Search Results

Search found 14159 results on 567 pages for 'notes from the field'.

Page 512/567 | < Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >

• Export to csv, string w/ comma in it, splits it up

  - by Brad

  This code exports data into a csv file, which is opened within Excel. When a string has a comma within it, it messes up the order of the data. I need help modifying my code below to resolve any data that contains a comma within it, to not to create a new column. I am assuming it will pass each string within double quotes, so any comma within those quotes, then it will make an exception. Any help is appreciated. $result = mysql_query("select lname, fname, email, dtelephone, etelephone, contactwhen, comments, thursday, friday, saturday, sunday, monday FROM volunteers_2010"); $csv_output .= "Last Name,First Name,Email,Telephone (Day),Telephone (Evening),Contact When,Comments,Thursday,Friday,Saturday,Sunday,Monday,Comments\n"; $i = 0; if (mysql_num_rows($result) > 0) { while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $csv_output .= $row['Field'].", "; $i++; } } $csv_output .= "\n"; $values = mysql_query("SELECT lname, fname, email, dtelephone, etelephone, contactwhen, comments, thursday, friday, saturday, sunday, monday FROM volunteers_2010 WHERE venue_id = $venue_id"); while ($rowr = mysql_fetch_row($values)) { for ($j=0;$j<$i;$j++) { $csv_output .= $rowr[$j].", "; } $csv_output .= "\n"; }

  Read the article

• What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

  - by beemaster

  Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

  Read the article

• Rails - Update a single attribute : link with custom action or form with hidden fields?

  - by MrRuru

  Let's say I have a User model, with a facebook_uid field corresponding to the user's facebook id. I want to allow the user to unlink his facebook account. Do do so, I need to set this attribute to nil. I currently see 2 ways of doing this First way : create a custom action and link to it # app/controllers/users_controller.rb def unlink_facebook_account @user = User.find params[:id] # Authorization checks go here @user.facebook_uid = nil @user.save # Redirection go here end # config/routes.rb ressources :users do get 'unlink_fb', :on => :member, :as => unlink_fb end # in a view = link_to "Unlink your facebook account", unlink_fb_path(@user) Second way : create a form to the existing update action # app/views/user/_unlink_fb_form.html.haml = form_for @user, :method => "post" do |f| = f.hidden_field :facebook_uid, :value => nil = f.submit "Unlink Facebook account" I'm not a big fan of either way. In the first one, I have to add a new action for something that the update controller already can do. In the second one, I cannot set the facebook_uid to nil without customizing the update action, and I cannot have a link instead of a button without adding some javascript. Still, what would you recommend as the best and most elegant solution for this context? Did I miss a third alternative?

  Read the article

• Preserving the order of annotations

  - by Ragunath Jawahar

  When obtaining the list of fields using getFields() and getDeclaredFields(), the order of the fields in a Java class is undefined. I need this order in my validation library. Since the order is not preserved (though some claim that the order is preserved in JDK 6 and above but is not guaranteed across VMs). I cannot speculate on this because the order of annotations across fields is absolutely essential for the library. One way to get around this is to have an order or an index attribute in my Annotation. What worries me is that the code could become a bit cumbersome for maintaining in the following case. If the use wants to insert a new annotated field then, he might have to renumber all the other annotations in the class. I could have the order or index as a floating point number - float or double but , it wouldn't look good to have order such as 1, 1.5, 2, etc., What would be an elegant solution for this problem? Here is a example code so that you can get an idea about the problem: @Required @TextRule (minLength = 6, message = "You need at least 6 characters.") private EditText usernameEditText; @Password private EditText passwordEditText; @ConfirmPassword private EditText confirmPasswordEditText; @Email private EditText emailEditText;

  Read the article

• ASP.NET Custom/User Control With Children

  - by Bob Fincheimer

  I want a create a custom/user control that has children (NOT a template control). For Example, I want my control to have the following markup: <div runat="server" id="div"> <label runat="server" id="label"></label> <div class="field"> <!-- INSERT CHILDREN HERE --> </div> </div> and when I want to use it on a page I simply: <ctr:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="myControl"> <span>This is a child</span> <div>And another <b>child</b> </ctr:MyUserControl> The child controls inside my user control will be inserted into my user control somewhere. What is the best way to accomplish this. The functionality is similar to a asp:PlaceHolder but I want to add a couple more options as well as additional markup and the such. Also the child controls still need to be able to be accessed by the page.

