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  • Are there any security issues to avoid when providing a email-or-username-can-act-as-username login

    - by Tchalvak
    I am in the process of moving from a "username/password" system to one that uses email for login. I don't think that there's any horrible problem with allowing either email or username for login, and I remember seeing sites that I consider somewhat respectable doing it as well, but I'd like to be aware of any major security flaws that I may be introducing. More specifically, here is the pertinent function (the query_row function parameterizes the sql). function authenticate($p_user, $p_pass) { $user = (string)$p_user; $pass = (string)$p_pass; $returnValue = false; if ($user != '' && $pass != '') { // Allow login via username or email. $sql = "SELECT account_id, account_identity, uname, player_id FROM accounts join account_players on account_id=_account_id join players on player_id = _player_id WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) AND phash = crypt(:pass, phash)"; $returnValue = query_row($sql, array(':login'=>$user, ':pass'=>$pass)); } return $returnValue; } Notably, I have added the WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) ...etc section to allow graceful backwards compatibility for users who won't be used to using their email for the login procedure. I'm not completely sure that that OR is safe, though. Are there some ways that I should tighten the security of the php code above?

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  • How to access global variable in a view in Ruby on Rails?

    - by ben
    I have a User model. I have a Session controller, in which I have a global user variable that is assigned as follows: $user = User.authenticate(params[:session][:email], params[:session][:password]) (I've made user global just to try to solve this problem, so if there's a better way please let me know!) I need to use the email of the logged in user as a parameter to send to Flex part of my website. At the moment I'm creating the link as follows: <%= link_to "secondpage", secondpage_path(:email => @session.$user.email) But I'm getting the following error: compile error /Users/benhartney/rails_projects/talk/app/views/layouts/_header.html.erb:12: syntax error, unexpected tGVAR ..._path(:email = @session.$user.email) ).to_s); @output_buffe... There's also a little arrow pointing at $user If I remove the $ from $user, I get this error: undefined method `user' for nil:NilClass If I remove the (:email => @session.user.email) part, everything works fine, so I think all of the code except for this is ok. Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks for reading!

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  • Facebook Connect Login redirecting in Chrome and Safari

    - by Lobe
    I am having a problem with Facebook Connect that I can't seem to get my head around. A user clicks on the fb-login button, the pop up appears and they authenticate, the pop up closes and the on-login function is called. This happens in IE and Firefox as is expected. However in Chrome and Safari, the pop up redirects to the canvas url and doesn't close. Also the on-login function isn't called. I have googled and it seems to be something to do with the xd-receiver.htm file, however it seems weird that it is working in IE and Firefox but not Chrome or Safari. Thanks The facebook javascript <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php/en_US" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript">FB.init("xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx","xd_receiver.htm");</script> And the button <fb:login-button v="2" size="large" onlogin='window.location = "http://www.xxxxxxxxxx.com/development/redirect.php?size=large";'>Connect</fb:login-button> Obviously with Appid and domain hidden. Any ideas? EDIT: After a bit more playing around it turned out that I didn't have my base domain set in Facebook settings. Why it works in some browsers and not others beats me, however it works now. Thanks NSD for your suggestion.

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  • Active Directory Membership Provider - how to expand on this?

    - by Jaxidian
    I'm working on getting an MVC app up and running via AD Membership Provider and I'm having some issues figuring this out. I have a base configuration setup and working when I login as [email protected] + password. <connectionStrings> <add name="MyConnString" connectionString="LDAP://domaincontroller/OU=Product Users,DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com" /> </connectionStrings> <membership defaultProvider="MyProvider"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="MyProvider" connectionStringName="MyConnString" connectionUsername="my.domain.com\service_account" connectionPassword="biguglypassword" type="System.Web.Security.ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </providers> </membership> However, I'd LIKE to do some other things and I'm not sure how to go about them. Login without typing the domain (i.e. the "@my.domain.com"). I realize that this could only work if I limit myself to just one domain - that's fine. Organize users in up to N different OUs within a single OU. As you can tell from my current connection string, I'm authenticating users in my Product Users OU. I would LIKE to create OUs for various companies within this OU and put the users into those OUs. How can I authenticate across all of these different OUs? I'm trying to figure out how the Active Directory Membership Provider ties in with the Profile and Role providers. Are there AD versions of those too or am I stuck with SQL, home-grown, or finding something somebody else has coded up? Many thanks!!

