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  • SpeechSynthesizer Exception - Please Help

    - by Chris
    Hi. I have the following code: private List<VoiceInfo> GetInstalledVoices(SpeechSynthesizer synthesizer) { CultureInfo currentCulture = CultureInfo.CurrentCulture; var listOfVoiceInfo = from voice in synthesizer.GetInstalledVoices(currentCulture) select voice.VoiceInfo; return listOfVoiceInfo.ToList<VoiceInfo>(); } I then call the code from the following code snippet: var synthesizer = new SpeechSynthesizer(); var installedVoices = GetInstalledVoices(synthesizer); VoiceInfo voice = null; if (installedVoices != null && installedVoices.Count > 0) { voice = installedVoices.FirstOrDefault(); } if (voice != null) { synthesizer.SelectVoice(voice.Name); } The line of code that selects the voice throws the following exception: "Cannot set voice. No matching voice is installed or the voice was disabled." This is being done from within an ASP.NET web application - running on Windows Server 2003 R2. When I run this from within Visual Studio 2008 - everything works fine. I created a simple Console app to perform the same action - then ran it from the Windows Server 2003 machine - and it worked fine. I even modified the code in the Console app to loop through each of the installed voices and select the voice. No problems. However, when doing the same from within the web application, I get the same error. I am beating my head against a wall on this one. ANY help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Chris

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  • Difficulties using custom control - RichTextEditor

    - by Chris
    I am working on a school project that uses ASP.NET. I found this TextEditor control ( http://blogs.msdn.com/kirti/archive/2007/11/10/rich-text-editor-is-here.aspx ) that I am trying to include but it isn't working. The error I am getting is: Error Rendering Control - TextEditor. An unhandled exception has occurred. Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index. I see this error when I go Design part of the editor. I just don't understand this error at all. Also I am a lil bit confused as there is no parameter called index. :( What I have done is reference the binary in my project and then on the page I am trying to use it have registered its namespace and assembly with this line: <%@ Register Assembly="RichTextEditor" Namespace="AjaxControls" TagPrefix="rtt" %> I then go ahead and try to add the control to the page with this line of code: <rtt:richtexteditor ID="TextEditor" Theme="Blue" runat="server" /> Any help would be much appreciated. I haven't done anything like add a custom control before.

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  • Database design for credit based purchases

    - by FreshCode
    I need an elegant way to implement credit-based purchases for an online store with a small variety of products which can be purchased using virtual credit or real currency. Alternatively, products could only be priced in credits. Previous work I have implemented credit-based purchasing before using different product types (eg. Credit, Voucher or Music) with post-order processing to assign purchased credit to users in the form of real currency, which could subsequently be used to discount future orders' charge totals. This worked fairly well as a makeshift solution, but did not succeed in disconnecting the virtual currency from the real currency, which is what I'd like to do, since spending credits is psychologically easier for customers than spending real currency. Design I need guidance on designing the database correctly with support for the simultaneous bulk purchase of credits at a discount along with real currency products. Alternatively, should all products be priced in credits and only credit have a real currency value? Existing Database Design Partial Products table: ProductId Title Type UnitPrice SalePrice Partial Orders table: OrderId UserId (related to Users table, not shown) Status Value Total Partial OrderItems table (similar to CartItems table): OrderItemId OrderId (related to Orders table) ProductId (related to Products table) Quantity UnitPrice SalePrice Prospective UserCredits table: CreditId UserId (related to Users table, not shown) Value (+/- value. Summed over time to determine saldo.) Date I'm using ASP.NET MVC and LINQ-to-SQL on a SQL Server database.

