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  • 1. Get the Current Document Library 2. Create a Folder "MetaFolder" if it's not already present

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... Thanks public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • Syncing magento database froms development to production

    - by ringerce
    I use git for version control. I have a development, staging and production environment. When I finish in development I push to staging for review by the client. When approved, I push changes from staging to production. That works fine as long as there is no database changes. What happens if I install modules via Magento connect on local development and it makes database modifications. How would I push those changes up to the production server since the production server is always changing? Edit: I wrote two shell scripts. One that pulls the production database down to my development server, replaces base url with develpment url and updates my development db accordingly. It also leaves the production sql dump behind to be added to my git repo. I'm not really sure if it's beneficial to keep the raw dumps in source control but I'm going to try it out. The second scripts moves the development database up to staging and essentially performs the same operations as the first. Now when it comes time to move to production I pull the updated production repo into the production server and allow magento to do it's thing. I also started using SQLYog recently and it has a database comparison wizard which will give me the differences in my development and production databases and allow me to merge the changes in selectively. It always creates a migration script that I added to source control as well. If anything goes wrong I can run the comparison to see if anything was missed. Does this sounds like a decent workflow to you guys?

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  • Anyone know exactly which JMS messages will be redelivered in CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE mode if the client

    - by user360612
    The spec says "Acknowledging a consumed message automatically acknowledges the receipt of all messages that have been delivered by its session" - but what I need to know is what it means by 'delivered'. For example, if I call consumer.receive() 6 times, and then call .acknowledge on the 3rd message - is it (a) just the first 3 messages that are ack'd, or (b) all 6? I'm really hoping it's option a, i.e. messages after the one you called acknowledge on WILL be redelivered, otherwise it's hard to see how you could prevent message lost in the event of my receiver process crashing before I've had a chance to persist and acknowledge the messages. But the spec is worded such that it's not clear. I get the impression the authors of the JMS spec considered broker failure, but didn't spend too long thinking about how to protect against client failure :o( Anyway, I've been able to test with SonicMQ and found that it implements (a), i.e. messages 'received' later than the message you call .ack on DO get redelivered in the event of a crash, but I'd love to know how other people read the standard, and if anyone knows how any other providers have implemented CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE? (i.e. what the 'de facto' standard is) Thanks Ben

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  • How to automatically split git commits to separate changes to a single file

    - by Hercynium
    I'm just plain stuck as to how to accomplish this, or if it's even possible. Even it it can be done, I wonder if it could be setting us up for a messed-up, unmanageable repository. I have set up two branches of the code-base. One is "master" and the other is "prod". The HEAD of prod is always the latest code in production, and master is the main development branch. Here's the problem, though: We're converting from CVS here at $work and most of the developers are still getting used to git. Their CVS workflow involved tagging versions of individual files for production, then updating the servers using the tag. Unfortunately, this has let to sloppy practices like committing unrelated changes together and then tagging the files after-the-fact... and the devs want to know how they can do the following: In their local repos, they hack and commit to their hearts' delight, then at the end of the day, be able to run a command that takes a list of files whose commits over the day get merged with their local prod - and only those files - even if those commits combine changes to other files. I know how to split commits with git rebase --interactive, but I have no clue how I would automate splitting commits at all, never mind the way I want to. I do realize the simplest thing would be to just tell them to switch the their prod branches, checkout the files from their master branches into the working tree then commit to prod. My problem with that is losing the history of their commits over the day.

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  • django-cms lighttpd redirect domain to url

    - by Robert
    Hello, I am using djano-cms for my site, but instead of language alias /en/ /de/ I need to use another domain. I would like to avoid running multiple django instances, and instead I would like to use lighttpd redirects if possible. I would like requests coming to domain2.com getting data from domain.com/en . The best would be if the user entering: domain2.com/offer got transparently data from domain.com/en/offer Tried many solutions with url.redirect, url.rewrite but none seems to work as desired. Also tried with: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/261904/matching-domains-with-regex-for-lighttpd-mod-evhost-www-domain-com-domain-com but that didn't work. Please help. This is my lighttpd configuration. $HTTP["host"] == "^domain2\.com" { url.redirect = ("^/(.*)" => "http://domain.com/en/$1") } $HTTP["host"] =~ "^domain\.com" { server.document-root = "/var/www/django/projects/domain/" accesslog.filename = "/var/log/lighttpd/domain.log-access.log" server.errorlog = "/var/log/lighttpd/www.domain-error.log" fastcgi.server = ( "/domain-service.fcgi" => ( "main" => ( "socket" => "/tmp/django-domain.sock", "check-local" => "disable", ) ), ) alias.url = ( "/media/" => "/var/www/django/projects/domain/media/", ) url.rewrite-once = ( "^(/site_media.*)$" => "$1", "^(/media.*)$" => "$1", "^/favicon\.ico$" => "/media/favicon.ico", "^(/.*)$" => "/domain-service.fcgi$1", } Thanks

