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  • sqlite3 - stringWithUTF8String is leaking!

    - by Darko Hebrang
    I would appreciate if someone could help me solve my leaking problem. The leaks occur at: aImage, aCategory, aDescription, category and categories. I release them in dealloc, but obviously that is not sufficient: -(void) readListFromDatabase:(char *) sqlStatement { // Setup some globals databaseName = @"mydatabase.sql"; // Get the path to the documents directory and append the databaseName NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; databasePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:databaseName]; // Setup the database object sqlite3 *database; // Init the categories Array categories = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Open the database from the users filessytem if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { // Setup the SQL Statement and compile it for faster access sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; if(sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, NULL) == SQLITE_OK) { // Loop through the results and add them to the feeds array while(sqlite3_step(compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { // Read the data from the result row aImage = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 0)]; aCategory = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 1)]; aDescription = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 2)]; // Create a new category object with the data from the database category=[[Category alloc] initWithName:aImage category_name:aCategory description_text:aDescription]; // Add the category object to the categories Array [categories addObject:category]; [category release]; } } // Release the compiled statement from memory sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); } sqlite3_close(database); } - (void)dealloc { [databaseName release]; [databasePath release]; [categories release]; [aImage release]; [aCategory release]; [aDescription release]; [category release]; [super dealloc]; }

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  • System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization Namespace Fine in One Class but Not in Another

    - by jxpx777
    Hi. I'm getting this error The type or namespace name 'DataVisualization' does not exist in the namespace 'System.Windows.Forms' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Here is my using section of the class: using System; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Borders3D; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartTypes; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Data; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Formulas; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Utilities; namespace myNamespace { public class myClass { // Usual class stuff } } The thing is that I am using the same DataVisualization includes in another class. The only thing that I can think that is different is that the classes that are giving this missing namespace error are Solution Items rather than specific to a project. The projects reference them by link. Anyone have thoughts on what the problem is? I've installed the chart component, .Net 3.5 SP1, and the Chart Add-in for Visual Studio 2008. UPDATE: I moved the items from Solution Items to be regular members of my project and I'm still seeing the same behavior. UPDATE 2: Removing the items from the Solution Items and placing them under my project worked. Another project was still referencing the files which is why I didn't think it worked previously. I'm still curious, though, why I couldn't use the namespace when the classes were Solution Items but moving them underneath a project (with no modifications, mind you) instantly made them recognizable. :\

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  • Design pattern to keep track UITableView rows correspondance to underlying data in constant time.

    - by DenNukem
    When my model changes I want to animate changes in UITableView by inserting/deleting rows. For that I need to know the ordinal of the given row (so I can construct NSIndexPath), which I find hard to do in better-than-linear time. For example, consider that I have a list of addressbook entries which are manualy sorted by the user, i.e. there is no ordering "key" that represents the sort order. There is also a corresponding UITableView that shows one row per addressbook entry. When UITableView queries the datasource I query the NSMUtableArray populated with my entries and return required data in constant time for each row. However, if there is a change in underlying model I am getting a notification "Joe Smith, id#123 has been removed". Now I have a dilemma. A naive approach would be to scan the array, determine the index at which Joe Smith is and then ask UITableView to remove that precise row from the view, also removing it form the array. However, the scan will take linear time to finish. Now I could have an NSDictionary which allows me to find Joe Smith in constant time, but that doesn't do me a lot of good because I still need to find his ordinal index within the array in order to instruct UITableView to remove that row, which is again a linear search. I could further decide to store each object's ordinal inside the object itself to make it constant, but it will become outdated after first such update as all subsequent index values will have changed due to removal of an object. So what is the correct design pattern to accurately reflect model changes in the UITableView in costant (or at least logarithmic) time?