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  • C++ socket concurrent server

    - by gregpi
    Hi all; Im writing a concurrent server that's supposed to have a communication channel and a data channel. The client initially connect to the communication channel to authenticate, upon successful authentication, the client is then connected to the data channel to access data. My program is already doing that, and im using threads.My only issue is that if I try to connect another client, I get a "cannot bind : address already in use" error. I have it this way: PART A Client connect to port 4567 (and enter his login info). A thread spawn to handle the client(repeated for each client that connects). In the thread created, I have a function(let's call it FUNC_A) that checks the client's login info(dont worry about how the check is done), if successful, the thread starts the data server(listening on 8976) then sends an OK to the client, once received the client attempts to connect to the data server. PART B Once a client connect to the data server, from inside FUNC_A the client is accepted and another thread is spawn to handle the client's connection to the data server.(hopefully everything is clear). Now, all that is working fine. However, if I try to connect with second client when it gets to PART B I get a "cannot bind error: address already in use". I've tried so many different ways, I've even tried spawning a thread to start the data server and accept the client and then start another thread to handle that connection. still no luck. Please give me a suggestion as to what I'm doing wrong, how do I go about doing this or what's the best way to implement it. Thank you

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  • how to put header authentication into a form using php?

    - by SkyWookie
    Hey guys, for the page I am doing needs a login authentication using Twitter (using tweetphp API). For test purposes I used this code below to do a successful login: if (!isset($_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER'])){ header('WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="Enter your Twitter username and password:"'); header('HTTP/1.0 401 Unauthorized'); echo 'Please enter your Twitter username and password to view your followers.'; exit(); } $username = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_USER']; $password = $_SERVER['PHP_AUTH_PW']; The problem now is, I want to integrate it into a form, so far I have the following: <form action="logincheck.php" method="post" class="niceform" > <fieldset> <legend>Twitter Login:</legend> <dl> <dt><label for="email">Twitter Username:</label></dt> <dd><input type="text" name="username" id="username" size="32" maxlength="128" /></dd> </dl> <dl> <dt><label for="password">Password:</label></dt> <dd><input type="password" name="password" id="password" size="32" maxlength="32" /></dd> </dl> </fieldset> <fieldset class="action"> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> I am sending it to logincheck.php, this is where I think I get stuck. I am not sure how to compare the form data with Twitter's login data. I was trying a similar if statement as I used in the first code (box that pops up before page loads), but I couldn't wrap my head around it. Thanks again guys!

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  • Kohana 3.2 - Database Session losing data on new Page Request

    - by reado
    I've setup my dev Kohana server to use an encrypted database as the default Session type. I'm also using this in combination with Auth to implement user authentication. Right now my user's are able to authenticate correctly and the authentication keys are being stored in the session. I'm also storing additional data like the user's firstname and businessname during the login procedure. When my login function is ready to redirect the user to the user dashboard, I'm able to see all the data correctly when I do $session::instance()->as_array(); (Array ( [auth_user] => NRyk6lA8 [businessname] => Dudetown [firstname] => Matt )) As soon as I redirect the user to another page, $session::instance()->as_array(); is empty. By dumping out the Session::instance() object, I can see that the Session id's are still the same. When I look at my database table though, i dont see any session records being saved and my session table is empty. My bootstrap.php contains: Session::$default = 'database'; Cookie::$salt = 'asdfasdf'; Cookie::$expiration = 1209600; Cookie::$domain = FALSE; and my session.php config file looks like: return array( 'database' => array( 'name' => 'auth_user', 'encrypted' => TRUE, 'lifetime' => 24 * 3600, 'group' => 'default', 'table' => 'sessions', 'columns' => array( 'session_id' => 'session_id', 'last_active' => 'last_active', 'contents' => 'contents' ), 'gc' => 500, ), ); I've looked high and low for an answer.. if anyone has any suggestions, i'm all ears! Thanks!

