to a new project it must have something to do with versions of spring, or something it uses like axis or xerces. But I can't find any differences in versions of these! Has anyone encountered this error before? Or do you have any suggestions of approaches I could take in troubleshooting this?

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  • Save has_and_belongs_to_many link in basic RoR app

    - by Stéphane V
    I try to learn the has_and_belongs_to_many relationship between my 2 fresh new and simple models Product and Author, where a Product can have many authors and where author can have a lots of products. I wrote this : class Author < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :products end class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :authors end In the partial form of view for the products, I have : <p>Products</p> <%= collection_select(:product, :author_ids, @authors, :id, :name, :prompt => " ", :multiple => true) %> but when I hit the update button, I get this strange message I can't resolve myself : NoMethodError in ProductsController#update undefined method `reject' for "1":String Rails.root: /home/stephane/www/HABTM Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace app/controllers/products_controller.rb:63:in block in update' app/controllers/products_controller.rb:62:inupdate' Request Parameters: {"utf8"="✓", "_method"="put", "authenticity_token"="2GlTssOFjTVZ9BikrIFgx22cdTOIJuAB70liYhhLf+4=", "product"={"title"="Le trésor des Templiers", "original_title"="", "number"="1", "added_by"="", "author_ids"="1"}, "commit"="Update Product", "id"="1"} What's wrong ? Is there a problem with :product_ids... I saw on internet I had to pu a "s" but I'm not sure of what it represents.... How can I link the table authors_products to the key which is given back by the drop-down menu ? (here "author_ids"="1") Thx !

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  • delphi post 'illegal access' error

    - by paul
    hello all im making some delphi simple software which using Idhttp module in indy. i want to access ' http://mybuddy.buddybuddy.co.kr/userinfo/UserInfo.asp ' this page by use idhttp's post function. to open this webpage firstly have to login(http://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/Login/Login.asp), so i was logged in but problem is after logged in webpage i can see another login page but when try to login(http://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/usercheck/UserCheckPWExec.asp) , i encountered some error message 'illegal access'. if anyone help me much appreciate! begin sl.Clear; sl.Add('ID=ph896011'); sl.add('PWD=pk1089'); sl.add('SECCHK=0'); IdHTTP1.HandleRedirects := True; IdHTTP1.Request.ContentType := 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded'; memo1.Text:=idhttp1.Post('http://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/Login/Login.asp',sl); if pos('top.location =',Memo1.Text)> 0 then begin application.ProcessMessages; sleep(1000); Memo1.Text:= ''; sleep(300); sl2.Clear; sl2.Add('PASSWD=pk1089' ); Memo2.Text := IdHTTP1.Post('http://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/usercheck/UserCheckPWExec.asp', sl2); result.Caption := 'login success' ; sleep(300); Memo1.Text := ''; //memo1.Text := IdHTTP1.Get('https://user.buddybuddy.co.kr/Login/Logout.asp'); //Sleep(1000); end;

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  • Instead of trigger in SQL Server - looses SCOPE_IDENTITY?

