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  • UPDATE query that fixes orphaned records

    - by Jed
    I have an Access database that has two tables that are related by PK/FK. Unfortunately, the database tables have allowed for duplicate/redundant records and has made the database a bit screwy. I am trying to figure out a SQL statement that will fix the problem. To better explain the problem and goal, I have created example tables to use as reference: You'll notice there are two tables, a Student table and a TestScore table where StudentID is the PK/FK. The Student table contains duplicate records for students John, Sally, Tommy, and Suzy. In other words the John's with StudentID's 1 and 5 are the same person, Sally 2 and 6 are the same person, and so on. The TestScore table relates test scores with a student. Ignoring how/why the Student table allowed duplicates, etc - The goal I'm trying to accomplish is to update the TestScore table so that it replaces the StudentID's that have been disabled with the corresponding enabled StudentID. So, all StudentID's = 1 (John) will be updated to 5; all StudentID's = 2 (Sally) will be updated to 6, and so on. Here's the resultant TestScore table that I'm shooting for (Notice there is no longer any reference to the disabled StudentID's 1-4): Can you think of a query (compatible with MS Access's JET Engine) that can accomplish this goal? Or, maybe, you can offer some tips/perspectives that will point me in the right direction. Thanks.

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • Crystal Report: Missing Parameter Values

    - by Chintan
    Hi! I am new to Crystal report, application is on ASP.net 3.5 and MySQL 5.1 with, going to develop report with between dates from date and to date, first page of report is shown good but when i tried to navigate on another page i got error like Missing Parameter Values Thanks in advance public partial class BookingStatement : System.Web.UI.Page { //DAL is my Data Access Layer Class //Book is ReportClass DAL obj = new DAL(); Book bkStmt = new Book(); protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { //crvBooking is Crystal Report Viewer //reportFill method is to fill Report reportFill(); crvBooking.EnableViewState = true; crvBooking.EnableParameterPrompt = false; } /* Also try reportFill() out side !IsPostBack but didn't work */ //Check if the parmeters have been shown. /* if ((ViewState["ParametersShown"] != null) && (ViewState["ParametersShown"].ToString() == "True")) { bkStmt.SetParameterValue(0, "20/04/2010"); bkStmt.SetParameterValue(1, "20/04/2010"); }*/ } protected void crvBooking_navigate(object sender, CrystalDecisions.Web.NavigateEventArgs e) { // reportFill(); } protected void reportFill() { //bkStmt.rpt is Report file //bookingstatment is View //bkStmt is ReportClass object of Book string rptPath = "bkStmt.rpt"; string query = "select * from bookingstatment"; crvBooking.RefreshReport(); crvBooking.Height = 600; crvBooking.Width = 900; bkStmt.ResourceName = rptPath; String dtFrm = bkStmt.ParameterFields[0].CurrentValues.ToString(); obj.SetCommandType(CommandType.Text); obj.CommText = query; DataTable dtst = obj.GetDataTable(); crvBooking.ParameterFieldInfo.Clear(); ParameterDiscreteValue discretevalue = new ParameterDiscreteValue(); discretevalue.Value = "20/04/2010"; // Assign parameter ParameterValues values = new ParameterValues(); values.Add(discretevalue); bkStmt.SetDataSource(dtst); ViewState["ParametersShown"] = "True"; crvBooking.EnableViewState = true; bkStmt.DataDefinition.ParameterFields[0].ApplyCurrentValues(values); bkStmt.DataDefinition.ParameterFields[1].ApplyCurrentValues(values); crvBooking.ReportSource = bkStmt; } }

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  • System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization Namespace Fine in One Class but Not in Another

