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• Why is Grails Searchable Plugin causing errors on Hibernate AutoFlush?

  - by Mark Rogers

  In the Grails 1.2.5 project that I am trying to troubleshoot, we use the Grails Searchable plugin .5.5.1. The problem is that whenever we attempt to index large sets domain classes, Grails keeps throwing: ERROR hibernate.AssertionFailure - an assertion failure occured (this may indicate a bug in Hibernate, but is more likely due to unsafe use of the session) org.hibernate.AssertionFailure: collection [domain-class] was not processed by flush() But the domain classes involved have been mapped and used by hibernate without issues outside of the calls to searchable plugin. The use of the searchable plugin goes as follows: Create a compass session with compass.openSession() Begin compass transaction: compassSession.beginTransaction() Then compassSession.create(result.get(0)) is called on an important unindexed domain class Finally compassTransaction.commit() is called to commit the transaction. Goto 2 and process next domain class Between the 3 and 4th Domain class, an autoflush is triggered that throws the error. Can anyone give me any hints about how to solve this problem? Has anyone encountered this problem before? I know that they had a systemic issue with this back in pre .5 versions of the searchable-plugin. Is it possible those issues weren't totally fixed?

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• Perl, strings, floats, unit testing and regexps!

  - by Chris R

  OK, as a preface this question potentially is 'stupider' than my normal level of question - however this problem has been annoying me for the last few days so I'll ask it anyway. I'll give a mock example of what my problem is so I can hope to generalize it to my current problem. #!/usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use Test::More 'no_plan'; my $fruit_string = 'Apples cost $1.50'; my ($fruit, $price) = $fruit_string =~ /(\w+)s cost \$(\d+\.\d+)/; # $price += 0; # Uncomment for Great Success is ($price, 1.50, 'Great Success'); Now when this is run I get the message # Failed test 'Great Success' # got: '1.50' # expected: '1.5' To make the test work - I either uncomment the commented line, or use is ($price, '1.50', 'Great Success'). Both options do not work for me - I'm testing a huge amount of nested data using Test::Deep and cmp_deeply. My question is, how can you extract a double from a regexp then use it immediately as a double - or if there is a better way altogether let me know - and feel free to tell me to take up gardening or something lol, learning Perl is hard.

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• ModRewrite weird redirect behavior on removing WWW

  - by vitto

  Hi, I'm trying to use some rule on my project to remove www from the beginning of the URL but I've some problem. my server structure is: domain.com/beta_folder domain.com/beta_folder/page+type domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/edit domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/etc. domain.com/beta_folder/.htaccess //here is where my htaccess is beta_folder is the site folder, and content+name are content vars, created to retrieve pages from the database. the site works perfect with this rules RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My intention was to remove www, so I've added this rule but it isn't effective RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://domain.com$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My problem starts if I digit www in front of my domain name: this works http://domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name if i write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name the rewrite rule redirect me at http://www.domain.compage+type/content+name if i remove the www rules, the problem still active unfortunately, I can't make a public test for my domain basically, if I write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder the rules sends me to http://domain.com/ where I'm wrong?

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• Javascript onclick() event bubbling - working or not?

  - by user1071914

  I have a table in which the table row tag is decorated with an onclick() handler. If the row is clicked anywhere, it will load another page. In one of the elements on the row, is an anchor tag which also leads to another page. The desired behavior is that if they click on the link, "delete.html" is loaded. If they click anywhere else in the row, "edit.html" is loaded. The problem is that sometimes (according to users) both the link and the onclick() are fired at once, leading to a problem in the back end code. They swear they are not double-clicking. I don't know enough about Javascript event bubbling, handling and whatever to even know where to start with this bizarre problem, so I'm asking for help. Here's a fragment of the rendered page, showing the row with the embedded link and associated script tag. Any suggestions are welcomed: <tr id="tableRow_3339_0" class="odd"> <td class="l"></td> <td>PENDING</td> <td>Yabba Dabba Doo</td> <td>Fred Flintstone</td> <td> <a href="/delete.html?requestId=3339"> <div class="deleteButtonIcon"></div> </a> </td> <td class="r"></td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript">document.getElementById("tableRow_3339_0").onclick = function(event) { window.location = '//edit.html?requestId=3339'; };</script>