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  • UPDATE query that fixes orphaned records

    - by Jed
    I have an Access database that has two tables that are related by PK/FK. Unfortunately, the database tables have allowed for duplicate/redundant records and has made the database a bit screwy. I am trying to figure out a SQL statement that will fix the problem. To better explain the problem and goal, I have created example tables to use as reference: You'll notice there are two tables, a Student table and a TestScore table where StudentID is the PK/FK. The Student table contains duplicate records for students John, Sally, Tommy, and Suzy. In other words the John's with StudentID's 1 and 5 are the same person, Sally 2 and 6 are the same person, and so on. The TestScore table relates test scores with a student. Ignoring how/why the Student table allowed duplicates, etc - The goal I'm trying to accomplish is to update the TestScore table so that it replaces the StudentID's that have been disabled with the corresponding enabled StudentID. So, all StudentID's = 1 (John) will be updated to 5; all StudentID's = 2 (Sally) will be updated to 6, and so on. Here's the resultant TestScore table that I'm shooting for (Notice there is no longer any reference to the disabled StudentID's 1-4): Can you think of a query (compatible with MS Access's JET Engine) that can accomplish this goal? Or, maybe, you can offer some tips/perspectives that will point me in the right direction. Thanks.

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  • Validation with State Pattern for Multi-Page Forms in ASP.NET

    - by philrabin
    I'm trying to implement the state pattern for a multi-page registration form. The data on each page will be accumulated and stored in a session object. Should validation (including service layer calls to the DB) occur on the page level or inside each state class? In other words, should the concrete implementation of IState be concerned with the validation or should it be given a fully populated and valid object? See "EmptyFormState" class below: namespace Example { public class Registrar { private readonly IState formEmptyState; private readonly IState baseInformationComplete; public RegistrarSessionData RegistrarSessionData { get; set;} public Registrar() { RegistrarSessionData = new RegistrarSessionData(); formEmptyState = new EmptyFormState(this); baseInformationComplete = new BasicInfoCompleteState(this); State = formEmptyState; } public IState State { get; set; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { State.SubmitData(data); } public void ProceedToNextStep() { State.ProceedToNextStep(); } } //actual data stored in the session //to be populated by page public class RegistrarSessionData { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //will include values of all 4 forms } //State Interface public interface IState { void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data); void ProceedToNextStep(); } //Concrete implementation of IState //Beginning state - no data public class EmptyFormState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public EmptyFormState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //Should Validation occur here? //Should each state object contain a validation class? (IValidator ?) //Should this throw an exception? } public void ProceedToNextStep() { registrar.State = new BasicInfoCompleteState(registrar); } } //Next step, will have 4 in total public class BasicInfoCompleteState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public BasicInfoCompleteState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //etc } public void ProceedToNextStep() { //etc } } }

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  • Reading a large file into Perl array of arrays and manipulating the output for different purposes

    - by Brian D.
    Hello, I am relatively new to Perl and have only used it for converting small files into different formats and feeding data between programs. Now, I need to step it up a little. I have a file of DNA data that is 5,905 lines long, with 32 fields per line. The fields are not delimited by anything and vary in length within the line, but each field is the same size on all 5905 lines. I need each line fed into a separate array from the file, and each field within the line stored as its own variable. I am having no problems storing one line, but I am having difficulties storing each line successively through the entire file. This is how I separate the first line of the full array into individual variables: my $SampleID = substr("@HorseArray", 0, 7); my $PopulationID = substr("@HorseArray", 9, 4); my $Allele1A = substr("@HorseArray", 14, 3); my $Allele1B = substr("@HorseArray", 17, 3); my $Allele2A = substr("@HorseArray", 21, 3); my $Allele2B = substr("@HorseArray", 24, 3); ...etc. My issues are: 1) I need to store each of the 5905 lines as a separate array. 2) I need to be able to reference each line based on the sample ID, or a group of lines based on population ID and sort them. I can sort and manipulate the data fine once it is defined in variables, I am just having trouble constructing a multidimensional array with each of these fields so I can reference each line at will. Any help or direction is much appreciated. I've poured over the Q&A sections on here, but have not found the answer to my questions yet. Thanks!! -Brian

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • How to make a mapped field inherited from a superclass transient in JPA?

    - by Russ Hayward
    I have a legacy schema that cannot be changed. I am using a base class for the common features and it contains an embedded object. There is a field that is normally mapped in the embedded object that needs to be in the persistence id for only one (of many) subclasses. I have made a new id class that includes it but then I get the error that the field is mapped twice. Here is some example code that is much simplified to maintain the sanity of the reader: @MappedSuperclass class BaseClass { @Embedded private Data data; } @Entity class SubClass extends BaseClass { @EmbeddedId private SubClassId id; } @Embeddable class Data { private int location; private String name; } @Embeddable class SubClassId { private int thingy; private int location; } I have tried @AttributeOverride but I can only get it to rename the field. I have tried to set it to updatable = false, insertable = false but this did not seem to work when used in the @AttributeOverride annotation. See answer below for the solution to this issue. I realise I could change the base class but I really do not want to split up the embedded object to separate the shared field as it would make the surrounding code more complex and require some ugly wrapping code. I could also redesign the whole system for this corner case but I would really rather not. I am using Hibernate as my JPA provider.