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  • regenerating url in cf9/Coldbox

    - by faheem7860
    Hi I am wondering if there is a way to regenerate the URL when any page is loaded in coldbox/CF9 when using event.buildLink ? Currently I get http://cawksd05.codandev.local:8080/entries/editor when using event.buildlink. But the correct url should have /index.cfm added to it as shown below: /index.cfm/entries/editor Is there a way to set this once and where does this get set as I am confused where to set this for all my pages so that /index.cfm gets added the the url prefix when I do an event.Buildlink. Thanks Faheem // General Properties setUniqueURLS(false); setAutoReload(false); // Base URL if( len(getSetting('AppMapping') ) lte 1){ setBaseURL("http://#cgi.HTTP_HOST#/index.cfm"); } else{ setBaseURL("http://#cgi.HTTP_HOST#/#getSetting('AppMapping')#/index.cfm"); } // Your Application Routes formatConstraints = {format="(xml|json)"}; addRoute(pattern="/api/:format/tasks/completed",handler="tasksAPI",action="list",constraints=formatConstraints,completed=true); addRoute(pattern="/api/:format/tasks",handler="tasksAPI",action="list",constraints=formatConstraints); addRoute(pattern="/api/:format?",handler="tasksAPI",action="invalid"); addRoute(pattern="/tasks/list/:status?",handler="tasks",action="index"); addRoute(pattern=":handler/:action?");

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  • What algorithms compute directions from point A to point B on a map?

    - by A. Rex
    How do map providers (such as Google or Yahoo! Maps) suggest directions? I mean, they probably have real-world data in some form, certainly including distances but also perhaps things like driving speeds, presence of sidewalks, train schedules, etc. But suppose the data were in a simpler format, say a very large directed graph with edge weights reflecting distances. I want to be able to quickly compute directions from one arbitrary point to another. Sometimes these points will be close together (within one city) while sometimes they will be far apart (cross-country). Graph algorithms like Dijkstra's algorithm will not work because the graph is enormous. Luckily, heuristic algorithms like A* will probably work. However, our data is very structured, and perhaps some kind of tiered approach might work? (For example, store precomputed directions between certain "key" points far apart, as well as some local directions. Then directions for two far-away points will involve local directions to a key points, global directions to another key point, and then local directions again.) What algorithms are actually used in practice? PS. This question was motivated by finding quirks in online mapping directions. Contrary to the triangle inequality, sometimes Google Maps thinks that X-Z takes longer and is farther than using an intermediate point as in X-Y-Z. But maybe their walking directions optimize for another parameter, too? PPS. Here's another violation of the triangle inequality that suggests (to me) that they use some kind of tiered approach: X-Z versus X-Y-Z. The former seems to use prominent Boulevard de Sebastopol even though it's slightly out of the way. (Edit: this example doesn't work anymore, but did at the time of the original post. The one above still works as of early November 2009.)

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  • Rails 4, not saving @user.save when registering new user

    - by Yuichi
    When I try to register an user, it does not give me any error but just cannot save the user. I don't have attr_accessible. I'm not sure what I am missing. Please help me. user.rb class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_secure_password validates :email, presence: true, uniqueness: true, format: { with: /\A([^@\s]+)@((?:[-a-z0-9]+\.)+[a-z]{2,})\Z/i } validates :password, presence: true, length: {minimum: 6} validates :nickname, presence: true, uniqueness: true end users_controller.rb class UsersController < ApplicationController def new @user = User.new end def create @user = User.new(user_params) # Not saving @user ... if @user.save flash[:success] = "Successfully registered" redirect_to videos_path else flash[:error] = "Cannot create an user, check the input and try again" render :new end end private def user_params params.require(:user).permit(:email, :password, :nickname) end end Log: Processing by UsersController#create as HTML Parameters: {"utf8"=>"?", "authenticity_token"=>"x5OqMgarqMFj17dVSuA8tVueg1dncS3YtkCfMzMpOUE=", "user"=>{"email"=>"[email protected]", "password"=>"[FILTERED]", "nickname"=>"example"}, "commit"=>"Register"} (0.1ms) begin transaction User Exists (0.2ms) SELECT 1 AS one FROM "users" WHERE "users"."email" = '[email protected]' LIMIT 1 User Exists (0.1ms) SELECT 1 AS one FROM "users" WHERE "users"."nickname" = 'example' LIMIT 1 (0.1ms) rollback transaction