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  • Non RBAC User Roles and Permissions System: checking the user's City

    - by micha12
    We are currently designing a User Roles and Permissions System in our web application (ASP.NET), and it seems that we have several cases that do no fit within the classical Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). I will post several questions, each devoted to a particular case, this being the first post. We have the following case: not to allow a user view a certain page if the user lives in a particular city. This is a simple case that is coded in the following way: if (User.City == “Moscow”) // Allow the user to view the page. else // Do not allow the user to view this page. Though this case is very simple and straightforward, it has nothing to do with the RBAC. On StackOverflow, someone called this an Attribute-based Access Control. Under the classical RBAC, it seems that this case should be designed like this: introduce a permission “City where the person lives”, this permission will have a property City. Then create a role, add a permission of type “City = Moscow” to it and the assign the role to the user. Looks extremely cumbersome. The question is whether it is acceptable to introduce such non-RBAC approaches to our permissions system – does that break the design or not? This might seem a primitive question, but we found that most applications use pure RBAC, and we started to think that we might be doing something wrong. Thank you.

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  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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  • How best to embed multiple Flash Player instances using swfobject via a usercontrol?

    - by panamack
    I have a ListView on a Page within a MasterPage and some very ugly ugly autogenerated IDs. Such as..."ctl00_workbenchPlaceHolder_ListView1_ctrl1_LibItem2One" Using swfobject.embedSWF(...) requires me to hand over the id of a div on my page that can be replaced with object/embed markup depending on the browser context. My aim is to show the user a collection of video's they have uploaded to their website so they can review them and change some related data if desired. Hence the ListView which is populated via a SQLDataSource which currently provides a number of URLs pointing to .flv files. But it ain't gonna work if I put a <div id="replaceme"></div>' in my user control because I may then have more than one id="replaceme" and poor swfobject won't like it. So my evil solution is to put an <asp:Literal> in my usercontrol and build the script, function name and div tag id as a string. ApplyVideoConfiguration is called if the library object retreived from the database is a video and switches to the relevant View of a MultiView control. protected void ApplyVideoConfiguration() { MultiViewLibItem.ActiveViewIndex = 3; string functionName = "MakeFlashFor_" + this.ClientID; string divId = "fp" + this.ClientID; VideoScriptLiteral.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + "Sys.Application.add_load(" + functionName + ");" + "function " + functionName + "(){" + "swfobject.embedSWF('PanamaVideoThumbnail.swf', '" + divId + "', '140', '127', '10');" + "};" + "</script>" + "<div id=\"" + divId + "\" ></div>" ; } I was wondering, just how bad a solution is this, I'm really completely inexperienced when it comes to best practices but my instincts are telling me this is bad, although it does succeed in the aim of embedding some Flash Player instances. Can anyone help me make it beautiful?

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  • How to stop MVC caching the results of invoking and action method?

    - by Trey Carroll
    I am experiencing a problem with IE caching the results of an action method. Other articles I found were related to security and the [Authorize] attribute. This problem has nothing to do with security. This is a very simple "record a vote, grab the average, return the avg and the number of votes" method. The only slightly interesting thing about it is that it is invoked via Ajax and returns a Json object. I believe that it is the Json object that is getting catched. When I run it from FireFox and watch the XHR traffic with Firebug, everything works perfectly. However, under IE 8 the "throbber" graphic doesn't ever have time to show up and the page elements that display the "new" avg and count that are being injected into the page with jQuery are never different. I need a way to tell MVC to never cache this action method. This article seems to address the problem, but I cannot understand it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1441467/prevent-caching-of-attributes-in-asp-net-mvc-force-attribute-execution-every-tim I need a bit more context for the solution to understand how to extend AuthorizationAttribute. Please address your answer as if you were speaking to someone who lacks a deep understanding of MVC even if that means replying with an article on some basics/prerequisites that are required. Thanks, Trey Carroll

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  • What am I missing in IIS7?