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  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

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  • jsf immediate="true" question regarding binding to session bean

    - by jamiebarrow
    Hi, I have a listing page that goes to an add page. The add page has a name textbox whose value is bound to a session scoped bean. The listing page has an add button that goes via an action method to the add page. This action method clears the object that the name textbox is bound to. I also have a cancel button on the add page, which is bound to an action method that again clears the value that the name textbox is bound to. If nothing is set to immediate, this all works fine. However, if I set the cancel button to immediate, if I enter values in the name field, and then click cancel, the action method is fired and clears the object in the backing bean and goes to the listing page. If I then click add, the action method clears the object again (ignore if it's best method or not) and then goes to the add page. I would now expect the add page's name textbox to be empty, but it's not?! Surely, since the add button is not immediate, the values should be re-bound and empty? Below is the relevant XHTML for the add button on the listing page <h:commandButton id="addButton" value="Add" action="#{myBean.gotoAdd}"/> Below is the relevant XHTML for the input box on the add page (myBean is session scoped), followed by that of the cancel button on the add page.: <h:inputText id="newName" value="#{myBean.newObject.name}" binding="#{myBean.newNameInput}" styleClass="name" /> <h:commandButton id="cancelButton" value="Cancel" immediate="true" action="#{myBean.cancelAdd}" onclick="return confirm('You sure?');"/>

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  • WiX: Define made in included file not avaible from wxs-fragment-file.

    - by leiflundgren
    I have a defines.wxi-file which contains some good definitions used in all my wxs-files. When I attempt to reference the defined value from one of the <Fragment>-files I get Undefined preprocessor variable '$(var.IMAGE_FOLDER)' back in my face. I guess there is something trivial I am missing here... Any ideas? Edit 19:th April. Found that issue only occurs if reference from a Fragment-file. Re-wrote sample to match that. defines.wxi <Include> <?define IMAGE_FOLDER="Images" ?> </Include> some-Fragment.wxs <Fragment> <?Include defines.wxi ?> <Component Id='c.Images' Guid=".." Directory='INSTALLDIR.Images' > <File Id='f.sample.jpg' Source='$(var.IMAGE_FOLDER)sample.jpg' Name='sample.jpg' /> </Component>

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  • AJAX - ASP.NET - Timer delay problem

    - by Julian
    Hi, I'm trying to make an webapplication where you see an Ajax countdown timer. Whenever I push a button the countdown should go back to 30 and keep counting down. Now the problem is whenever I push the button the timer keeps counting down for a second or 2 and most of the time after that the timer keeps standing on 30 for to long. WebForm code: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="geen verbinding"></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Timer1" EventName="Tick" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:Timer ID="Timer1" runat="server" Interval="1000" ontick="Timer1_Tick"> </asp:Timer> </form> Code Behind: static int timer = 30; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = timer.ToString(); } protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer--; } protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { timer = 30; } Hope somebody knows what the problem is and if there is anyway to fix this. Thanks in advance!

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  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

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  • Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

    - by Zarion
    Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

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  • In .NET when Aborting Thread, can this piece of code get corrupted?

    - by bosko
    Little intro: In complex multithreaded aplication (enterprise service bus EBS), I need to use Thread.Abort, because this EBS accepts user written modules which communicates with hardware security modules. So if this module gets deadlocked or hardware stops responding - i need to just unload this module and rest of this server aplication must keep runnnig. So there is abort sync mechanism which ensures that code can be aborted only in user section and this section must be marked as AbortAble. If this happen there is possibility that ThreadAbortException will be thrown in this pieace of code: public void StopAbortSection() { var id = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; lock (threadIdMap[id]) { .... } } If module is on AbortSection and Aplication decides to abort module, but after this decision but before actual Thread.Abort, module enters NonAbortableSection by calling this method, but lock is actualy taken on that locking object. So lock will block until Abort or abort can be executed before reaching this block by this code. But Object with this method is essential and i need to be sure that this pieace of code is safe to abort in any moment. Probably i have to mention that threadIdMap is Dictionary(int,ManualResetEvent), so locking object is instance of ManualResetEvent. I hope you now understad my question. Sorry for its largeness.