    - by jxpx777
    Hi. I'm getting this error The type or namespace name 'DataVisualization' does not exist in the namespace 'System.Windows.Forms' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Here is my using section of the class: using System; using System.Collections; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Borders3D; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartTypes; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Data; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Formulas; using System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting.Utilities; namespace myNamespace { public class myClass { // Usual class stuff } } The thing is that I am using the same DataVisualization includes in another class. The only thing that I can think that is different is that the classes that are giving this missing namespace error are Solution Items rather than specific to a project. The projects reference them by link. Anyone have thoughts on what the problem is? I've installed the chart component, .Net 3.5 SP1, and the Chart Add-in for Visual Studio 2008. UPDATE: I moved the items from Solution Items to be regular members of my project and I'm still seeing the same behavior. UPDATE 2: Removing the items from the Solution Items and placing them under my project worked. Another project was still referencing the files which is why I didn't think it worked previously. I'm still curious, though, why I couldn't use the namespace when the classes were Solution Items but moving them underneath a project (with no modifications, mind you) instantly made them recognizable. :\

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  • C# compiler error CS0006: metadata file is not found

    - by Rob
    I've built a c# compiler using the tutorial on MSDN and a few other resources including here, and I've gotten it to work until I add additional reference assemblies. My errors stem from adding "System.dll" and "System.Windows.Forms.dll" to the ReferenceAssemblies list. here's my code: private void SetUpCompilingParameters() { string ver = string.Format("{0}.{1}.{2}", Environment.Version.Major, Environment.Version.MajorRevision, Environment.Version.Build); string libDir = string.Format(@"{0}", Environment.CurrentDirectory); string raDir = @"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework\.NETFramework\v4.0"; string exWpfDir = string.Format(@"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v{0}\WPF", ver); string exDir = string.Format(@"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v{0}", ver); MyCompiler = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilingParam = new CompilerParameters(); CompilingParam.GenerateExecutable = false; CompilingParam.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilingParam.IncludeDebugInformation = false; CompilingParam.TreatWarningsAsErrors = false; CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", libDir); CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", raDir); CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", exDir); //CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", exWpfDir); CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Windows.Forms.dll"); } As you can see, I've explicitly referenced directories in CompilerOptions but its not helping. I'd like to test the solution on here on stackoverflow that utilizes: CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); but I'm having trouble using it for the general System.dll etc...

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  • Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

    - by Zarion
    Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

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  • Problem with flash in a webbrowser in a winform

    - by fgnt
    I have the oddest problem (but aren't all programming problems odd?). I have a winform that contains a webbrowser object that opens a website that has flash on it. This winform is running on a touchscreen computer (I can't find the brand or model number). Here is what I know: flash objects embeded in a website that is accessed via the webbrowser object in my winform do not function properly said flash objects only react to the first 'click' on them. So the website opens and if I hit a button, that button works but nothing afterward works within the flash object works. If my first 'click' misses a button, nothing works there after. trying to 'click' an flash button gives the same response as just hovering over the button This isn't a problem with the touch part of the touch screen as using a mouse also gives the same not working right response this isn't a problem with the web page as I can open up explorer on the same computer and navigate the webpage just fine from there The program also works 100% right on my personal computer so it shouldn't be the program's fault if it's not the touch screen fault and not the program's fault, I can't blame anything right now. the EXACT same program worked 100% on our old touch screen (which was having other problems so we had to get rid of it). Oh, also, surfing just a 'normal' webpage in a webbrowser in the winform works just fine.

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  • How to test the expectation on the eventSpy

    - by Lorraine Bernard
    I am trying to test a backbone.model when saving. Here's my piece of code. As you can see from the comment there is a problem with toHaveBeenCalledOnce method. P.S.: I am using jasmine 1.2.0 and Sinon.JS 1.3.4 describe('when saving', function () { beforeEach(function () { this.server = sinon.fakeServer.create(); this.responseBody = '{"id":3,"title":"Hello","tags":["garden","weekend"]}'; this.server.respondWith( 'POST', Routing.generate(this.apiName), [ 200, {'Content-Type': 'application/json'}, this.responseBody ] ); this.eventSpy = sinon.spy(); }); afterEach(function() { this.server.restore(); }); it('should not save when title is empty', function() { this.model.bind('error', this.eventSpy); this.model.save({'title': ''}); expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledOnce(); // TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'toHaveBeenCalledOnce' expect(this.eventSpy).toHaveBeenCalledWith(this.model, 'cannot have an empty title'); }); }); console.log(expect(this.eventSpy));