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• Safari Web Inspector is not updating when I update an element with ajax

  - by Ashley

  I have a checkout page http://www.oipolloi.com/oipolloi/shop/viewbasket.php with multiple ajax calls after certain items update (EG look up postage cost when country is changed, then update discount boxes etc). I've asked for help in the past about the best method of making sure ALL calls have returned before allowing the form to be submitted for payment processing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2290372/how-do-i-prevent-form-submission-until-multiple-ajax-calls-have-finished-jquery I was fairly happy that the logic in the finished solution was correct, but I have still been receiving reports that people using Safari are able to submit the form without the ajax calls returning properly. I have tried using the Safari Web Inspector to debug but it seems that when you Inspect Element, then update an element with an ajax call, the Inspector doesn't seem to update. I am updating hidden fields, so it's hard to be able to know whether the problem lies with the DOM not being updated properly, or the Inspector itself. I'm using Safari 4.0.5 on PC and you can reproduce the problem above by looking for a div id="countryFieldsBilling" with Web Inspector. It should contain three hidden fields that are initially empty. You can try to make it update (or not) by choosing a country from the select menu at the bottom of 'Shipping Address' box, and then clicking the 'click to use Shipping Address' link at the top of the 'Billing Address' just below. The behaviour I am seeing is that the country chosen in the shipping select gets copied correctly to the country in the billing select, but the hidden inputs in the Web Inspector do not get updated. When these hidden inputs do not get updated, this causes the problem that Mac Safari users report. If you can let me know either how to get Web Inspector to work properly, or something else I may have missed in the behaviour of Mac Safari that may cause these problems, that would be great. Thanks in advance

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• How to create a generic list in this wierd case in c#

  - by Marc Bettex

  Hello, In my program, I have a class A which is extended by B, C and many more classes. I have a method GetInstance() which returns a instance of B or C (or of one of the other child), but I don't know which one, so the return type of the method is A. In the method CreateGenericList(), I have a variable v of type A, which is in fact either a B, a C or another child type and I want to create a generic list of the proper type, i.e. List<B> if v is a B or List<C> if v is a C, ... Currently I do it by using reflection, which works, but this is extremely slow. I wanted to know if there is another way to to it, which doesn't use reflection. Here is an example of the code of my problem: class A { } class B : A { } class C : A { } // More childs of A. class Program { static A GetInstance() { // returns an instance of B or C } static void CreateGenericList() { A v = Program.GetInstance(); IList genericList = // Here I want an instance of List<B> or List<C> or ... depending of the real type of v, not a List<A>. } } I tried the following hack. I call the following method, hoping the type inferencer will guess the type of model, but it doesn't work and return a List<A>. I believe that because c# is statically typed, T is resolved as A and not as the real type of model at runtime. static List<T> CreateGenericListFromModel<T>(T model) where T : A { return new List<T> (); } Does anybody have a solution to that problem that doesn't use reflection or that it is impossible to solve that problem without reflection? Thank you very much, Marc

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• Why should I use core.autocrlf in Git

  - by Rich

  I have a Git repository that is accessed from both Windows and OS X, and that I know already contains some files with CRLF line-endings. As far as I can tell, there are two ways to deal with this: Set core.autocrlf to false everywhere, Follow the instructions here (echoed on GitHub's help pages) to convert the repository to contain only LF line-endings, and thereafter set core.autocrlf to true on Windows and input on OS X. The problem with doing this is that if I have any binary files in the repository that: a). are not correctly marked as binary in gitattributes, and b). happen to contain both CRLFs and LFs, they will be corrupted. It is possible my repository contains such files. So why shouldn't I just turn off Git's line-ending conversion? There are a lot of vague warnings on the web about having core.autocrlf switched off causing problems, but very few specific ones; the only that I've found so far are that kdiff3 cannot handle CRLF endings (not a problem for me), and that some text editors have line-ending issues (also not a problem for me). The repository is internal to my company, and so I don't need to worry about sharing it with people with different autocrlf settings or line-ending requirements. Are there any other problems with just leaving line-endings as-is that I am unaware of?