    - by faded19
    Hello All, Ok here is my dilemma, I have been developing on a shared host at discountasp.net (IIS 6)for some time now. All was going well, however now that app is complete we are moving it to its own dedicated server which is now server 2008 and IIS 7. I am currently using asp forms authentication (which again seems to work just fine on IIS6) The issue seems to occur after I click login, it pops the "Signing In" box..an error then arises in the JavaScript of Membership.js "Object Does not Support Membership.js" I verified that the code was making it to: membership.BeginLogin(uid, pwd, rememberme); and was in fact passing the correct variables. Another odd thing I noticed when setting the forms permissions is that when I went to select Users or Roles within the IIS 7 management console it would take forever, and then time out with the following error: A Network related or instance specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not or was not accessible, verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections (provider - named pipes provider: error 40 - could not open a connection to SQL Server.) I am rather weak on the hardware/configure side of the house so I am not really sure what the issue is, it’s almost as if IIS7 cannot see the DB. They both reside on the same server however. If anyone could help point me in the right direction as to how to resolve this I would be eternally grateful! Thanks in advance Bryan

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  • Best practice when using WebMethods and session

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I want to reduce postback in one of my application page and use ajax instead. I used the WebMethod to do so.. I have a static WebMethod that needs to access the session variables and modify. and on the client side, i am calling this method using jQuery. I tried accessing the session as follows: [WebMethod] public static void TestWebMethod() { if (HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"] != null) { log.Debug("Using the existing list"); Product prod = (Product)HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"]; List<Configs> confs = cart.GetConfigs(); foreach (Configs citem in confis) { log.Info(citem.Description); } } log.Info("Inside the method!"); } The values are displayed correctly and seems to work.. but i would like to know if this practice is allowed as the method is a static methods and would like to know how it will behave if multiple people access the application. I would also like to know how developers do these kind of tasks in ASP if this is not the right method. Thanks in advance for your suggestions and ideas, Abdel Olakara

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  • Sending mail issues. very confusing

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi my name is what, my name is who.. ops got carried away Now this might be a serverfault question and a stackoverflow question but I will go with it here because I don't really know the answer. I been sending mail a lot with asp.net before and never had problems like this before. I have setup a mail with this following code var list = new List<string> { "mail", "mail", "mail", "mail" }; var smtp = new SmtpClient("localhost", 25); var plainText = txtPlain.Text; var htmlText = Server.HtmlDecode(FCKeditor1.Value); foreach (var email in list) { var message = new MailMessage() { From = new MailAddress("my server mail"), ReplyTo = new MailAddress("mail") }; var mailMessage = Server.HtmlDecode(FCKeditor1.Value); message.To.Add(email); message.Subject = "Hi Enzorit"; message.Body = mailMessage; message.IsBodyHtml = true; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.GetEncoding("iso-8859-2"); var alternateViewHtml = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(htmlText, null, MediaTypeNames.Text.Html); var alternateViewPlainText = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(plainText, null, MediaTypeNames.Text.Plain); message.AlternateViews.Add(alternateViewHtml); message.AlternateViews.Add(alternateViewPlainText); smtp.Send(message); } now the issue becomes that some email clients get just plain while some get the html. Like on my hotmail on the computer i get the html but on my iphone i get the plain one. Why is that? and like that wasn't enough The mail wont deliver to some mails like any .pl email. Now here is where I am thinking that it might be a reverse DNS setup thing on my windows server 2008 issue + some company mails, it becomes spam, i had same issue with hotmail but that was solved when I added the plain. Anybody have had the problem before? I am very thankful for any answer I get.. thanks

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  • Spring.net is not injecting chained base class properties!

    - by JohnIdol
    I am successfully injecting base class properties with spring.net with just a class that inherits from a base abstract class. Lets say Class MyClass : MyBase, and I am successfully setting a property like this: <object id="myInstantiableClass" type="myAssembly.MyClass myAssenbly" abstract="true"> <property name="MyBaseClassProperty" ref="anotherObjRef"></property> </object> Where MyBaseClassProperty is a property on the base class. Now I have another abstract class between the old base class and the instantiable class, and I am trying to set properties on both the abstract classes. So MyClass : MyNewBaseClass, and MyNewBaseClass : MyBaseClass. I have an additional property on the new base class (MyNewBaseClassProperty) and I am trying to inject it like this: <object id="myInstantiableClass" type="myAssembly.MyClass myAssenbly" abstract="true"> <property name="MyBaseClassProperty" ref="anotherObjRef"></property> <property name="MyNewBaseClassProperty" ref="someOtherObjRef"></property> </object> The property on the old base class is being injected but the one on the new one is not - and I am not getting an error or anything (so I am pretty sure my config is good), that property is just null! Any help appreciated! P.S. I am on asp.net (not MVC) but I don't think it's related.