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  • How can I use System.Web.Caching.Cache in a Console application?

    - by Ron Klein
    Context: .Net 3.5, C# I'd like to have caching mechanism in my Console application. Instead of re-inventing the wheel, I'd like to use System.Web.Caching.Cache (and that's a final decision, I can't use other caching framework, don't ask why). However, it looks like System.Web.Caching.Cache is supposed to run only in a valid HTTP context. My very simple snippet looks like this: using System; using System.Web.Caching; using System.Web; Cache c = new Cache(); try { c.Insert("a", 123); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("cannot insert to cache, exception:"); Console.WriteLine(ex); } and the result is: cannot insert to cache, exception: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Caching.Cache.Insert(String key, Object value) at MyClass.RunSnippet() So obviously, I'm doing something wrong here. Any ideas? Update: +1 to most answers, getting the cache via static methods is the correct usage, namely HttpRuntime.Cache and HttpContext.Current.Cache. Thank you all!

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  • How can use the currently displayed node to filter a block-level view on that node's page?

    - by Deane
    I have parent/child relationship set up via Node Reference. A Child record can have a Parent record selected from a Node Reference field (this is optional -- I can have Parent-less Children as well). I've created a Views block to appear on the Parent pages, below the content. It's going to show a table of all the Child nodes for that Parent. Problem is, right now it shows every Child node. I need to filter it for just the Parent being displayed. What I need to be able to do is add a filter to this View to effectively say, "Only show the Child nodes that are assigned to the Parent being displayed on this page." So, somehow I need to be able to get the Nid of the currently displaying node (which will be a Parent, in all cases when this block is displayed), and use that in a filter in my View. How exactly can I do this? (Initially I used an attachment view for this (as this page instructs). I created a page view to display the Parent, then an attachment view to display all the Children, then attached that under the page view. This worked, but it was almost absurdly complicated to set up, and it was an undesirable for a number of other reasons -- primarily that my Parent now has two dedicated URLs, it's own node-level page, and the similar page created by this view.) Using Drupal 6.15.

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  • How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

    - by Tchalvak
    I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

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  • Nhibernat mapping aspnet_Users table

    - by Michael D. Kirkpatrick
    My User table I want to map to aspnet_Users: <class name="User" table="`User`"> <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="UserId" column="UserId" type="Guid" not-null="true" /> <property name="FullName" column="FullName" type="String" not-null="true" /> <property name="PhoneNumber" column="PhoneNumber" type="String" not-null="false" /> </class> My aspnet_Users table: <class name="aspnet_Users" table="aspnet_Users"> <id name="ID" column="UserId" type="Guid" /> <property name="UserName" column="UserName" type="string" not-null="false" /> </class> I tried adding one-to-one, one-to-many and many-to-one mappings. The closest I can get is with this error: Object of type 'System.Guid' cannot be converted to type 'System.Int32'. How do I create a 1 way mapping from User to aspnet_User via the UserId column in User? I am only wanting to create a reference so I can extract read-only information, affect sorts, etc. I still need to leave UserId column in User set up like it is now. Maybe a virtual reference keying off of UserId? Is this even possible with Nhibernate? Unfortunately it acts like it only wants to use ID from User to map to aspnet_Users. Changing the table User to have it's primary key be UserId instead of ID is not an option at this point. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • Problems with reading into buffer using boost::asio::async_read