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  • Credit Card storage solution

    - by jtnire
    Hi Everyone, I'm developing a solution that is designed to store membership details, as well as credit card details. I'm trying to comply with PCI DSS as much as I can. Here is my design so far: PAN = Primary account number == long number on credit card Server A is a remote server. It stores all membership details (Names, Address etc..) and provides indivudal Key A's for each PAN stored Server B is a local server, and actually holds the encrypted PANs, as well as Key B, and does the decryption. To get a PAN, the client has to authenticate with BOTH servers, ask Server A for the respective Key A, then give Key A to server B, which will return the PAN to the client (provided authentication was sucessful). Server A will only ever encrypt Key A with Server B's public Key, as it will have it beforehand. Server B will probably have to send a salt first though, however I doin't think that has to be encrypted I havn't really thought about any implementation (i.e. coding) specifics yet regarding the above, however the solution is using Java's Cajo framework (wrapper for RMI) so that is how the servers will communicate with each other (Currently, membership details are transfered in this way). The reason why I want Server B to do the decryption, and not the client, is that I am afraid of decryption keys going into the client's RAM, even though it's probably just as bad on the server... Can anyone see anything wrong with the above design? It doesn't matter if the above has to be changed. Thanks jtnire

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  • DWR and Spring Security - User is deauthenticated in few seconds

    - by Vojtech
    I am trying to implement user authentication via DWR as follows: public class PublicRemote { @Autowired @Qualifier("authenticationManager") private AuthenticationManager authenticationManager; public Map<String, Object> userLogin(String username, String password, boolean stay) { Map<String, Object> map = new HashMap<>(); UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken authRequest = new UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken(username, password); try { Authentication authentication = authenticationManager.authenticate(authRequest); SecurityContextHolder.getContext().setAuthentication(authentication); map.put("success", "true"); } catch (Exception e) { map.put("success", "false"); } return map; } public Map<String, Object> getUserState() { Map<String, Object> map = new HashMap<>(); Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); boolean authenticated = authentication != null && authentication.isAuthenticated(); map.put("authenticated", authenticated); if (authenticated) { map.put("authorities", authentication.getAuthorities()); } return map; } } The authentication works correctly and by calling getUserState() I can see that the user is successfully logged in. The problem is that this state will stay only for few seconds. In probably 5 seconds, the getAuthentication() starts returning null. Is there some problem with session in DWR or is it some misconfiguration of Spring Security?

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  • Rails 3, Devise and custom controller action

    - by Johnny Klassy
    routes.rb match 'agencies/stub' => 'agencies#stub', :via => :get resources :agencies Here's the rake routes dump agencies_stub GET /agencies/stub(.:format) {:controller=>"agencies", :action=>"stub"} agencies GET /agencies(.:format) {:action=>"index", :controller=>"agencies"} POST /agencies(.:format) {:action=>"create", :controller=>"agencies"} new_agency GET /agencies/new(.:format) {:action=>"new", :controller=>"agencies"} edit_agency GET /agencies/:id/edit(.:format) {:action=>"edit", :controller=>"agencies"} agency GET /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"show", :controller=>"agencies"} PUT /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"update", :controller=>"agencies"} DELETE /agencies/:id(.:format) {:action=>"destroy", :controller=>"agencies"} Devise is setup to have all agenciesroutes only accessible as admin. The call I'm testing with is http://xyz:12345@localhost:3000/agencies/stub but it doesn't authenticate properly, ie, it doesn't recognize it as admin and throws me back to the Devise login page. The creds are a valid admin account. I'm baffled and have no idea why this is happening. Any insights will be much appreciated.

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  • Facebook-ios-sdk with embedded UIWebView

    - by Benchtop Creative
    I'm working with the new facebook-ios-sdk and have successfully integrated the api into my native app. I am able to authenticate a user and properly setup permissions using a popup dialog with the ios-sdk classes. For a portion of my app I need to use the facebook connection within a UIWebView, using javascript and html to process data within the webview. Given that the user is already logged in and authenticated via the above routine, I would have assumed that the UIWebView would share those credentials, or that there would at least be some way to pass or assign the credentials to the webview. Unfortunately, I found this earlier post which seems to suggest that this scheme doesn't quite work (iOS - being logged-in in a webView after logging in with the SDK). Has anyone else encountered this and/or found a work around? This seems like it would be a fairly straightforward use case given that I'm not trying to launch mobile safari or something like that - it's all within the same native app. It just seems like there must be some sort of easy trick or setting that I'm missing. Maybe somehow setting cookies in the new UIWebView? or something like this?