    - by kastermester
    Hey StackOverflow, I am (once again) having some issues with some SQL. I have a table, on which I have created an INSTEAD OF trigger to enforce some buissness rules (rules not really important). This works as intended. My issue is, that now when inserting data into this table, SCOPE_IDENTITY() now returns a NULL value, rather than the actual inserted identity, my guess is that this is because it is now out of scope - but then how do I get this in scope? I am using SQL Server 2008. Per request, here's the SQL: Insert + Scope code INSERT INTO [dbo].[Payment]([DateFrom], [DateTo], [CustomerId], [AdminId]) VALUES ('2009-01-20', '2009-01-31', 6, 1) SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY() Trigger: CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[TR_Payments_Insert] ON [dbo].[Payment] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; IF NOT EXISTS(SELECT 1 FROM dbo.Payment p INNER JOIN Inserted i ON p.CustomerId = i.CustomerId WHERE (i.DateFrom >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateFrom <= p.DateTo) OR (i.DateTo >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <= p.DateTo) ) AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM Inserted p INNER JOIN Inserted i ON p.CustomerId = i.CustomerId WHERE (i.DateFrom <> p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <> p.DateTo) AND ((i.DateFrom >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateFrom <= p.DateTo) OR (i.DateTo >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <= p.DateTo)) ) BEGIN INSERT INTO dbo.Payment (DateFrom, DateTo, CustomerId, AdminId) SELECT DateFrom, DateTo, CustomerId, AdminId FROM Inserted END ELSE BEGIN ROLLBACK TRANSACTION END END The code did work before the creation of this trigger, also I am using LINQ to SQL in C# and as far as I can see, I have no way of changing SCOPE_IDENTITY to @@IDENITY - is there really no way out of this one?

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  • Best pratice: How do I implement a list similar to Stackoverflow's Users List?

    - by André Pena
    Technologies involved: ASP.NET Web-forms Javascript (jQuery for instance) Case To make it clearer let's give the Stackoverflow Users list as an example. This list can be manipulated at client-side. I can search, page and so forth. So obviously we would need to call jQuery.ajax to retrieve the HTML of each page given a search. Alright. Now this leaves me with the first question: What is the best way to render the response for the jQuery.ajax at server-side? I can't use templates I suppose, so the most obvious solution I think is to create the HTML tags as server-controls and render them as the result of an ASHX request? Is this is best approach? Nice. That solved we have yet another problem: When the user first enters the Authors List the first list page should already come from the server completely rendered alright? Of course we could render the first page as well as an ajax call but I don't think it's better. This time I CAN use templates to render the list but this template couldn't be reused in case 1. What do I do? Now the final question: Now we have 2 rendering strategies: 1) Client and 2) Server. How do I reuse code for the 2 renderings? What are the best pratices for solving these problems?

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  • How to display custom processing message in JQuery datatables

    - by Sukhi
    i am using datatables api to display data in my asp.net4.0 application; datatables I have one column [ Delete ] to delete the row data.when i click on this link i send a jquery ajax request to delete the row from database. I want to display a message such as [ Deleting record... ] to the end user until data deleted by server side processing. I put a div on my page and write a message [ Deleting record... ] in a div when i click on delete link i display that message but when delete operation complete it also display a message [ Processing... ](which is inbuilt message of datatables) which looks like odd as two message are displaying. What can i do better to display message to the end user. JSCode $('#tblVideoList .delete').live('click', function (e) { e.preventDefault(); var oTable = $('#tblVideoList').dataTable(); var aPos = oTable.fnGetPosition(this.parentNode); var aData = oTable.fnGetData(aPos[0]); if (confirm('Are you sure want to delete the record.')) { $("#divDelete").show(); var today = new Date(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", cache: false, url: "samplepage.aspx", success: function (msg) { $("#divDelete").hide(); oTable.fnDraw(); } }); } return false; }); Thanks

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  • asynchronous pages

    - by lockedscope
    I have just read the multi-threading and custom threading in asp.net articles. http://www.williablog.net/williablog/post/2008/12/16/Custom-Threading-in-ASPNET.aspx http://www.williablog.net/williablog/post/2008/12/16/Multi-Threading-in-ASPNET.aspx I have couple of questions. What does he mean by returning a thread to the pool? Is that thread completely removed from memory or put in to a state that it does not scheduled to CPU(is it in sleep state or whatever)? If that thread is removed from memory how could it survive after async point? How this mechanism works? Are every objects(pages class, request,response etc.) are copied to somewhere else before they are disposed? (Or, is it just waiting in a sleep state and then its waked when async call ends?) He is saying that; "Having said that, making pages asynchronous is not really about improving performance, it is about improving scalability" then he is saying; "I'm sorry to say that it will do nothing for scalability or performance." So which one is true? or for which case(s) are they true?