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  • jsf immediate="true" question regarding binding to session bean

    - by jamiebarrow
    Hi, I have a listing page that goes to an add page. The add page has a name textbox whose value is bound to a session scoped bean. The listing page has an add button that goes via an action method to the add page. This action method clears the object that the name textbox is bound to. I also have a cancel button on the add page, which is bound to an action method that again clears the value that the name textbox is bound to. If nothing is set to immediate, this all works fine. However, if I set the cancel button to immediate, if I enter values in the name field, and then click cancel, the action method is fired and clears the object in the backing bean and goes to the listing page. If I then click add, the action method clears the object again (ignore if it's best method or not) and then goes to the add page. I would now expect the add page's name textbox to be empty, but it's not?! Surely, since the add button is not immediate, the values should be re-bound and empty? Below is the relevant XHTML for the add button on the listing page <h:commandButton id="addButton" value="Add" action="#{myBean.gotoAdd}"/> Below is the relevant XHTML for the input box on the add page (myBean is session scoped), followed by that of the cancel button on the add page.: <h:inputText id="newName" value="#{myBean.newObject.name}" binding="#{myBean.newNameInput}" styleClass="name" /> <h:commandButton id="cancelButton" value="Cancel" immediate="true" action="#{myBean.cancelAdd}" onclick="return confirm('You sure?');"/>

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  • Nhibernat mapping aspnet_Users table

    - by Michael D. Kirkpatrick
    My User table I want to map to aspnet_Users: <class name="User" table="`User`"> <id name="ID" column="ID" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="UserId" column="UserId" type="Guid" not-null="true" /> <property name="FullName" column="FullName" type="String" not-null="true" /> <property name="PhoneNumber" column="PhoneNumber" type="String" not-null="false" /> </class> My aspnet_Users table: <class name="aspnet_Users" table="aspnet_Users"> <id name="ID" column="UserId" type="Guid" /> <property name="UserName" column="UserName" type="string" not-null="false" /> </class> I tried adding one-to-one, one-to-many and many-to-one mappings. The closest I can get is with this error: Object of type 'System.Guid' cannot be converted to type 'System.Int32'. How do I create a 1 way mapping from User to aspnet_User via the UserId column in User? I am only wanting to create a reference so I can extract read-only information, affect sorts, etc. I still need to leave UserId column in User set up like it is now. Maybe a virtual reference keying off of UserId? Is this even possible with Nhibernate? Unfortunately it acts like it only wants to use ID from User to map to aspnet_Users. Changing the table User to have it's primary key be UserId instead of ID is not an option at this point. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

    - by Tchalvak
    I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

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  • Unit Testing (xUnit) an ASP.NET Mvc Controller with a custom input model?

    - by Danny Douglass
    I'm having a hard time finding information on what I expect to be a pretty straightforward scenario. I'm trying to unit test an Action on my ASP.NET Mvc 2 Controller that utilizes a custom input model w/ DataAnnotions. My testing framework is xUnit, as mentioned in the title. Here is my custom Input Model: public class EnterPasswordInputModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is a required field.")] public string Password { get; set; } } And here is my Controller (took out some logic to simplify for this ex.): [HttpPost] public ActionResult EnterPassword(EnterPasswordInputModel enterPasswordInput) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); // do some logic to validate input // if valid - next View on successful validation return View("NextViewName"); // else - add and display error on current view return View(); } And here is my xUnit Fact (also simplified): [Fact] public void EnterPassword_WithValidInput_ReturnsNextView() { // Arrange var controller = CreateLoginController(userService.Object); // Act var result = controller.EnterPassword( new EnterPasswordInputModel { Username = username, Password = password }) as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.Equal("NextViewName", result.ViewName); } When I run my test I get the following error on my test fact when trying to retrieve the controller result (Act section): System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Thanks in advance for any help you can offer!