    - by Max
    Good day. I have a Types.hpp file in my project. And within it i have: .... namespace RC { ..... ..... struct ViewSettings { .... }; ..... } In the Server.cpp file I'm including this Types.hpp file, and i have there: class Session { ..... RC::ViewSettings tmp; boost::asio::async_read(socket_, boost::asio::buffer(&tmp, sizeof(RC::ViewSettings)), boost::bind(&Session::Finish_Reading_Data, shared_from_this(), boost::asio::placeholders::error)); ..... } And during the compilation i have an errors: error C2825: 'F': must be a class or namespace when followed by '::' : see reference to class template instantiation 'boost::_bi::result_traits<R,F>' being compiled with [ R=boost::_bi::unspecified, F=void (__thiscall Session::* )(void) ] : see reference to class template instantiation 'boost::_bi::bind_t<R,F,L>' being compiled with [ R=boost::_bi::unspecified, F=void (__thiscall Session::* )(void), L=boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<boost::shared_ptr<Session>>,boost::arg<1>> ] error C2039: 'result_type' : is not a member of '`global namespace'' And the code like this works in proper way: int w; boost::asio::async_read(socket_, boost::asio::buffer(&w, sizeof(int)), boost::bind(&Session::Handle_Read_Width, shared_from_this(), boost::asio::placeholders::error)); Please, help. What's the problem here? Thanks in advance.

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  • help with javamail api

    - by bobby
    import javax.servlet.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import java.io.*; import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import javax.mail.event.*; import java.net.*; import java.util.*; public class servletmail extends HttpServlet { public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response)throws ServletException,IOException { PrintWriter out=response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); try { Properties props=new Properties(); props.put("mail.transport.protocol", "smtp"); props.put("mail.smtp.host","smtp.gmail.com"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "25"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("user", "pass"); } }; Session sess=Session.getDefaultInstance(props,authenticator); Message msg=new MimeMessage(sess); msg.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.addRecipient(Message.RecipientType.TO, new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); msg.setSubject("Hello JavaMail"); msg.setText("Welcome to JavaMail"); Transport.send(msg); out.println("mail has been sent"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("err"+e); } } } im working with above im gettin d following error servletmail.java:22: reference to Authenticator is ambiguous, both class java.ne t.Authenticator in java.net and class javax.mail.Authenticator in javax.mail mat ch Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() ^ servletmail.java:22: reference to Authenticator is ambiguous, both class java.ne t.Authenticator in java.net and class javax.mail.Authenticator in javax.mail mat ch Authenticator authenticator = new Authenticator() ^ 2 errors i have followed the example in http://java.sun.com/developer/onlineTraining/JavaMail/contents.html how should i get the output..will the above code...work what are the changes that need to be made..im using thunderbird smtp server

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  • How to handle SalesForce WSDL files for sandbox and production sites in ASP.Net?

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    I need to authenticate users and get info about them from an ASP.Net application. Since I have 2 sites (sandbox, production) and 2 org IDs - I needed to generate 2 SalesForce WSDL files. I diffed the 2 files (each about 600kb in size) and while they are 95% the same, there are enough differences strewn all over the place - enough for me to need to use them both. I added both as web references to my solution, and here's where my problem starts.Obviously, I cannot use both references in the same file, as they contain the same classes/functions. I had to write a quick-and-dirty solution over the weekend, so I just created 2 classes - each using a different web reference - but otherwise the exact functionality, and I use the appropriate one, based on the URL the user is coming from. This works well, but strikes me as a bad (read: quick-and-dirty) solution. My question: is there any way to do one or more of the following: change the web reference on the fly? use both web references in the same file, but put one in a different namespace? find a better solution to the whole situation? I nd up with a huge XmlSerializer.dll (3mb!) - probably due to using both huge WSDL files. Thanks for your time.

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  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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  • Template in monorail ViewComponent

    - by George Polevoy
    Is it possible to have a template with html content in vm for a block component? I'm doing a lot of stuff in html, and want the html reside in a .vm, not in codebehind. Here is what i've got: public class TwoColumn : ViewComponent { public override void Render() { RenderText(@" <div class='twoColumnLayout'> <div class='columnOne'>"); // Context.RenderBody(); Context.RenderSection("columnOne"); RenderText(@" </div> <div class='columnTwo'>"); Context.RenderSection("columnTwo"); RenderText(@" </div> </div> "); } } Here is what i want to get: pageWithTwoColumns.vm: #blockcomponent(TwoColumn) #columnOne One #end #columnTwo Two #end #end twocolumn/default.vm (pseudocode): <div class="twoColumnLayout"> <div class="columnOne"> #reference-to-columnOne </div> <div class="columnTwo"> #reference-to-columnTwo </div> </div>

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