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  • Handling dependencies with IoC that change within a single function call

    - by Jess
    We are trying to figure out how to setup Dependency Injection for situations where service classes can have different dependencies based on how they are used. In our specific case, we have a web app where 95% of the time the connection string is the same for the entire Request (this is a web application), but sometimes it can change. For example, we might have 2 classes with the following dependencies (simplified version - service actually has 4 dependencies): public LoginService (IUserRepository userRep) { } public UserRepository (IContext dbContext) { } In our IoC container, most of our dependencies are auto-wired except the Context for which I have something like this (not actual code, it's from memory ... this is StructureMap): x.ForRequestedType().Use() .WithCtorArg("connectionString").EqualTo(Session["ConnString"]); For 95% of our web application, this works perfectly. However, we have some admin-type functions that must operate across thousands of databases (one per client). Basically, we'd want to do this: public CreateUserList(IList<string> connStrings) { foreach (connString in connStrings) { //first create dependency graph using new connection string ???? //then call service method on new database _loginService.GetReportDataForAllUsers(); } } My question is: How do we create that new dependency graph for each time through the loop, while maintaining something that can easily be tested?

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  • SignalR - Handling disconnected users

    - by guilhermeGeek
    Hy, I'm using the signalR library on a project to handle an notification and chat modules. I've a table on an database to keep a track of online users. The HUB for chat is inheriting IDisconnect where i disconnect the user. After disconnecting the user, i warm the users about that event. At this point, i check if the disconnect user is the client. If it's, then i call an method on HUB to reconnect the user (just update the table). I do this because with the current implementation, once the user closes a tab on the browser it calls the Disconnect task but he could have another tab opened. I've not tested (with larger requests) this module yet, but on my development server it could take a few seconds between the IDisconnect event, and the request from the user to connect again. I'm concerned with my implementation to handle disconnected users from the chat but i can't see another way to improve this. If possible, could someone give me a advice on this, or this is the only solution that i've?

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  • python calendar to calculate month backwards

    - by Suhail
    Hi, we are trying to create a calendar function in python. we have created a small content management system, the requirement is, there will be a drop down list on the top right hand corner of the website, which will give the options - Months - 1 month, 2 months, 3 months and so on..., if the user selects 8 months then it should show the postscount for the last 8 months. the issue is we tried to write a small code which would do the month calculations, but the bug is that it does not consider the months beyond the current year, it shows the postscount only for months of the current year. for example: if the user selects 3 months, it will show the count for the l 3 months i.e present month and the previous 2 months, but if the user selects option more than 4 months, it does not consider the months from previous year, it still shows the month of the present year only. I am pasting the code below:- def __getSpecifiedMailCount__(request, value): dbconnector= DBConnector() CdateList= "select cdate from mail_records" DateNow= datetime.datetime.today() DateNow= DateNow.strftime("%Y-%m") DateYear= datetime.datetime.today() DateYear= DateYear.strftime("%Y") DateMonth= datetime.datetime.today() DateMonth= DateMonth.strftime("%m") #print DateMonth def getMonth(value): valueDic= {"01": "Jan", "02": "Feb", "03": "Mar", "04": "Apr", "05": "May", "06": "Jun", "07": "Jul", "08": "Aug", "09": "Sep", "10": "Oct", "11": "Nov", "12": "Dec"} return valueDic[value] def getMonthYearandCount(yearmonth): MailCount= "select count(*) as mailcount from mail_records where cdate like '%s%s'" % (yearmonth, "%") MailCountResult= MailCount[0]['mailcount'] return MailCountResult MailCountList= [] MCOUNT= getMonthYearandCount(DateNow) MONTH= getMonth(DateMonth) MailCountDict= {} MailCountDict['monthyear']= MONTH + ' ' + DateYear MailCountDict['mailcount']= MCOUNT var_monthyear= MONTH + ' ' + DateYear var_mailcount= MCOUNT MailCountList.append(MailCountDict) i=1 k= int(value) hereMONTH= int(DateMonth) while (i < k): hereMONTH= int(hereMONTH) - 1 if (hereMONTH < 10): hereMONTH = '0' + str(hereMONTH) if (hereMONTH == '00') or (hereMONTH == '0-1'): break else: PMONTH= getMonth(hereMONTH) hereDateNow= DateYear + '-' + PMONTH hereDateNowNum= DateYear + '-' + hereMONTH PMCOUNT= getMonthYearandCount(hereDateNowNum) MailCountDict= {} MailCountDict['monthyear']= PMONTH + ' ' + DateYear MailCountDict['mailcount']= PMCOUNT var_monthyear= PMONTH + ' ' + DateYear var_mailcount= PMCOUNT MailCountList.append(MailCountDict) i = i + 1 #print MailCountList MailCountDict= {'monthmailcount': MailCountList} reportdata = MailCountDict['monthmailcount'] #print reportdata return render_to_response('test.html', locals())