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• How to use form_tag to update params

  - by Tryskele

  I have been struggling with a problem in Rails for a couple of days and still could not find the solution. Could you help me with that? Problem: I have a search box that puts a :search_string entry in the params structure. I use a form_tag for that and it works fine. <% form_tag :controller=> 'items', :action => 'find' do %> <%= text_field_tag :search_string, params[:search_string] %> <% end %> The problem is when I want to add and update other params key-value (in another view), for instance :start_date, to filter the search_string result. Here is the code snipped that I use in the view: <% form_tag :controller=> "items", :action => "find", :params => params do %> <%= hidden_field_tag :date_start, '2010-04-01' %> <%= submit_tag 'April' %> <% end %> <% form_tag :controller=> "items", :action => "find", :params => params do %> <%= hidden_field_tag :date_start, '2010-03-01' %> <%= submit_tag 'March' %> <% end %> When I first click on "April" submit button, then the params is correctly passed to the controller (i.e. there is a params[:start_date]='April'). However when I try to click "March" button afterwards, the params[:start_date] is not updated. I definitely think this is a stupid newbie mistake, but I cannot figure out how to properly use the form_tag. Could you tell me if I am doing something work? Otherwise, could you advise me which is the best way to update the params using form_tag's ? Thank you very much in advance. Miquel

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• Extremely CPU Intensive Alarm Clock

  - by SoulBeaver

  For some reason my program, a console alarm clock I made for laughs and practice, is extremely CPU intensive. It consumes about 2mB RAM, which is already quite a bit for such a small program, but it devastates my CPU with over 50% resources at times. Most of the time my program is doing nothing except counting down the seconds, so I guess this part of my program is the one that's causing so much strain on my CPU, though I don't know why. If it is so, could you please recommend a way of making it less, or perhaps a library to use instead if the problem can't be easily solved? /* The wait function waits exactly one second before returning to the * * called function. */ void wait( const int &seconds ) { clock_t endwait; // Type needed to compare with clock() endwait = clock() + ( seconds * CLOCKS_PER_SEC ); while( clock() < endwait ) {} // Nothing need be done here. } In case anybody browses CPlusPlus.com, this is a genuine copy/paste of the clock() function they have written as an example for clock(). Much why the comment //Nothing need be done here is so lackluster. I'm not entirely sure what exactly clock() does yet. The rest of the program calls two other functions that only activate every sixty seconds, otherwise returning to the caller and counting down another second, so I don't think that's too CPU intensive- though I wouldn't know, this is my first attempt at optimizing code. The first function is a console clear using system("cls") which, I know, is really, really slow and not a good idea. I will be changing that post-haste, but, since it only activates every 60 seconds and there is a noticeable lag-spike, I know this isn't the problem most of the time. The second function re-writes the content of the screen with the updated remaining time also only every sixty seconds. I will edit in the function that calls wait, clearScreen and display if it's clear that this function is not the problem. I already tried to reference most variables so they are not copied, as well as avoid endl as I heard that it's a little slow compared to \n.

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• How to find out where a thread lock happend?