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  • How to handle SalesForce WSDL files for sandbox and production sites in ASP.Net?

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    I need to authenticate users and get info about them from an ASP.Net application. Since I have 2 sites (sandbox, production) and 2 org IDs - I needed to generate 2 SalesForce WSDL files. I diffed the 2 files (each about 600kb in size) and while they are 95% the same, there are enough differences strewn all over the place - enough for me to need to use them both. I added both as web references to my solution, and here's where my problem starts.Obviously, I cannot use both references in the same file, as they contain the same classes/functions. I had to write a quick-and-dirty solution over the weekend, so I just created 2 classes - each using a different web reference - but otherwise the exact functionality, and I use the appropriate one, based on the URL the user is coming from. This works well, but strikes me as a bad (read: quick-and-dirty) solution. My question: is there any way to do one or more of the following: change the web reference on the fly? use both web references in the same file, but put one in a different namespace? find a better solution to the whole situation? I nd up with a huge XmlSerializer.dll (3mb!) - probably due to using both huge WSDL files. Thanks for your time.

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  • Problems with reading into buffer using boost::asio::async_read

    - by Max
    Good day. I have a Types.hpp file in my project. And within it i have: .... namespace RC { ..... ..... struct ViewSettings { .... }; ..... } In the Server.cpp file I'm including this Types.hpp file, and i have there: class Session { ..... RC::ViewSettings tmp; boost::asio::async_read(socket_, boost::asio::buffer(&tmp, sizeof(RC::ViewSettings)), boost::bind(&Session::Finish_Reading_Data, shared_from_this(), boost::asio::placeholders::error)); ..... } And during the compilation i have an errors: error C2825: 'F': must be a class or namespace when followed by '::' : see reference to class template instantiation 'boost::_bi::result_traits<R,F>' being compiled with [ R=boost::_bi::unspecified, F=void (__thiscall Session::* )(void) ] : see reference to class template instantiation 'boost::_bi::bind_t<R,F,L>' being compiled with [ R=boost::_bi::unspecified, F=void (__thiscall Session::* )(void), L=boost::_bi::list2<boost::_bi::value<boost::shared_ptr<Session>>,boost::arg<1>> ] error C2039: 'result_type' : is not a member of '`global namespace'' And the code like this works in proper way: int w; boost::asio::async_read(socket_, boost::asio::buffer(&w, sizeof(int)), boost::bind(&Session::Handle_Read_Width, shared_from_this(), boost::asio::placeholders::error)); Please, help. What's the problem here? Thanks in advance.

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • How can use the currently displayed node to filter a block-level view on that node's page?

    - by Deane
    I have parent/child relationship set up via Node Reference. A Child record can have a Parent record selected from a Node Reference field (this is optional -- I can have Parent-less Children as well). I've created a Views block to appear on the Parent pages, below the content. It's going to show a table of all the Child nodes for that Parent. Problem is, right now it shows every Child node. I need to filter it for just the Parent being displayed. What I need to be able to do is add a filter to this View to effectively say, "Only show the Child nodes that are assigned to the Parent being displayed on this page." So, somehow I need to be able to get the Nid of the currently displaying node (which will be a Parent, in all cases when this block is displayed), and use that in a filter in my View. How exactly can I do this? (Initially I used an attachment view for this (as this page instructs). I created a page view to display the Parent, then an attachment view to display all the Children, then attached that under the page view. This worked, but it was almost absurdly complicated to set up, and it was an undesirable for a number of other reasons -- primarily that my Parent now has two dedicated URLs, it's own node-level page, and the similar page created by this view.) Using Drupal 6.15.