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  • JavaScript access parent window from popup windows

    - by user359472
    I am trying to code this for hours and still couldn't do it. It keep tell me "Permission Denied". Here is what I am trying to accomplish. This pretty hard to explain please follow the example below. For example. domain111.com and domain222.com. When I am on domain111.com i click on the popup link , it will pop-up the domain111.com/popup.html then it redirect me to domain222.com. On this domain222.com it will redirect to couple pages before it redirect back to domain111.com with the result. I want to send the result from domain111.com to domain111.com. The process is like below. Domain111-popup to--Domain111-redirect--Domain222-redirect xxx Domain222 pages then redirect to---Domain111---SEND to parent window-Domain11 Here is my code. File name 1.hml on domain111.com <script type="text/javascript"> function IamParent() { alert('I am the parent of this window') } function PopUP() { window.open("http://domain222.com/2.htm", 'ALpop').focus(); } </script> <body> <a href="#void(0);" onclick="PopUP();" >Click</a> </body> File name 2.html on domain222.com <head> <title></title> <meta http-equiv="refresh" content="1;url=http://domain111.com/3.htm?Result=Yes" /> </head> Filename 2.htm on domain111.com <script type="text/javascript"> parent.IamParent(); //execute the function from the same domain111.com/1.htm </script> Please don't suggest AJAX or web request because it will not work with this case. Thanks for reading.

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  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

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  • Enable cross app redirects

    - by Gogster
    Hi all, We have load balancing set up on out two web server, however, a few users are being asked to login when they are being re-directed to a particular server to upload a document (we are trying to keep all uploaded documents on one server only), here is the code from web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="EAAAuthCookie" loginUrl="/login" defaultUrl="/members/home" protection="All" path="/" timeout="60000" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" /> </authentication> <machineKey decryption="AES" validation="SHA1" decryptionKey="7B4EC5B0C83631DF25D5B179EDDBF91B1C175B81C6F52102267D3D097FBF272A" validationKey="7D1F50788629CC342EE4985D85DE3D14F10654695912C0FFD439F54BED64F76A57A2D5E8180BC6FF052E0385C30558F5527D6C197C577A7F32DD8FF1CAC9F794" /> Here is the transfer code to the upload form: $('#addReport').click(function() { if ($.cookie('TransferURL') != '') { $("#iframeUploadReport").attr('src', $.cookie('TransferURL')); }; $('#overlay').fadeIn('slow'); }); <script type="text/C#" runat="server"> void Page_Load() { string cookieName = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName; string userName = Request.Cookies["HiddenUsername"].ToString(); string cookieValue = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie(userName, false).Value; Response.Cookies["TransferURL"].Value = "http://eaa.cms.necinteractive.net/members/media-upload" + String.Format("?{0}={1}", cookieName, cookieValue); } </script> <iframe id="iframeUploadReport" src="http://eaa.cms.necinteractive.net/members/media-upload" width="500px" height="336px" frameborder="0" scrolling="no"></iframe> Can you see any obvious step we are missing? Thanks

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  • How can I put double quotes inside a string within an ajax JSON response from php?