  Read the article

• [iphone] method created in a seperate class returns "out of scope"

  - by Dror Sabbag

  Hey, I have created a Class (subclass of NSObject) which will hold all my SQLs/dbConnections etc.. in a seperate viewcontroller, i have instantiated the SQL's class and performed some actions, all went trough OK. but. one of my methods in the SQL's class is a method defined as follows: -(NSString *)queryTable:(NSUInteger *)fieldnum //query from db, and assign the field value into "fieldName" dbEntity = fieldName; [fieldName release]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } return dbEntity; } dbEntity is defined as NSString, and i have set it as a nonatoimc-retain property @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString *dbEntity; when ever i call this method out from my viewController and debug step by step, i see that the method is running, it is quering from the db as expected, but when it passes the value into dbEntity the values in dbEntity are suddenly "out of scope" that is... if i browse this specific action: dbEntity = fieldName; i can see values inside fieldName, but see "out of scope" in dbEntity. Why is that?!? what is wrong with dbEntity definitions? Any help will be appriciated.

  Read the article

• Google App Engine/GWT/Eclipse Plugin Newbie Question- how to autobuild client side resources?

  - by Dieter Hanover

  Hi there, I'm tinkering with the default GWT application generated by the Google Eclipse plugin when I click the Google "New Web Application Project" button in Eclipse 3.5. This will no doubt be familiar to many of you.. basically there is an h1 title stating "Web Application Starter Project," a text field, and a Send button. What I've found is that whenever I make changes to the client side resources, e.g. change the text on the Send button to "Submit" in the .java file, Eclipse does not appear to autobuild these resources. In fact I have to rebuild the entire project in order for these changes to be reflected in my browser. I do have "build automatically" selected in eclipse. I should state that this is my second GWT project, the first was almost entirely server side (restlet on GAE) and everything built automatically nicely. When I first tried this new project with updated client resources, on refreshing my browser, the browser stated "you may need to (re)compile your project." I'm not sure if this is relevant but I thought I'd mention it all the same. So what's going on? How do I get Eclipse/GWT to autobuild these client side resources? Cheers for any help you can offer! :-)

  Read the article

• Will these security functions be enough? (PHP)

  - by ggfan

  I am trying to secure my site so I don't have sql injections and xss scripting. Here's my code. //here's the from, for brevity, i just show a field for users to put firstname <form> <label for="first_name" class="styled">First Name:</label> <input type="text" id="first_name" name="first_name" value="<?php if (!empty($first_name)) echo $first_name; ?>" /><br /> //submit button etc </form> if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { //gets rid of extra whitesapce and escapes $first_name = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['first_name'])); //check if $first_name is a string if(!is_string($first_name) { echo "not string"; } //then insert into the database. ....... } mysqli_real_espace_string: I know that this func escapes certain letters like \n \r, so when the data gets inputted into the dbc, it would have '\' next to all the escaped letters? --Will this script be enough to prevent most sql injections? just escaping and checking if the data is a string. For integers values(like users putting in prices), i just: is_numeric(). --How should I use htmlspecialchars? Should I use it only when echoing and displaying user data? Or should I also use this too when inputting data to a dbc? --When should I use strip_tags() or htmlspecialchars? SOO with all these function... if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { //gets rid of extra whitesapce and escapes $first_name = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['first_name'])); //check if $first_name is a string if(!is_string($first_name) { echo "not string"; } //gets rid of any <,>,& htmlspecialchars($first_name); //strips any tags with the first name strip_tags($first_name) //then insert into the database. ....... } Which funcs should I use for sql injections and which ones should I use for xss?