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  • Why does this test fail?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

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  • Get a button in itemscontrol and add eventhandler to its click event

    - by rockdale
    I have a custom control shows a customer info with an itemscontrol shows this customer's invoices. within the itemscontrol, I have button, in my code behind I want to wire the button's click event to my host window, but do now know how. //public event RoutedEventHandler ViewDetailClick; public static readonly RoutedEvent ButtonViewClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent( "ButtonViewClick", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(custitem)); public event RoutedEventHandler ButtonViewClick { add { AddHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value); } remove {RemoveHandler(ButtonViewClickEvent, value);} } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); this.lstInv = GetTemplateChild("lstInv") as ItemsControl; lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged += new EventHandler(ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged); } private void ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.Status == System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.GeneratorStatus.ContainersGenerated) { lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.StatusChanged -= ItemContainerGenerator_StatusChanged; for (int i = 0; i < this.lstInv.Items.Count; i++) { ContentPresenter c = lstInv.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(lstInv.Items[i]) as ContentPresenter; DataTemplate dt = c.ContentTemplate; Grid grd = dt.LoadContent() as Grid; Button btnView = grd.FindName("btnView") as Button; if (btnView != null) { btnView.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(ButtonView_Click); //btnView.Click+= delegate(object senderObj, RoutedEventArgs eArg) //{ // if (this.ViewDetailClick != null) // { // this.ViewDetailClick(this, eArg); // } //}; } } private void ButtonView_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("clicked"); //e.RoutedEvent = ButtonViewClickEvent; //e.Source = sender; //RaiseEvent(e); } I succeed getting the btnView, then attach the click event, but the click event never get fired. Thanks in advance -rockdale

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • What design pattern shall I use in this question?

    - by iyad al aqel
    To be frank, this is a homework question, so I'll tell you my opinion. Can you let me know my mistakes rather than giving me the solution? This is the question : Assume a restaurant that only offers the following two types of meals: (a) a full meal and (b)an economic meal. The full meal consists of the following food items and is served in the following order: 1. Appetizer 2. Drink 3. Main dish 4. Dessert Meanwhile the economic meal consists of the following food items and is served in the following order: 1. Drink 2. Main dish Identify the most appropriate design pattern that can be used to allow a customer to only order using one of the two types of meals provided and that the meal components must be served in the given order. I'm confused between the Factory and the Iterator and using them both together. Using the factory Pattern we can create the two meals full and economic and provide the user with with a base object class that will decide upon. But how can we enforce the ordering of the elements, I thought of using the iterator along that will iterate through the the composite of the two created factories sort of speak. What do you think?

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  • Is this a safe/valid hash method implementation?

    - by Sean
    I have a set of classes to represent some objects loaded from a database. There are a couple variations of these objects, so I have a common base class and two subclasses to represent the differences. One of the key fields they have in common is an id field. Unfortunately, the id of an object is not unique across all variations, but within a single variation. What I mean is, a single object of type A could have an id between, say, 0 and 1,000,000. An object of type B could have an id between, 25,000 and 1,025,000. This means there's some overlap of id numbers. The objects are just variations of the same kind of thing, though, so I want to think of them as such in my code. (They were assigned ids from different sets for legacy reasons.) So I have classes like this: @class BaseClass @class TypeAClass : BaseClass @class TypeBClass : BaseClass BaseClass has a method (NSNumber *)objectId. However instances of TypeA and TypeB could have overlapping ids as discussed above, so when it comes to equality and putting these into sets, I cannot just use the id alone to check it. The unique key of these instances is, essentially, (class + objectId). So I figured that I could do this by making the following hash function on the BaseClass: -(NSUInteger)hash { return (NSUInteger)[self class] ^ [self.objectId hash]; } I also implemented isEqual like so: - (BOOL)isEqual:(id)object { return (self == object) || ([object class] == [self class] && [self.objectId isEqual:[object objectId]]); } This seems to be working, but I guess I'm just asking here to make sure I'm not overlooking something - especially with the generation of the hash by using the class pointer in that way. Is this safe or is there a better way to do this?