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  • Protecting sensitive entity data

    - by Andreas
    Hi, I'm looking for some advice on architecture for a client/server solution with some peculiarities. The client is a fairly thick one, leaving the server mostly to peristence, concurrency and infrastructure concerns. The server contains a number of entities which contain both sensitive and public information. Think for example that the entities are persons, assume that social security number and name are sensitive and age is publicly viewable. When starting the client, the user is presented with a number of entities, not disclosing any sensitive information. At any time the user can choose to log in and authenticate against the server, given the authentication is successful the user is granted access to the sensitive information. The client is hosting a domain model and I was thinking of implementing this as some kind of "lazy loading", making the first request instantiating the entities and later refreshing them with sensitive data. The entity getters would throw exceptions on sensitive information when they've not been disclosed, f.e.: class PersonImpl : PersonEntity { private bool undisclosed; public override string SocialSecurityNumber { get { if (undisclosed) throw new UndisclosedDataException(); return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } } } Another more friendly approach could be to have a value object indicating that the value is undisclosed. get { if (undisclosed) return undisclosedValue; return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } Some concerns: What if the user logs in and then out, the sensitive data has been loaded but must be disclosed once again. One could argue that this type of functionality belongs within the domain and not some infrastructural implementation(i.e. repository implementations). As always when dealing with a larger number of properties there's a risk that this type of functionality clutters the code Any insights or discussion is appreciated!

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • Windows Forms application C# | Sending Tweet

    - by Andrew Craswell
    I've been able to get my Twitter web app working just fine, but I've recently decided to add Tweeting functionality from a Windows Form, but I'm having no luck sending tweets. No errors are thrown or anything. Mind looking over my code? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using TweetSharp; namespace TwitterAdvirtiser { public partial class Form1 : Form { private string cKey = "xxx"; private string cSecret = "xxx"; private string oToken = "xxx"; private string aToken = "xxx"; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); OnStart(); } private void OnStart() { //Authenticate with Twitter TwitterService service = new TwitterService(cKey, cSecret); service.AuthenticateWith(oToken, aToken); service.SendTweet("testing"); } } } It seems like I'm authenticating just fine, I can walk through debug mode and see all my details in the TwitterUser structure, and yet my tweets never show up on my feed. Whats up? By the way, I'm using Visual Studios 2010, and .NET 4.0. I have verified that the oToken and aToken strings have my developer tokens.

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  • asp.net, wcf authentication and caching

    - by andrew
    I need to place my app business logic into a WCF service. The service shouldn't be dependent on ASP.NET and there is a lot of data regarding the authenticated user which is frequently used in the business logic hence it's supposed to be cached (probably using a distributed cache). As for authentication - I'm going to use two level authentication: Front-End - forms authentication back-end (WCF Service) - message username authentication. For both authentications the same custom membership provider is supposed to be used. To cache the authenticated user data, I'm going to implement two service methods: 1) Authenticate - will retrieve the needed data and place it into the cache(where username will be used as a key) 2) SignOut - will remove the data from the cache Question 1. Is correct to perform authentication that way (in two places) ? Question 2. Is this caching strategy worth using or should I look at using aspnet compatible service and asp.net session ? Maybe, these questions are too general. But, anyway I'd like to get any suggestions or recommendations. Any Idea

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  • Are there any security issues to avoid when providing a either-email-or-username-can-act-as-username

    - by Tchalvak
    I am in the process of moving from a "username/password" system to one that uses email for login. I don't think that there's any horrible problem with allowing either email or username for login, and I remember seeing sites that I consider somewhat respectable doing it as well, but I'd like to be aware of any major security flaws that I may be introducing. More specifically, here is the pertinent function (the query_row function parameterizes the sql). function authenticate($p_user, $p_pass) { $user = (string)$p_user; $pass = (string)$p_pass; $returnValue = false; if ($user != '' && $pass != '') { // Allow login via username or email. $sql = "SELECT account_id, account_identity, uname, player_id FROM accounts join account_players on account_id=_account_id join players on player_id = _player_id WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) AND phash = crypt(:pass, phash)"; $returnValue = query_row($sql, array(':login'=>$user, ':pass'=>$pass)); } return $returnValue; } Notably, I have added the WHERE lower(account_identity) = lower(:login) OR lower(uname) = lower(:login) ...etc section to allow graceful backwards compatibility for users who won't be used to using their email for the login procedure. I'm not completely sure that that OR is safe, though. Are there some ways that I should tighten the security of the php code above?

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  • Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

    - by TrueWill
    We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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  • PHP mail may be filtered out by spam?