  - by SchlaWiener

  One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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• Disable ARC with Xcode 5

  - by user2187565

  First, sorry for my bad english, I'm french and had 15years old but StackOverFlow is for me the best forum for developers. So, in the previous versions of Xcode, we can disable ARC (Automatic Reference Counting) in the project settings when we create the project. Not now with Xcode 5 and ARC to pose me a problem: with an property list file, for the reading step, Xcode send me an error: "implicit conversion of 'int' to 'id' is disallowed with ARC". I had not the problem with the same code with Xcode 4. In my property list file, The keys are numbers and also in my viewController.m . NIKOS M.: No problem, but I don't see how I can add compiler flag with the 5th version of Xcode. The code (with french string...): NSString *error; NSString *rootPath = [NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES) objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *plistPath = [rootPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Save.plist"]; NSArray *keys = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"valeurCompteur1", @"valeurCompteur2", @"valeurCompteur3", @"valeurCompteur4", @"valeurCompteur5", @"nomCompteur1", @"nomCompteur2", @"nomCompteur3", @"nomCompteur4", @"nomCompteur5", nil]; NSArray *objs = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: compteur1, compteur2, compteur3, compteur4, compteur5, nameC1, nameC2, nameC3, nameC4, nameC5, nil]; REVIEW: When I disallow ARC for the target, an warning persist. How I can resolve that please ? Thank you very much.

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• Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

  - by DavidYell

  I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

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• Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

  - by Etan

  I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

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• CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

  - by Stephen Kellett

  Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

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• Ruby on Rails user login form in main layout

  - by Jimmy

  Hey guys I have a simple ror application for some demo stuff. I am running into a problem with trying to move my login form from the users controller and just have it displayed in the main navigation so that a user can easily log in from anywhere. The problem is the form doesn't generate the correct action for the html form. Ruby code: <% form_for(url_for(:action => 'login'), :method => 'post') do |f| %> <li><%= f.text_field("username") %></li> <li><%= f.password_field("password") %></li> <li><%= submit_tag("Login")%></li> <% end %> The problem is depending on the controller I am currently in this generates HTML actions like <form action="/home" method="post">...</form> when it should be generating HTML like so <form action="/login" method="post">...</form> I know I could simply do an HTML form here but I want to keep things as easy to maintain as possible. Any help?

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• Access denied from another thread

  - by Lobuno

  Hello! In a program I span a thread ("the working thread"). Hera I copy some files write some data to a database and eventually, delete some other files or directories. Everything works fine. The problem is now, that I decided to move the deleting operation to some other thread. So the working thread now copies the files or directories, writes to the database, and , if there is a need to delete some other files this thread spans another thread and that second thread deleted the needed files or directories. The problem is that,the deletion used to work 100% when done in the working thread, now when the same is done in the secondary thread, I sometimes get an "Access denied" error and the files cannot be deleted. And no, the working thread is definitely NOT acceding the files and directories to delete at this moment. Sometimes (but not always) the main thread is impersonating some user, so if needed , the deleting thread is also running under impersonation just to grant the needed permissions to delete the files, so that should not be the problem. Anybody has a clue why this could be happening?

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• Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

  - by Dite

  A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

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• FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

  - by alex

  Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

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• asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

  - by David Liddle

  I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

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• How do I send data between two computers over the internet

  - by Johan

  I have been struggling with this for the entire day now, I hope somebody can help me with this. My problem is fairly simple: I wish to transfer data (mostly simple commands) from one PC to another over the internet. I have been able to achieve this using sockets in Java when both computers are connected to my home router. I then connected both computers to the internet using two different mobile phones and attempted to transmit the data again. I used the mobile phones as this provides a direct route to the internet and if I use my router I have to set up port forwarding, at least, that is how I understand it. I think the problem lies in the method that I set up the client socket. I used: Socket kkSocket = new Socket(ipAddress, 3333); where ipAddress is the IP address of the computer running the server. I got the IP address by right-clicking on the connection, status, support. Is that the correct IP address to use or where can I obtain the address of the server? Also, is it possible to get a fixed name for my computer that I can use instead of entering the IP address, as this changes every time I connect to the internet using my mobile phone? Alternatively, are there better methods to solving my problem such as using http, and if so, where can I find more information about this? Thanks!