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  • How can I assign a name to a task in TPL

    - by mehrandvd
    I'm going to use lots of tasks running on my application. Each bunch of tasks is running for some reason. I would like to name these tasks so when I watch the Parallel Tasks window, I could recognize them easily. With another point of view, consider I'm using tasks at the framework level to populate a list. A developer that use my framework is also using tasks for her job. If she looks at the Parallel Tasks Window she will find some tasks having no idea about. I want to name tasks so she can distinguish the framework tasks from her tasks. It would be very convenient if there was such API: var task = new Task(action, "Growth calculation task") or maybe: var task = Task.Factory.StartNew(action, "Populating the datagrid") or even while working with Parallel.ForEach Parallel.ForEach(list, action, "Salary Calculation Task" Is it possible to name a task? Is it possible to give ???Parallel.ForEach a naming structure (maybe using a lambda) so it creates tasks with that naming? Is there such API somewhere that I'm missing? I've also tried to use an inherited task to override it's ToString(). But unfortunately the Parallel Tasks window doesn't use ToString()! class NamedTask : Task { private string TaskName { get; set; } public NamedTask(Action action, string taskName):base(action) { TaskName = taskName; } public override string ToString() { return TaskName; } }

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  • How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

    - by bpapa
    I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • jQuery $.getJSON - How do I parse a flickr.photos.search REST API call?

    - by Chad
    Trying to adapt the $.getJSON Flickr example: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any&format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ $.each(data.items, function(i,item){ $("<img/>").attr("src", item.media.m).appendTo("#images"); if ( i == 3 ) return false; }); }); to read from the flickr.photos.search REST API method, but the JSON response is different for this call. Click here to see the JSON response. This is what I've done so far: var url = "http://api.flickr.com/services/rest/?method=flickr.photos.search&api_key=9322c53dde3b36bda33f79c16bb99104&tags=yokota+air+base&safe_search=1&per_page=20"; var src; $.getJSON(url + "&format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ $.each(data.photos, function(i,item){ src = "http://farm"+ item.photo.farm +".static.flickr.com/"+ item.photo.server +"/"+ item.photo.id +"_"+ item.photo.secret +"_m.jpg"; $("<img/>").attr("src", src).appendTo("#images"); if ( i == 3 ) return false; }); }); I guess I'm not building the image src correctly. Couldn't find any documentation on how to build the image src, based on what the JSON response is. How do you parse a flickr.photos.search REST API call?

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  • translate a PHP $string using google translator API

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    hey there! been google'ing for a while how is the best way to translate with google translator in PHP, found very different ways converting URLS, or using Js but i want to do it only with php (or with a very simple solution JS/JQUery) example: //hopefully with $from_lan and $to_lan being like 'en','de', .. or similar function translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do return $translated_text; } can you give me a clue? or maybe you already have this function.. my intention it's to use it only for the languages i have not already defined (or keys i haven't defined), that's why i wan it so simple, will be only temporal.. EDIT thanks for your replies we are now trying this soulutions: function auto_translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do $json = json_decode(file_get_contents('https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/language/translate?v=1.0&q=' . urlencode($text) . '&langpair=' . $from_lan . '|' . $to_lan)); $translated_text = $json->responseData->translatedText; return $translated_text; } (there was a extra 'g' on variables for lang... anyway) it returns: works now :) i don't really understand much the function, so any idea why is not acepting the object? (now i do) OR: unction auto_translate($from_lan, $to_lan, $text){ // do // $json = json_decode(file_get_contents('https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/language/translate?v=1.0&q=' . urlencode($text) . '&langpair=' . $from_lan . '|' . $to_lan)); // $translated_text = $json['responseData']['translatedText']; error_reporting(1); require_once('GTranslate.php'); try{ $gt = new Gtranslate(); $translated_text = $gt-english_to_german($text); } catch (GTranslateException $ge) { $translated_text= $ge->getMessage(); } return $translated_text; } And this one looks great but it doesn't even gives me an error, the page won't load (error_report(1) :S) thanks in advance!