    - by Derek
    I am creating a small company, and would like to send out emails to my clients once they have signed up for my service to activate their accounts. I am currently using PHP's mail() function, however I am worried that my emails are being filtered out by spam filters. Is there a better way to go about this? $email = 'XZY Client Email address @ somedomain.com'; $emailSubject = "Welcome to XYZ Service!"; $to = $email; $subject .= "".$emailSubject.""; $headers .= "From: [email protected]\r\n" . "X-Mailer: php"; $headers .= "MIME-Version: 1.0\r\n"; $headers .= "Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1\r\n"; $message = "<html><body>"; $message .= "Welcome to XYZ Service! \n Activate your account by clicking the following link: link..."; mail($to, $subject, $message, $headers); Is there a way to authenticate these emails so that my clients know that they are from my actual service? Thank you in advance!

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  • Need Help with .NET OpenId HttpHandler

    - by Mark E
    I'm trying to use a single HTTPHandler to authenticate a user's open id and receive a claimresponse. The initial authentication works, but the claimresponse does not. The error I receive is "This webpage has a redirect loop." What am I doing wrong? public class OpenIdLogin : IHttpHandler { private HttpContext _context = null; public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { _context = context; var openid = new OpenIdRelyingParty(); var response = openid.GetResponse(); if (response == null) { // Stage 2: user submitting Identifier openid.CreateRequest(context.Request.Form["openid_identifier"]).RedirectToProvider(); } else { // Stage 3: OpenID Provider sending assertion response switch (response.Status) { case AuthenticationStatus.Authenticated: //FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(response.ClaimedIdentifier, false); string identifier = response.ClaimedIdentifier; //****** TODO only proceed if we don't have the user's extended info in the database ************** ClaimsResponse claim = response.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claim == null) { //IAuthenticationRequest req = openid.CreateRequest(identifier); IAuthenticationRequest req = openid.CreateRequest(Identifier.Parse(identifier)); var fields = new ClaimsRequest(); fields.Email = DemandLevel.Request; req.AddExtension(fields); req.RedirectingResponse.Send(); //Is this correct? } else { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write(claim.Email); //claim.FullName; } break; case AuthenticationStatus.Canceled: //TODO break; case AuthenticationStatus.Failed: //TODO break; } } }

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  • Java Client interoperating with WSE 3.0 Web Service

    - by Dee
    I have a Interoperable Security Token Service (STS) that authenticates the User and then issues a SAML token. I also have transaction services that expects the SAML token in the incoming SOAP request header. For a client to make a call to transaction service, it first needs to authenticate with the STS, get the SAML token and then make a call to the transaction services. The STS is an interoperable service and can be invoked from a Java client. The Transaction services are build using WSE 3.0 framework, but the WSDL that it generates is not good enough for a Java client to understand it. I want my Java client to explicitly call the STS and then using the received SAML token make a call to Transaction Services. I tried with Netbeans and Metro WSIT toolkit. I was able to call the Transaction Services if it were implemented using WCF. With WCF Transaction Service the WSDL generated has complete information using which the Java client can figure out how to call to STS and then call the WCF Transaction service. How can my Java client explicitly call the STS and then in turn call the WSE 3.0 transaction services?

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  • Codeigniter only loads the default controller

    - by fh47331
    I am very new to CodeIgniter, but have been programming PHP for ages. I'm writing some software at the moment and using CI for the first time with it. The default controller is set to the first controller I want to action call 'login' (the controller is login.php, the view is login.php. When the form is submitted it calls the 'authenticate' controller. This executes fine, process the login data correctly and then does a redirect command (without any output to the screen prior) to the next page in this case 'newspage'. The problem is that the redirect, never reaches 'newspage' but the default controller runs again. It doesn't matter what I put ... ht tp://domain.name/anything ... (yes im using .htaccess to remove the index.php) the anything never gets called, just the default controller. I have left the standard 'welcome.php' controller and 'welcome_message.php' in the folders and even putting ht tp://domain.name/welcome all I get is the login screen! (Obviously there shouldn't be a space between the http - thats just done so it does not show as a hyperlink!) Can anyone tell me what i've done wrong!

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  • How do I post a link to the feed of a page via the Facebook Graph API *as* the page?