    - by karlthorwald
    I receive a JSON response in an Ajax request from the server. This way it works: { "a" = "1", "b" = "hello 'kitty'" } But I did not succeed in putting double quotes around kitty. When I convert " to \x22 in the Ajax response, it is still interpreted as " by JavaScript and I cannot parse the JSON. Should I also escape the \ and unescape later (which would be possible)? How to do this? Edit: I am not sure if i expressed it well: I want this string inside of "b" after the parse: hello "kitty" If necessary I could also add an additional step after the parse to convert "b", but I guess it is not necessary, there is a more elegant way so this happens automatically? Edit2: The ajax page is generated by php. I tried several things now to create the value of b, all result in JSON parse error on the page: $b = 'hello "kitty"'; // no 1: //$b = str_replace('"',"\x22",$b); // or no 2: // $b = addslashes($b); // or no 3: //$b = str_replace('"','\"',$b); // or no 4: $b = str_replace('"','\\"',$b); echo '"b" : "' . $b . '"';

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  • REST API error return good practices

    - by Remus Rusanu
    I'm looking for guidance on good practices when it comes to return errors from a REST API. I'm working on a new API so I can take it any direction right now. My content type is XML at the moment, but I plan to support JSON in future. I am now adding some error cases, like for instance a client attempts to add a new resource but has exceeded his storage quota. I am already handling certain error cases with HTTP status codes (401 for authentication, 403 for authorization and 404 for plain bad request URIs). I looked over the blessed HTTP error codes but none of the 400-417 range seems right to report application specific errors. So at first I was tempted to return my application error with 200 OK and a specific XML payload (ie. Pay us more and you'll get the storage you need!) but I stopped to think about it and it seems to soapy (/shrug in horror). Besides it feels like I'm splitting the error responses into distinct cases, as some are http status code driven and other are content driven. So what is the SO crowd recommendation? Good practices (please explain why!) and also, from a client pov, what kind of error handling in the REST API makes life easier for the client code?

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  • Single Form with Multiple Dynamic Buttons

    - by John Reilly
    I've spent hours/days trying to figure this out and now I'm completely perplexed so I thought I'd give stackoverflow a try. I'm (a newb) working in Java/JSP using Eclipse hosting on Google App Engine trying to develop an app for a volunteer organization I'm a member of. Rather than embarrass myself by showing my current code I'd love just a nudge in the right direction. I have a form (which doubles as a report basically) showing "people" grouped under the "task" they are currently working on. I would like to select multiple people from multiple tasks and reassign them to another task e.g. Bill and Jane are Gardening, Jeff is Painting. I want to select Jane and Jeff (all people have an associated checkbox in the form) and re-assign them to Sweeping (which is a task on the form but has no people assigned to it yet). Ideally, the re-assignment to Sweeping would be via a Sweeping button (each task would have a dynamically-created task button) that would pass the "Sweeping" value to a servlet along with an array or list of people whose checkbox has been checked. The servlet would handle the request (creating an Assignment "object/entity" with timeStamp, personId, taskId) and then re-direct back to the form/report which would then repaint with the current tasks/people generated from the Assignments class in the datastore. All the tasks are user-defined and retrieved from the database when building the form. Ditto the people. I've been trying to keep the jsp for presentation and the servlets for the processing but I'm no purist and would just like to get unstuck. Many thanks in advance for your assistance.