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  • Ruby -- looking for some sort of "Regexp unescape" method

    - by RubyNoobie
    I have a bunch of strings that appear to have been double-escaped -- eg, I have "\\014\"\\000\"\\016smoothing\"\\011mean\"\\022color\"\\011zero@\\016" but I want "\014"\000"\016smoothing"\011mean"\022color"\011zero@\016" Is there a method I can use to unescape them? I imagine that I could make a regex to remove 1 backslash from every consecutive n backslashes, but I don't have a lot of regex experience and it seems there ought to be a "more elegant" way to do it. For example, when I puts MyString it displays the output I'd like, but I don't know how I might capture that into a variable. Thanks! Edited to add context: I have this class that is being used to marshal / restore some stuff, but when I restore some old strings it spits out a type error which I've determined is because they weren't -- for some inexplicable reason -- stored as base64. They instead appear to be 'double-escaped', when I need them to be 'single-escaped' to get restored. require 'base64' class MarshaledStuff < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :marshaled_obj def contents obj = self.marshaled_obj return Marshal.restore(Base64.decode64(obj)) end def contents=(newcontents) self.marshaled_obj = Base64.encode64(Marshal.dump(newcontents)) end end

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  • Can't combine "LINQ Join" with other tables

    - by FullmetalBoy
    The main problem is that I recieve the following message: "base {System.SystemException} = {"Unable to create a constant value of type 'BokButik1.Models.Book-Author'. Only primitive types ('such as Int32, String, and Guid') are supported in this context."}" based on this LinQ code: IBookRepository myIBookRepository = new BookRepository(); var allBooks = myIBookRepository.HamtaAllaBocker(); IBok_ForfattareRepository myIBok_ForfattareRepository = new Bok_ForfattareRepository(); var Book-Authors = myIBok_ForfattareRepository.HamtaAllaBok_ForfattareNummer(); var q = from booknn in allBooks join Book-Authornn in Book-Authors on booknn.BookID equals Book-Authornn.BookID select new { booknn.title, Book-AuthorID }; How shall I solve this problem to get a class instance that contain with property title and Book-AuthorID? // Fullmetalboy I also have tried making some dummy by using "allbooks" relation with Code Samples from the address http://www.hookedonlinq.com/JoinOperator.ashx. Unfortunately, still same problem. I also have taken account to Int32 due to entity framework http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb896317.aspx. Unfortunatley, still same problem. Using database with 3 tables and one of them is a many to many relationship. This database is used in relation with entity framework Book-Author Book-Author (int) BookID (int) Forfattare (int) Book BookID (int) title (string) etc etc etc

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  • How to convert many thousands of lines of VBScript to C#?

    - by Ross Patterson
    I have a collection of about 10,000 small VBScript programs (50-100 lines each) and a small collection of larger ones, and I'm looking for a way to convert them to C# without resorting to by-hand transliteration. The programs are automated test cases for a web application, written for HP/Mercury's QuickTest Pro, and I'm trying to turn them into test cases for Selenium. Luckily, the tests appear to be well-written, using a library of building blocks and idioms (the larger programs), so the test cases actually resemble a domain-specific language more than they do VBScript, and the QTP-ness is well-buried inside the libraries. Ideally, what I'm searching for is a tool that can do the syntactic transformation from VBScript to C# for both the dsl-ish test cases and also the more complicated building-block libraries. That would leave me with a manual cleanup of the libraries, and probably very little work on the test cases. If I could find a VBScript-to-VB.NET translator, I'd take that also, as I suspect I could compile the VB.NET and then de-compile to C# using .NET Relector or something similar. Plan B is to write a translator of my own for the test cases, since they're in a very straight-line style, but it wouldn't help with the libraries. Any suyggestions? I haven't written a compiler in at least 15 years, and while I haven't forgotten how, I'm not looking forward to it - least of all for VBScript!

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  • Why is Routes.rb not loading the IPs from cache?