  Read the article

• A very interesting MYSQL problem (related to indexing, million records, algorithm.)

  - by terence410

  This problem is pretty hard to describe and therefore difficult to search the answer. I hope some expert could share you opinions on that. I have a table with around 1 million of records. The table structure is similar to something like this: items{ uid (primary key, bigint, 15) updated (indexed, int, 11) enabled (indexed, tinyint, 1) } The scenario is like this. I have to select all of the records everyday and do some processing. It takes around 3 second to handle each item. I have written a PHP script to fetch 200 items each time using the following. select * from items where updated unix_timestamp(now()) - 86400 and enabled = 1 limit 200; I will then update the "updated" field of the selected items to make sure that it wont' be selected again within one day. The selected query is something like that. update items set updated = unix_timestamp(now()) where uid in (1,2,3,4,...); Then, the PHP will continue to run and process the data which doesn't require any MYSQL connection anymore. Since I have million records and each record take 3 seconds to process, it's definitely impossible to do it sequentially. Therefore, I will execute the PHP in every 10 seconds. However, as time goes by and the table growth, the select getting much slower. Sometimes, it take more than 100 seconds to run! Do you guys have any suggestion how may I solve this problem?

  Read the article

• Discussion - Allowing / blocking user access to pages / Client Side Validation (Client Side Only!) -

  - by Ozaki

  TLDR Using plain HTML / Javascript (Client Side) I want to prevent viewing of certain pages. The user will have to type a username and password and depending on that they get access to different pages. Answers can NOT include server side whatsoever It does not matter if they can break it easily. There is no sensitive information etc. Also the target audience will not have access to internet OR probably know what a cookie is... At some point the user will have to type username / password.(I can define the cookie here) Currently I thought of using cookies to set a cookie for each page to say "true" / "false" but that would get messy with so many cookies. Or setting an array within a cookie for each page? I have div field "#Content" which as it looks encompasses all of my content on the page so blocking out content will be as simple as replacing it with ("sorry you don't have access") etc. For Example: $.cookie("Access","page1, page2, page3"{ expires: 1 }); I am looking for anyway to do this does not have to be with cookies. Would be nice to get a discussion of different ways this can be done. So the question is: What do YOU think would be a good way to go about doing this with client side validation? Also on another note discussion on how to make client side more secure or ways to do so are acceptable.

  Read the article

• Doesn't this defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties?

  - by flockofcode

  I know how to use properties and I understand that they implicitly call underlying get and set accessors, depending on whether we are writing to or reading from a property. static void Main(string[] args) { A a = new A(); (a.b).i = 100; } class A { private B _b = new B(); public B b { get { return _b; } } } class B { public int i; } What code (a.b).i = 100; essentially does is that first property’s get accessor returns a reference to an object _b, and once we have this reference, we are able to access _b’s members and change their values. Thus, in our example, having read only property only prevents outside code from changing the value of a reference variable _b, but it doesn’t prevent outside code from accessing _b’s members. So it seems that property can only detect whether we are trying to read from or write to a variable ( in our case variable _b ) located on the stack, while it’s not able to detect whether we’re trying to also write to members of an object to which the variable on the stack ( assuming this variable is of reference type ) points to. a) But doesn’t that defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties? Wouldn’t it be more effective if properties had the ability to also detect whether we’re trying to access members of an object returned by get accessor( assuming backing field is of a reference type )? thank you