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  • Debugging a HTTP Handler from Visual Studio

    - by O.O.
    I am trying to debug a HTTP Handler in Visual Studio and the break point is not getting hit. Does anyone have an idea on how to go about debugging HTTP Handlers in Visual Studio? I am using VS 2010 Premium, .NET 4.0 on a Windows 7 machine. In my Web Application I have a HTTP Handler in /HTTPHandler/TrackingHandler.cs The following is in my web config file: <system.webServer> <handlers> <add name="TrackingHandler" path="/tx/*" verb="*" type="ProjectNamespace.TrackingHandler" resourceType="Unspecified" preCondition="integratedMode" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> My HTTP Handler looks like below namespace ProjectNamespace { public class TrackingHandler : IHttpHandler { public bool IsReusable { get { return true; } } public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { //Breakpoint on the very first line below string tracker = Path.GetFileName(context.Request.PhysicalPath); ....... } } } I start my Web Application using any random page in Visual Studio Debug using the builtin Web Server. I then maually edit the URL to point to the /tx/ directory and some random string after it. For e.g. my current URL looks like http://localhost:53699/tx/sdfs. I thought this should pull up the breakpoint on the first line of ProcessRequest() but it does not. I’d be grateful for any ideas. O. O.

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  • Silverlight Data Access - how to keep the gruntwork on the server

    - by akaphenom
    What technologies are used / recommended for HTTP Rpc Calls from Silverlight. My Server Side stack is JBoss (servlets / json_rpc [jabsorb]), and we have a ton of business logic (object creation, validation, persistence, server side events) in place that I still want to take advantage of. This is our first attempt at bringing an applet style ria to our product, and ideally we keep both HTML and Silverlight versions. For better or worse the powers that be have pushed us down the silverlight path, and while flex / java fx / silverlight is an interesting debate, that question is removed from the equation. We just have to find a way to get silverlight to behave with our classes. Should I be defining .NET Class representation of our JSON objects and the methodology to serialize / deserialize access to those objects? IE "blah.com/dispenseRpc?servlet=xxxx&p1=blah&p2=blahblah creating functions that invoke the web request and convert the incomming response string to objects? Another way would be to reverse engineer the .NET wcf(or whatever) communications and implement the handler on the Java side that invokes the correct server side code and returns what .NET expects back. But that sounds much trickier. T

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  • can load data(google app enngine) from http://localhost:8100/remote_api ..

    - by zjm1126
    i can download data from gae (http://zjm1126.appspot.com/remote_api), this is code: appcfg.py download_data --application=zjm1126 --url=http://zjm1126.appspot.com/remote_api --filename=a.csv and it successful : D:\zjm_demo\app>appcfg.py download_data --application=zjm1126 --url=http://zjm1 126.appspot.com/remote_api --filename=a.csv Downloading data records. [INFO ] Logging to bulkloader-log-20100618.162421 [INFO ] Throttling transfers: [INFO ] Bandwidth: 250000 bytes/second [INFO ] HTTP connections: 8/second [INFO ] Entities inserted/fetched/modified: 20/second [INFO ] Batch Size: 10 [INFO ] Opening database: bulkloader-progress-20100618.162421.sql3 [INFO ] Opening database: bulkloader-results-20100618.162421.sql3 [INFO ] Connecting to zjm1126.appspot.com/remote_api Please enter login credentials for zjm1126.appspot.com Email: [email protected] Password for [email protected]: [INFO ] Downloading kinds: [u'LogText', u'Greeting', u'Forum', u'Thread'] .... [INFO ] Have 0 entities, 0 previously transferred [INFO ] 0 entities (8804 bytes) transferred in 11.3 seconds so i want to know can load data from 127.0.0.1 , this is my code : appcfg.py download_data --application=zjm1126 --url=http://localhost:8100/remote_api --filename=a.csv and the error is : D:\zjm_demo\app>appcfg.py download_data --application=zjm1126 --url=http://loca lhost:8100/remote_api --filename=a.csv Downloading data records. [INFO ] Logging to bulkloader-log-20100618.162325 [INFO ] Throttling transfers: [INFO ] Bandwidth: 250000 bytes/second [INFO ] HTTP connections: 8/second [INFO ] Entities inserted/fetched/modified: 20/second [INFO ] Batch Size: 10 [INFO ] Opening database: bulkloader-progress-20100618.162325.sql3 [INFO ] Opening database: bulkloader-results-20100618.162325.sql3 Please enter login credentials for localhost Email: [email protected] Password for [email protected]: [INFO ] Connecting to localhost:8100/remote_api [ERROR ] Exception during authentication Traceback (most recent call last): File "d:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\bulkload er.py", line 3169, in Run self.request_manager.Authenticate() File "d:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\bulkload er.py", line 1178, in Authenticate remote_api_stub.MaybeInvokeAuthentication() File "d:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\ext\remote_api \remote_api_stub.py", line 542, in MaybeInvokeAuthentication datastore_stub._server.Send(datastore_stub._path, payload=None) File "d:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\appengin e_rpc.py", line 346, in Send f = self.opener.open(req) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 387, in open response = meth(req, response) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 498, in http_response 'http', request, response, code, msg, hdrs) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 425, in error return self._call_chain(*args) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 360, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 506, in http_error_default raise HTTPError(req.get_full_url(), code, msg, hdrs, fp) HTTPError: HTTP Error 404: Not Found [INFO ] Authentication Failed so what should i do , thanks