    - by Christian Fazzini
    I am testing this in local. My ip is 127.0.0.1. The ip_permissions table, is empty. When I browse the site, everything works as expected. Now, I want to simulate browsing the site with a banned IP. So I add the IP into the ip_permissions table via: IpPermission.create!(:ip => '127.0.0.1', :note => 'foobar', :category => 'blacklist') In Rails console, I clear the cache via; Rails.cache.clear. I browse the site. I don't get sent to pages#blacklist. If I restart the server. And browse the site, then I get sent to pages#blacklist. Why do I need to restart the server every time the ip_permissions table is updated? Shouldn't it fetch it based on cache? Routes look like: class BlacklistConstraint def initialize @blacklist = IpPermission.blacklist end def matches?(request) @blacklist.map { |b| b.ip }.include? request.remote_ip end end Foobar::Application.routes.draw do match '/(*path)' => 'pages#blacklist', :constraints => BlacklistConstraint.new .... end My model looks like: class IpPermission < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :ip, :note, :category validates_uniqueness_of :ip, :scope => [:category] validates :category, :inclusion => { :in => ['whitelist', 'blacklist'] } def self.whitelist Rails.cache.fetch('whitelist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'whitelist').all } end def self.blacklist Rails.cache.fetch('blacklist', :expires_in => 1.month) { self.where(:category => 'blacklist').all } end end

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  • .Net lambda expression-- where did this parameter come from?

    - by larryq
    I'm a lambda newbie, so if I'm missing vital information in my description please tell me. I'll keep the example as simple as possible. I'm going over someone else's code and they have one class inheriting from another. Here's the derived class first, along with the lambda expression I'm having trouble understanding: class SampleViewModel : ViewModelBase { private ICustomerStorage storage = ModelFactory<ICustomerStorage>.Create(); public ICustomer CurrentCustomer { get { return (ICustomer)GetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty); } set { SetValue(CurrentCustomerProperty, value); } } private int quantitySaved; public int QuantitySaved { get { return quantitySaved; } set { if (quantitySaved != value) { quantitySaved = value; NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved); //where does 'p' come from? } } } public static readonly DependencyProperty CurrentCustomerProperty; static SampleViewModel() { CurrentCustomerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentCustomer", typeof(ICustomer), typeof(SampleViewModel), new UIPropertyMetadata(ModelFactory<ICustomer>.Create())); } //more method definitions follow.. Note the call to NotifyPropertyChanged(p => QuantitySaved) bit above. I don't understand where the "p" is coming from. Here's the base class: public abstract class ViewModelBase : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged, IXtremeMvvmViewModel { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected virtual void NotifyPropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<ViewModelBase, T>> property) { MvvmHelper.NotifyPropertyChanged(property, PropertyChanged); } } There's a lot in there that's not germane to the question I'm sure, but I wanted to err on the side of inclusiveness. The problem is, I don't understand where the 'p' parameter is coming from, and how the compiler knows to (evidently?) fill in a type value of ViewModelBase from thin air? For fun I changed the code from 'p' to 'this', since SampleViewModel inherits from ViewModelBase, but I was met with a series of compiler errors, the first one of which statedInvalid expression term '=>' This confused me a bit since I thought that would work. Can anyone explain what's happening here?

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  • Can I clone an IQueryable in linq? For UNION purposes?

    - by user169867
    I have a table of WorkOrders. The table has a PrimaryWorker & PrimaryPay field. It also has a SecondaryWorker & SecondaryPay field (which can be null). I wish to run 2 very similar queries & union them so that it will return a Worker Field & Pay field. So if a single WorkOrder record had both the PrimaryWorker and SecondaryWorker field populated I would get 2 records back. The "where clause" part of these 2 queries is very similar and long to construct. Here's a dummy example var q = ctx.WorkOrder.Where(w => w.WorkDate >= StartDt && w.WorkDate <= EndDt); if(showApprovedOnly) { q = q.Where(w => w.IsApproved); } //...more filters applied Now I also have a search flag called "hideZeroPay". If that's true I don't want to include the record if the worker was payed $0. But obviously for 1 query I need to compare the PrimaryPay field and in the other I need to compare the SecondaryPay field. So I'm wondering how to do this. Can I clone my base query "q" and make a primary & secondary worker query out of it and then union those 2 queries together? I'd greatly appreciate an example of how to correctly handle this. Thanks very much for any help.

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  • NHibernate unintential lazy property loading

    - by chiccodoro
    I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_ NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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