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  • Load image dynamically on Silverlight

    - by FelixMM
    I have a Silverlight app that has to load an image dynamically, depending on the image name. The approach that im taking right now is passing the image name by query string to the page and passing that as a param to the Silverlight objet tag This is the query string passed Response.Redirect("Build.aspx?img=" + this.PictureUploader.PostedFile.FileName; And I try to pass it to Silverlight like this: <object id="SilverlightObject" data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="Silverlight/iMapsSL.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40624.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <param name="image" value="<%# Request.QueryString["img"] %>" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40624.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe> in the last param tag with name=image value= Requerst.QueryString I catch the image inside the Silverlight app like this private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { string pictureName = ""; if (e.InitParams != null && e.InitParams.Count > 0) { pictureName = e.InitParams["image"]; this.RootVisual = new MainPage(pictureName); } else { this.RootVisual = new MainPage(); } } And when MainPage starts, I set the image source of the Image control like this this.Image.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(pictureName, UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute)); But Silverlight loads without an image, any help someone?

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  • Getting value of "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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  • Reading a large file into Perl array of arrays and manipulating the output for different purposes

    - by Brian D.
    Hello, I am relatively new to Perl and have only used it for converting small files into different formats and feeding data between programs. Now, I need to step it up a little. I have a file of DNA data that is 5,905 lines long, with 32 fields per line. The fields are not delimited by anything and vary in length within the line, but each field is the same size on all 5905 lines. I need each line fed into a separate array from the file, and each field within the line stored as its own variable. I am having no problems storing one line, but I am having difficulties storing each line successively through the entire file. This is how I separate the first line of the full array into individual variables: my $SampleID = substr("@HorseArray", 0, 7); my $PopulationID = substr("@HorseArray", 9, 4); my $Allele1A = substr("@HorseArray", 14, 3); my $Allele1B = substr("@HorseArray", 17, 3); my $Allele2A = substr("@HorseArray", 21, 3); my $Allele2B = substr("@HorseArray", 24, 3); ...etc. My issues are: 1) I need to store each of the 5905 lines as a separate array. 2) I need to be able to reference each line based on the sample ID, or a group of lines based on population ID and sort them. I can sort and manipulate the data fine once it is defined in variables, I am just having trouble constructing a multidimensional array with each of these fields so I can reference each line at will. Any help or direction is much appreciated. I've poured over the Q&A sections on here, but have not found the answer to my questions yet. Thanks!! -Brian

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  • Basic syntax for an animation loop?

    - by Moshe
    I know that jQuery, for example, can do animation of sorts. I also know that at the very core of the animation, there must me some sort of loop doing the animation. What is an example of such a loop? A complete answer should ideally answer the following questions: What is a basic syntax for an effective animation recursion that can animate a single property of a particular object at a time? The function should be able to vary its target object and property of the object. What arguments/parameters should it take? What is a good range of reiterating the loop? In milliseconds? (Should this be a parameter/argument to the function?) REMEMBER: The answer is NOT necessarily language specific, but if you are writing in a specific language, please specify which one. Error handling is a plus. {Nothing is more irritating (for our purposes) than an animation that does something strange, like stopping halfway through.} Thanks!

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  • .NET Remoting switching channels by itself.

    - by Casper
    Hi. We are having an odd problem with .NET Remoting. Basically, we have a server which registers two TcpChannels with ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(): one listens on port 50000, the other one listens on port 15000. We then have a client that registers a TcpChannel to be able to communicate with the server. We retrieve a an object from the server by calling Activator.GetObject() with the URI "tcp://serverip:50000/objectname" and this works fine, the client connects to the server on port 50000 and gets the object. However, when we start calling methods on that object, the connection to the channel on port 50000 is dropped, and a new connection is made to the channel on port 15000 automatically. This poses a real problem for us since we don't want traffic on port 15000 because that channel may not be bound to the same network adapter as the port 50000 channel on the server or that port may not be open in the firewall, which causes the remoting calls to fail naturally. This is very strange to us since the client has no knowledge in our code that there exists another channel on the server on port 15000 or what IP it listens on, yet it attempt to connect to it. Any help on this is greatly appreciated, /Casper c

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  • Design pattern to keep track UITableView rows correspondance to underlying data in constant time.