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • xVal and Regular Expression Match

    - by gmcalab
    I am using xVal to validate my forms in asp.net MVC 1.0 Not sure why my regular expression isn't validating correctly. It validates with the value of "12345" It validates with the value of "12345 " It validates with the value of "12345 -" It validates with the value of "12345 -1" It validates with the value of "12345 -12" ... etc For a zip code I expect one of the two patterns: 12345 or 12345 -1234 Here are the two regex I tried: (\d{5})((( -)(\d{4}))?) (\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4}) Here is my MetaData class for xVal [MetadataType(typeof(TIDServiceMetadata))] public class TIDServiceStep : TIDDetail { public class TIDServiceMetadata { [Required(ErrorMessage = " [Required] ")] [RegularExpression(@"(\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4})", ErrorMessage = " Invalid Zip ")] public string Zip { get; set; } } } Here is my aspx page: <% Html.BeginForm("Edit", "Profile", FormMethod.Post); %> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td> <h6>Zip:</h6> </td> <td> <%= Html.TextBox("Profile.Zip")%> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit"/> </td> </tr> </table> <% Html.EndForm(); %> <% Html.Telerik().ScriptRegistrar() .OnDocumentReady(() => { %> <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<TIDProfileStep>("Profile").SuppressScriptTags() %> <% }); %>

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  • How to get interpolated message in NHibernate.Validator

    - by SztupY
    Hi! I'm trying to integrate NHibernate.Validator with ASP.NET MVC client side validations, and the only problem I found is that I simply can't convert the non-interpolated message to a human-readable one. I thought this would be an easy task, but turned out to be the hardest part of the client-side validation. The main problem is that because it's not server-side, I actually only need the validation attributes that are being used, and I don't actually have an instance or anything else at hand. Here are some excerpts from what I've been already trying: // Get the the default Message Interpolator from the Engine IMessageInterpolator interp = _engine.Interpolator; if (interp == null) { // It is null?? Oh, try to create a new one interp = new NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator(); } // We need an instance of the object that needs to be validated, se we have to create one object instance = Activator.CreateInstance(Metadata.ContainerType); // we enumerate all attributes of the property. For example we have found a PatternAttribute var a = attr as PatternAttribute; // it seems that the default message interpolator doesn't work, unless initialized if (interp is NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator) { (interp as NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator).Initialize(a); } // but even after it is initialized the following will throw a NullReferenceException, although all of the parameters are specified, and they are not null (except for the properties of the instance, which are all null, but this can't be changed) var message = interp.Interpolate(new InterpolationInfo(Metadata.ContainerType, instance, PropertyName, a, interp, a.Message)); I know that the above is a fairly complex code for a seemingly simple question, but I'm still stuck without solution. Is there any way to get the interpolated string out of NHValidator?

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  • Custom Repeater with hiractial Databinding

    - by Dooie
    Im using a Custom NestedRepeater Control for ASP.NET which can be found on code project The source is in c# which i have converted to vb and plugged into my solution, so far so good. The problem, im having is databinding to the repeater, my code behind looks like this... '' get all pages Dim navPages As DataSet = Navigation.getMenuStructure() navPages.Relations.Add(navPages.Tables(0).Columns("ID"), navPages.Tables(0).Columns("ParentID")) NestedRepeaterNavigation.RelationName = RelationName NestedRepeaterNavigation.DataSource = navPages NestedRepeaterNavigation.RowFilterTop = "ParentID is null" NestedRepeaterNavigation.DataBind() Then in the item template of my custom repeater im trying the following... <ItemTemplate> <img src="/pix.gif" height="10" width="<%#(Container.Depth * 10)%>"> <%# (Container.DataItem as DataRow)["DESCRIPTION"]%> <%# (Container.NbChildren != 0 ? "<small><i>(" + Container.NbChildren.ToString() +")</i></small>" "") %><small><i></i></small> </ItemTemplate> The databinding falls over; firstly that 'as DataRow' says it was expecting an ')'. And secondly that '!=' identifier expected. Is this due to the translation from c#, should the databinding be different?