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• Heroku: Postgres type operator error after migrating DB from MySQL

  - by sevennineteen

  This is a follow-up to a question I'd asked earlier which phrased this as more of a programming problem than a database problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2935985/postgres-error-with-sinatra-haml-datamapper-on-heroku I believe the problem has been isolated to the storage of the ID column in Heroku's Postgres database after running db:push. In short, my app runs properly on my original MySQL database, but throws Postgres errors on Heroku when executing any query on the ID column, which seems to have been stored in Postgres as TEXT even though it is stored as INT in MySQL. My question is why the ID column is being created as INT in Postgres on the data transfer to Heroku, and whether there's any way for me to prevent this. Here's the output from a heroku console session which demonstrates the issue: Ruby console for myapp.heroku.com >> Post.first.title => "Welcome to First!" >> Post.first.title.class => String >> Post.first.id => 1 >> Post.first.id.class => Fixnum >> Post[1] PostgresError: ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. Query: SELECT "id", "name", "email", "url", "title", "created_at" FROM "posts" WHERE ("id" = 1) ORDER BY "id" LIMIT 1 Thanks!

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• Adding Categories to my Articles in my Rails app (Small Help)

  - by user214038

  I'm currently building a semi-small ruby app for a project. The problem I'm currently facing is the following: I want to be Able to fit the Article into the Categories. I've already accomplish this by having two models. An article model with a foreign key of category_id and my Category model with the name of the category. With a has_one and belogs_to relationship. (We're assuming you can only fit an article into one category). Here's the piece of code. This is the new method, where i create a new article and load up all the categories. def new @article = Article.new @categories = Category.find(:all) end The problem comes when i try to get the category from a combo box in order to insert it along with the article. This is the combo box code : f.select(:category_id,@categories) And this is the create method: def create @category = Category.find(params[:id]) @article = @category.articles.new(params[:article]) if @article.save flash[:notice] = "Article Submitted Sucessfully" redirect_to user_path else render :action = 'new' end end I believe that the problem i have is in this line when i try to load up the selected category "@category = Category.find(params[:id])" because whenever i hardcode the this line into @category = Category.find(1) It Works perfectly

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• Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

  - by doublep

  On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

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• Cannot pass null to server using jQuery AJAX. Value received at the server is the string "null".

  - by Tom

  I am converting a javascript/php/ajax application to use jQuery to ensure compatibility with browsers other than Firefox. I am having trouble passing true, false, and null values using jQuery's ajax function. Javascript code: $.ajax ( { url : <server_url>, dataType: 'json', type : 'POST', success : receiveAjaxMessage, data: { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } } ); PHP code: var_dump($_POST); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> string(4) "true" ["valueFalse"]=> string(5) "false" ["valueNull"]=> string(4) "null" } The problem is that the null, true, and false values are being converted to strings. The Javascript AJAX code currently in use passes null, true, and false correctly but only works in Firefox. Does anyone know how to solve this problem using jQuery? Here is some working code (not using jQuery) to compare with the code not-working code given above. Javascript Code: ajaxPort.send ( <server_url>, { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } ); PHP code: var_dump(json_decode(file_get_contents('php://input'), true)); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> bool(true) ["valueFalse"]=> bool(false) ["valueNull"]=> NULL } Note that the null, true, and false values are correctly received. Note also that in the second method the $_POST array is not used in the PHP code. I think this is the key to the problem, but I cannot find a way to replicate this behavior using jQuery.

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• C# to unmanaged dll data structures interop

  - by Shane Powell

  I have a unmanaged DLL that exposes a function that takes a pointer to a data structure. I have C# code that creates the data structure and calls the dll function without any problem. At the point of the function call to the dll the pointer is correct. My problem is that the DLL keeps the pointer to the structure and uses the data structure pointer at a later point in time. When the DLL comes to use the pointer it has become invalid (I assume the .net runtime has moved the memory somewhere else). What are the possible solutions to this problem? The possible solutions I can think of are: Fix the memory location of the data structure somehow? I don't know how you would do this in C# or even if you can. Allocate memory manually so that I have control over it e.g. using Marshal.AllocHGlobal Change the DLL function contract to copy the structure data (this is what I'm currently doing as a short term change, but I don't want to change the dll at all if I can help it as it's not my code to begin with). Are there any other better solutions?

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