    - by DenNukem
    When my model changes I want to animate changes in UITableView by inserting/deleting rows. For that I need to know the ordinal of the given row (so I can construct NSIndexPath), which I find hard to do in better-than-linear time. For example, consider that I have a list of addressbook entries which are manualy sorted by the user, i.e. there is no ordering "key" that represents the sort order. There is also a corresponding UITableView that shows one row per addressbook entry. When UITableView queries the datasource I query the NSMUtableArray populated with my entries and return required data in constant time for each row. However, if there is a change in underlying model I am getting a notification "Joe Smith, id#123 has been removed". Now I have a dilemma. A naive approach would be to scan the array, determine the index at which Joe Smith is and then ask UITableView to remove that precise row from the view, also removing it form the array. However, the scan will take linear time to finish. Now I could have an NSDictionary which allows me to find Joe Smith in constant time, but that doesn't do me a lot of good because I still need to find his ordinal index within the array in order to instruct UITableView to remove that row, which is again a linear search. I could further decide to store each object's ordinal inside the object itself to make it constant, but it will become outdated after first such update as all subsequent index values will have changed due to removal of an object. So what is the correct design pattern to accurately reflect model changes in the UITableView in costant (or at least logarithmic) time?

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  • Netbean6.8: Cant deploy an webapp with Message Driven Bean

    - by Harry Pham
    I create an Enterprise Application CustomerApp that also generated two projects CustomerApp-ejb and CustomerApp-war. In the CustomerApp-ejb, I create a SessionBean call CustomerSessionBean.java as below. package com.customerapp.ejb; import javax.ejb.Stateless; import javax.ejb.LocalBean; import javax.persistence.EntityManager; import javax.persistence.PersistenceContext; @Stateless @LocalBean public class CustomerSessionBean { @PersistenceContext(unitName = "CustomerApp-ejbPU") private EntityManager em; public void persist(Object object) { em.persist(object); } } Now I can deploy CustomerApp-war just fine. But as soon as I create a Message Driven Bean, I cant deploy CustomerApp-war anymore. When I create NotificationBean.java (message driven bean), In the project destination option, I click add, and have NotificationQueue for the Destination Name and Destination Type is Queue. Below are the code package com.customerapp.mdb; import javax.ejb.ActivationConfigProperty; import javax.ejb.MessageDriven; import javax.jms.Message; import javax.jms.MessageListener; @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/NotificationQueue", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class NotificationBean implements MessageListener { public NotificationBean() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { } } If I remove the @MessageDriven annotation, then I can deploy the project. Any idea why and how to fix it?

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  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

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  • PHP syntax for referencing self with late static binding

    - by Chris
    When I learned PHP it was pretty much in procedural form, more recently I've been trying to adapt to the OOP way of doing things. Hoever the tutorials I've been following were produced before PHP 5.3 when late static binding was introduced. What I want to know is how do I reference self when calling a function from a parent class. For example these two methods were written for a User class which is a child of DatabaseObject. Right now they're sitting inside the User class, but, as they're used in other child classes of DatabaseObject I'd like to promote them to be included inside DatabaseObject. public static function find_all() { global $database; $result_set = self::find_by_sql("select * from ".self::$table_name); return $result_set; } and: protected function cleaned_attributes() { global $database; $clean_attributes = array(); foreach($this->attributes() as $key => $value) { $clean_attributes[$key] = $database->escape_value($value); } return $clean_attributes; } So I have three questions: 1) How do I change the self:: reference when I move it to the parent. Is it static:: or something similar? 2) When calling the function from my code do I call it in the same way, as a function of the child class eg User::find_all() or is there a change there also? 3) Is there anything else I need to know before I start chopping bits up?

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