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  • NullReferenceException when initializing NServiceBus within web application Application_Start method

    - by SteveBering
    I am running the 2.0 RTM of NServiceBus and am getting a NullReferenceException when my MessageModule binds the CurrentSessionContext to my NHibernate sessionfactory. From within my Application_Start, I call the following method: public static void WithWeb(IUnityContainer container) { log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); var childContainer = container.CreateChildContainer(); childContainer.RegisterInstance<ISessionFactory>(NHibernateSession.SessionFactory); var bus = NServiceBus.Configure.WithWeb() .UnityBuilder(childContainer) .Log4Net() .XmlSerializer() .MsmqTransport() .IsTransactional(true) .PurgeOnStartup(false) .UnicastBus() .ImpersonateSender(false) .LoadMessageHandlers() .CreateBus(); var activeBus = bus.Start(); container.RegisterInstance(typeof(IBus), activeBus); } When the bus is started, my message module starts with the following: public void HandleBeginMessage() { try { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_sessionFactory.OpenSession()); } catch (Exception e) { _log.Error("Error occurred in HandleBeginMessage of NHibernateMessageModule", e); throw; } } In looking at my log, we are logging the following error when the bind method is called: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at NHibernate.Context.WebSessionContext.GetMap() at NHibernate.Context.MapBasedSessionContext.set_Session(ISession value) at NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(ISession session) Apparently, there is some issue in getting access to the HttpContext. Should this call to configure NServiceBus occur later in the lifecycle than Application_Start? Or is there another workaround that others have used to get handlers working within an Asp.NET Web application? Thanks, Steve

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  • Using URL Routing for Web Forms and StopRoutingHandler for Favicon

    - by RandomBen
    I have a website where I need to add a Favicon.ico. The site is written using ASP.NET 3.5 Web Forms with Routing. The issue is that the Favicon link always returns a page not found error. This is because the Routing does not know where the link for Favicon.ico should go to so it returns the Not Found page. I have tried to add a StopRoutingHandler for the the favicon but none of them seem to work. Below are the ones I have tried so far: routes.Add(new Route("MasterPages/{favicon}.ico", new StopRoutingHandler()));; routes.Add(new Route("{favicon}.ico", new StopRoutingHandler())); routes.Add(new Route("favicon.ico", new StopRoutingHandler())); routes.Add(new Route("favicon.ico/{*pathInfo}", new StopRoutingHandler())); Does anyone know what I should be using? My favicon.ico links I have tried look like this: <link rel="shortcut icon" href="/favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon" /> <link rel="icon" href="/favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon" /> And they are inside of my tags.

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  • Best pratice: How do I implement a list that can be rendered both server-side and client-side?

    - by André Pena
    Technologies involved: ASP.NET Web-forms Javascript (jQuery for instance) Case To make it clearer let's give the Stackoverflow authors list as an example. This list can be manipulated at client-side. I can search, page and so forth. So obviously we would need to call jQuery.ajax to retrieve the HTML of each page given a search. Alright. Now this leaves me with the first question: What is the best way to render the response for the jQuery.ajax at server-side? I can't use templates I suppose, so the most obvious solution I think is to create the HTML tags as server-controls and render them as the result of an ASHX request? Is this is best approach? Nice. That solved we have yet another problem: When the user first enters the Authors List the first list page should already come from the server completely rendered alright? Of course we could render the first page as well as an ajax call but I don't think it's better. This time I CAN use templates to render the list but this template couldn't be reused in case 1. What do I do? Now the final question: Now we have 2 rendering strategies: 1) Client and 2) Server. How do I reuse code for the 2 renderings? What are the best pratices for solving these problems?