    - by jsdalton
    I'm working on a plugin for a Wordpress blog that posts a link to every article published to a Facebook Page associated with the blog. I'm using the Graph API and I have authenticated myself, for the time being, via OAuth. I can successfully post a message to the page using curl via a POST request to https://graph.facebook.com/mypageid/feed with e.g. message = "This is a test" and it published the message. The problem is that the message is "from" my user account. I'm an admin on this test page, and when I go to Facebook and post an update from the web, the link comes "from" my page. That's how I'd like this to be set up, because it looks silly if all the shared links are coming from a user account. Is there a way to authenticate myself as a page? Or is there an alternate way to POST to a page feed that doesn't end up being interpreted as a comment from a user? Thanks for any thoughts or suggestions.

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  • Why does an authorized OAuth request token need to be exchanged for an access token?

    - by Joe Shaw
    I'm wondering what the reasons are for OAuth to require a round-trip to the data provider to exchange an authorized request token for an access token. My understanding of the OAuth workflow is: Requesting site (consumer) gets a request token from the data provider site (service provider). Requesting site asks the data provider site to authenticate the user, passing in a callback. Once the user has been authenticated and authorized the requesting site, the user is directed back to the requesting site (consumer) via the callback provided which passes back the now-authorized request token and a verification code. The requesting site exchanges the request token for an access token. The requesting site uses the access token to get data from the data provider site. Assuming I got that right, why couldn't the callback simply provide the access token to the requesting site directly in step 3, eliminating step 4? Why is the request to exchange the request token for the access token necessary? Does it exist solely for consumers that require users to enter the verification code manually, with the thought that it would be shorter and simpler than the access token itself?

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  • What would be a better implementation of shared variable among subclass

    - by Churk
    So currently I have a spring unit testing application. And it requires me to get a session cookie from a foreign authentication source. Problem what that is, this authentication process is fairly expensive and time consuming, and I am trying to create a structure where I am authenticate once, by any subclass, and any subsequent subclass is created, it will reuse this session cookie without hitting the authentication process again. My problem right now is, the static cookie is null each time another subclass is created. And I been reading that using static as a global variable is a bad idea, but I couldn't think of another way to do this because of Spring framework setting things during run time and how I would set the cookie so that all other classes can use it. Another piece of information. The variable is being use, but is change able during run time. It is not a single user being signed in and used across the board. But more like a Sub1 would call login, and we have a cookie. Then multiple test will be using that login until SubX will come in and say, I am using different credential, so I need to login as something else. And repeats. Here is a outline of my code: public class Parent implements InitializingBean { protected static String BASE_URL; public static Cookie cookie; ... All default InitializingBean methods ... afterPropertiesSet() { cookie = // login process returns a cookie } } public class Sub1 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomething() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } } public class Sub2 extends Parent { @resource public String baseURL; @PostConstruct public void init() { // set parents with my baseURL; BASE_URL = baseURL; } public void doSomethingElse() { // Do something with cookie, because it should have been set by parent class } }

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  • Downloading From Google Docs

    - by jeremynealbrown
    Hello, I am using the gdata-java-client Version 2 with for and Android app that allows users to download documents from their Google Docs account. Currently I am able to authenticate, request and display a list of all the user's documents. From here I would like to open each type of document in a specific Activity. If it's a spreadsheet or a csv file, open it in one activity and if it is a text document open it in another activity. This is where things are getting hazy. First I need to determine what type of document the user selected in order download the file in the appropriate format by appending exporFormat=(csv,xls,doc,txt) to the query string. I don't see any indication in the original list of documents as to what kind of file the each entry is. Secondly as a test I can just append a raw string to the end of the query string. As an example, a query might look like this: https://spreadsheets.google.com/feeds/download/spreadsheets/Export?key=0AsE_6_YIr797dHBTUWlHMUFXeTV4ZzJlUGxWRnJXanc&exportFormat=xls Notice that at the end of the string is the hardcoded export format. This query returns a HTTPResponse with a 200 OK message. However if I look at the response.content or use response.parseAsString I see what appears to be a Google Docs home page has html text. I don't get this result when I try to download a text document. When I request a text document the response.content is the body of the text file. If I copy and paste this uri into a browser I get the requested file as a download. To summarize, this question is two-fold: 1. How do I determine the type( plain text, .doc, .csv, .xls ) of a document from the initial list of user documents. 2. How do I download the actual .csv or spreadsheet files? Thanks in advance.

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