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  • eventmachine and external scripts via backticks

    - by Maciek
    I have a small HTTP server script I've written using eventmachine which needs to call external scripts/commands and does so via backticks (``). When serving up requests which don't run backticked code, everything is fine, however, as soon as my EM code executes any backticked external script, it stops serving requests and stops executing in general. I noticed eventmachine seems to be sensitive to sub-processes and/or threads, and appears to have the popen method for this purpose, but EM's source warns that this method doesn't work under Windows. Many of the machines running this script are running Windows, so I can't use popen. Am I out of luck here? Is there a safe way to run an external command from an eventmachine script under Windows? Is there any way I could fire off some commands to be run externally without blocking EM's execution? edit: the culprit that seems to be screwing up EM the most is my usage of the Windows start command, as in: start java myclass. The reason I'm using start is because I want those external scripts to start running and keep running after the EM request is served

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  • WCF and streaming requests and responses

    - by Cheeso
    Is it correct that in WCF, I cannot have a service write to a stream that is received by the client? My understanding is that streaming is supported in WCF for requests, responses, or both. Is it true that in all cases, the receiver of the stream must invoke Read ? I would like to support a scenario where the receiver of the stream can Write on it. Is this supported? Let me show it this way. The simplest example of Streaming in WCF is the service returning a FileStream to a client. This is a streamed response. The server code is like this: [ServiceContract] public interface IStreamService { [OperationContract] Stream GetData(string fileName); } public class StreamService : IStreamService { public Stream GetData(string filename) { FileStream fs = new FileStream(filename, FileMode.Open) return fs; } } And the client code is like this: StreamDemo.StreamServiceClient client = new WcfStreamDemoClient.StreamDemo.StreamServiceClient(); Stream str = client.GetData(@"c:\path\to\myfile.dat"); do { b = str.ReadByte(); //read next byte from stream ... } while (b != -1); (example taken from http://blog.joachim.at/?p=33) Clear, right? The server returns the Stream to the client, and the client invokes Read on it. Is it possible for the client to provide a Stream, and the server to invoke Write on it? In other words, rather than a pull model - where the client pulls data from the server - it is a push model, where the client provides the "sink" stream and the server writes into it. Is this possible in WCF, and if so, how? What are the config settings required for the binding, interface, etc? The analogy is the Response.OutputStream from an ASP.NET request. In ASPNET, any page can invoke Write on the output stream, and the content is received by the client. Can I do something similar in WCF? Thanks.