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  • Determining which form input failed validation?

    - by Alastair Pitts
    I am designing a creation wizard in ASP.NET MVC 1 and instead of posting back each step, I'm using javascript to toggle the display of the different steps divs. This is a quick sample of the code, just to explain. <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div id="wizardStep1"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CreateStep1", Model); %> </div> <div id="wizardStep2"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CreateStep2", Model); %> </div> <div id="wizardStep3"> <% Html.RenderPartial("CreateStep3", Model); %> </div> </fieldset> <% } %> I have javascript that just toggles the visibility of the divs, with each partial view containing a different section of the input form (which is pretty large by itself) My question is, if the form fails validation and I reload the page with the validation errors, is there a way for me to determine which div contains the error? Either in javascript or other? Failing that, is there a good client-side validation library for MVC 1? Ideally I'd love to move to MVC2 and the client side validation built into that, but I am required to use MVC1

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  • Best pratice: How do I implement a list similar to Stackoverflow's Users List?

    - by André Pena
    Technologies involved: ASP.NET Web-forms Javascript (jQuery for instance) Case To make it clearer let's give the Stackoverflow Users list as an example. This list can be manipulated at client-side. I can search, page and so forth. So obviously we would need to call jQuery.ajax to retrieve the HTML of each page given a search. Alright. Now this leaves me with the first question: What is the best way to render the response for the jQuery.ajax at server-side? I can't use templates I suppose, so the most obvious solution I think is to create the HTML tags as server-controls and render them as the result of an ASHX request? Is this is best approach? Nice. That solved we have yet another problem: When the user first enters the Authors List the first list page should already come from the server completely rendered alright? Of course we could render the first page as well as an ajax call but I don't think it's better. This time I CAN use templates to render the list but this template couldn't be reused in case 1. What do I do? Now the final question: Now we have 2 rendering strategies: 1) Client and 2) Server. How do I reuse code for the 2 renderings? What are the best pratices for solving these problems?

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  • jQuery problem with change event and IE8

    - by Marcus
    There is a bug in jQuery 1.4.2 that makes change event on select-element getting fired twice when using both DOM-event and a jQuery event, and this only on IE7/8. Here is the test code: <html> <head> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery(".myDropDown").change(function() { }); }); </script> </head> <body> <select class="myDropDown" onchange="alert('hello');"> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> <option>3</option> <option>4</option> </select> </body> </html> Ticket to actual bug: http://dev.jquery.com/ticket/6593 This causes alot of trouble for us in our application cause we use both ASP.NET-events mixed with jQuery and once you hook up a change event on any element every select (dropdown) gets this double firing problem. Is there anyone who knows a way around this in the meantime until this issue is fixed?

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  • Are there size limitations to the .NET Assembly format?

    - by McKAMEY
    We ran into an interesting issue that I've not experienced before. We have a large scale production ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 Web App Project in Visual Studio 2008 SP1 which gets compiled and deployed using a Website Deployment Project. Everything has worked fine for the last year, until after a check-in yesterday the app started critically failing with BadImageFormatException. The check-in in question doesn't change anything particularly special and the errors are coming from areas of the app not even changed. Using Reflector we inspected the offending methods to find that there were garbage strings in the code (which .NET Reflector humorously interpreted as Chinese characters). We have consistently reproduced this on several machines so it does not appear to be hardware related. Further inspection showed that those garbage strings did not exist in the Assemblies used as inputs to aspnet_merge.exe during deployment. aspnet_merge.exe / Web Deployment Project Output Assemblies Properties: Merge all outputs to a single assembly Merge each individual folder output to its own assembly Merge all pages and control outputs to a single assembly Create a separate assembly for each page and control output In the web deployment project properties if we set the merge options to the first option ("Merge all outputs to a single assembly") we experience the issue, yet all of the other options work perfectly! My question: does anyone know why this is happening? Is there a size-limit to aspnet_merge.exe's capabilities (the resulting merged DLL is around 19.3 MB)? Are there any other known issues with merging the output of WAPs? I would love it if any Assembly format / aspnet_merge.exe gurus know about any such limitations like this. Seems to me like a 25MB Assembly, while big, isn't outrageous.