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  • Handling 'session expired' in JSF web application, running in JBoss AS 5

    - by Veera
    This question is related to my other question "How to redirect to Login page when Session is expired in Java web application?". Below is what I'm trying to do: I've a JSF web application running on JBoss AS 5 When the user is inactive for, say 15 minutes, I need to log out the user and redirect him to the login page, if he is trying to use the application after the session has expired. So, as suggested in 'JSF Logout and Redirect', I've implemented a filter which checks for the session expired condition and redirects the user to a session-timed-out.jsp page, if the session has expired. I've added SessionExpiryCheckFilter on top of all other filter definitions in web.xml, so that my session expiry check will get the first hit always. Now comes the challenge I'm facing. Since I'm using JBoss AS, when the session expired, JBoss automatically redirects me to the login page (note that the session expiry check filter is not invoked). So, after I log-in, my SessionExpiryCheckFilter intercepts the request, and it sees a session is available. But, it throws the exception javax.faces.application.ViewExpiredException: viewId:/mypage.faces - View /mypage.faces could not be restored. Have anyone faced this issue before? Any ideas to solve this issue?

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  • ASP.NET OleDbConnection Problem

    - by Matt
    I'm working on an ASP.NET website where I am using an asp:repeater with paging done through a VB.NET code-behind file. I'm having trouble with the database connection though. As far as I can tell, the paging is working, but I can't get the data to be certain. The database is a Microsoft Access database. The function that should be accessing the database is: Dim pagedData As New PagedDataSource Sub Page_Load(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) doPaging() End Sub Function getTheData() As DataTable Dim DS As New DataSet() Dim strConnect As New OleDbConnection("Provider = Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=App_Data/ArtDatabase.mdb") Dim objOleDBAdapter As New OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT ArtID, FileLocation, Title, UserName, ArtDate FROM Art ORDER BY Art.ArtDate DESC", strConnect) objOleDBAdapter.Fill(DS, "Art") Return DS.Tables("Art").Copy End Function Sub doPaging() pagedData.DataSource = getTheData().DefaultView pagedData.AllowPaging = True pagedData.PageSize = 2 Try pagedData.CurrentPageIndex = Int32.Parse(Request.QueryString("Page")).ToString() Catch ex As Exception pagedData.CurrentPageIndex = 0 End Try btnPrev.Visible = (Not pagedData.IsFirstPage) btnNext.Visible = (Not pagedData.IsLastPage) pageNumber.Text = (pagedData.CurrentPageIndex + 1) & " of " & pagedData.PageCount ArtRepeater.DataSource = pagedData ArtRepeater.DataBind() End Sub The ASP.NET is: <asp:Repeater ID="ArtRepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <h2>Items in Selected Category:</h2> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <asp:HyperLink runat="server" ID="HyperLink" NavigateUrl='<%# Eval("ArtID", "ArtPiece.aspx?ArtID={0}") %>'> <img src="<%# Eval("FileLocation") %>" alt="<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Title") %>t"/> <br /> <%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Title") %> </asp:HyperLink> </li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

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  • jQuery, unable to store data returned by $.get function.

    - by Deepak Prasanna
    I am trying to turn div#sidebar into a sidebar in my app. My code looks like the one below. $('#sidebar').userProfile(); jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ $(this).html(data); }); }; It didnt work because, I found the this (inside the $.get function) here contexts to the get request and not $('#sidebar'). Then I tried something like below. $('#sidebar').userProfile(); #This doesnot work jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { var side_bar = null; $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ side_bar = data; }); $(this).html(side_bar); console.log(side_bar); }; This doesnt work either. In firebug console I see Null which I am setting on top when I am declaring the variable.Atlast I made it work by changing my code to something like below by hardcoding the selector. #This works, but I cannot turn any element to a sidebar which is sick. jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ $('#sidebar').html(data); }); }; But this is not I wanted because I wanted to turn any element to a sidebar. Where am I goin wrong or which is the correct way of doing it?

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