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  • How do I Unit Test Actions without Mocking that use UpdateModel?

    - by Hellfire
    I have been working my way through Scott Guthrie's excellent post on ASP.NET MVC Beta 1. In it he shows the improvements made to the UpdateModel method and how they improve unit testing. I have recreated a similar project however anytime I run a UnitTest that contains a call to UpdateModel I receive an ArgumentNullException naming the controllerContext parameter. Here's the relevant bits, starting with my model: public class Country { public Int32 ID { get; set; } public String Name { get; set; } public String Iso3166 { get; set; } } The controller action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Int32 id, FormCollection form) { using ( ModelBindingDataContext db = new ModelBindingDataContext() ) { Country country = db.Countries.Where(c => c.CountryID == id).SingleOrDefault(); try { UpdateModel(country, form); db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(country); } } } And finally my unit test that's failing: [TestMethod] public void Edit() { CountryController controller = new CountryController(); FormCollection form = new FormCollection(); form.Add("Name", "Canada"); form.Add("Iso3166", "CA"); var result = controller.Edit(2 /*Canada*/, form) as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.IsNotNull(result, "Expected to be redirected on successful POST."); Assert.AreEqual("Show", result.RouteName, "Expected to redirect to the View action."); } ArgumentNullException is thrown by the call to UpdateModel with the message "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: controllerContext". I'm assuming that somewhere the UpdateModel requires the System.Web.Mvc.ControllerContext which isn't present during execution of the test. I'm also assuming that I'm doing something wrong somewhere and just need to pointed in the right direction. Help Please!

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  • Should I have different models and views for no user data than for some user data?

    - by Sam Holder
    I'm just starting to learn asp.net mvc and I'm not sure what the right thing to do is. I have a user and a user has a collection of (0 or more) reminders. I have a controller for the user which gets the reminders for the currently logged in user from a reminder service. It populates a model which holds some information about the user and the collection of reminders. My question is should I have 2 different views, one for when there are no reminders and one for when there are some reminders? Or should I have 1 view which checks the number of reminders and displays different things? Having one view seems wrong as then I end up with code in my view which says if (Model.Reminders.Count==0){//do something} else {do something else}, and having logic in the view feels wrong. But if I want to have 2 different views then I'd like to have some code like this in my controller: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { var model = new EmptyReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName }; return View(model); } else { var model = new ReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName, Reminders = reminders }; return View(model); } but obviously this doesn't compile as the View can't take both different types. So if I'm going to do this should I return a specific named view from my controller, depending on the emptiness of the reminders, or should my Index() method redirect to other actions like so: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { return RedirectToAction("ShowEmptyReminders"); } else { return RedirectToAction("ShowReminders"); } } which seems nicer but then I need to re-query the reminders for the current user in the ShowReminders action. Or should I be doing something else entirely?

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  • Log4net Logging Problem : Very simple file appender logging not working

    - by contactmatt
    Here's my web.config information <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> </configSections> <log4net> <root> <level value="ALL" /> </root> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="c:\temp\log-file.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.SimpleLayout" /> </appender> </log4net> ... Here's the code that initalizes the logger protected void SendMessage() { log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Contact)); ... log.Info("here we go!"); log.Debug("debug afasf"); ... } it doesn't work, no matter what I seem to do. I am referencing the 'log4net.dll' correctly, and by debugging the application i can see that the log object is getting initiated properly. This is a asp.net 3.5 framework web project. Any ideas/suggestions? I thought originally this error may be due to a file write permission constraint, but that doesn't seem to be the case (or so I think).

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