  Read the article

• Rails nested association issue

  - by Ben Langfeld

  Ok, so I'm new to both Ruby and Rails and I'm trying to do what I believe is called a nested association (please correct me if this is the wrong terminology). I currently have a User model and a Domains model and I have many to many associations setup (using has_many :through) between the two, and this works fine. I now want to extend this to allow for a single role per domain per user (eg User1 is a member of Domain1 and has the role "Admin"). I have setup a Roles model with a single field (name:string) and have created three roles. I have also added a role_id column to the join table (memberships). I expected (and this is probably the issue) to be able to just use user1 = User.find(1) user1.domains.first => <some domain object> user1.domains.first.role => <some role object> but this returns a method not defined error. Can anyone tell me what I'm failing to grasp here? My model classes can be seen at http://gist.github.com/388200

  Read the article

• JQuery Autocomplete Form Submission

  - by user1658370

  I have managed to implement the jQuery autocomplete plugin on my website but was wondering if it is possible to make the form auto-submit once the user selects an item from the search. I have the following set-up: HTML Form: <form class="quick_search" action="../include/search.php" method="post"> <input type="text" name="search" id="search" value="Search..."> </form> JavaScript: $().ready(function() { $("#search").autocomplete("../include/search.php", { width: 350, selectFirst: false }); }); I have also included the jQuery and Autoplugin scripts. The search.php file contains a list of the search options. At the moment, the search works correctly and I just need it to submit the form once an item is selected from the list that appears. I tried to use the onClick and onSelect options within the search field but neither of these worked correctly. Any help would be much appreciated (I don't really understand js)! Thanks.

  Read the article

• saving mySql row checkpoint in table ?

  - by Keet

  hello, I am having a wee problem, and I am sure there is a more convenient/simpler way to achieve the solution, but all searches are throw in up a blanks at the moment ! I have a mysql db that is regularly updated by php page [ via a cron job ] this adds or deletes entries as appropriate. My issue is that I also need to check if any details [ie the phone number or similar] for the entry have changed, but doing this at every call is not possible [ not only does is seem to me to be overkill, but I am restricted by a 3rd party api call limit] Plus this is not critical info. So I was thinking it might be best to just check one entry per page call, and iterate through the rows/entires with each successive page call. What would be the best way of doing this, ie keeping track of which entry/row in the table that the should be checked next? I have 2 ideas of how to implement this: 1 ) The id of current row could be save to a file on the server [ surely not the best way] 2) an extra boolean field [check] is add to the table, set to True on the first entry and false to all other. Then on each page call it; finds 'where check = TRUE' runs the update check on this row, 'set check = FALSE' 'set [the next row] check = TRUE' Si this the best way to do this, or does anyone have any better sugestion ? thanks in advance ! .k PS sorry about the title

  Read the article

• Finding 'free' times in MySQL

  - by James Inman

  Hi, I've got a table as follows: mysql> DESCRIBE student_lectures; +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | course_module_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | day | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | start | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | end | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | cancelled_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | lecture_type_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | lecture_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | student_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | updated_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ I'm essentially wanting to find times when a lecture doesn't happen - so to do this I'm thinking a query to group overlapping lectures together (so, for example, 9am-10am and 10am-11am lectures will be shown as a single 9am-11am lecture). There may be more than two lectures back-to-back. I've currently got this: SELECT l.start, l2.end FROM student_lectures l LEFT JOIN student_lectures l2 ON ( l2.start = l.end ) WHERE l.student_id = 1 AND l.start >= '2010-04-26 09:00:00' AND l.end <= '2010-04-30 19:00:00' AND l2.end IS NOT NULL AND l2.end != l.start GROUP BY l.start, l2.end ORDER BY l.start, l2.start Which returns: +---------------------+---------------------+ | start | end | +---------------------+---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 09:00:00 | 2010-04-26 11:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 10:00:00 | 2010-04-26 12:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 10:00:00 | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 13:15:00 | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 14:15:00 | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 15:15:00 | 2010-04-26 17:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | ...etc... The output I'm looking for from this would be: +---------------------+---------------------+ | start | end | +---------------------+---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 09:00:00 | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 13:15:00 | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | Any help appreciated, thanks!

  Read the article

• table column accepting "0" as a member Id

  - by user682417

  I have two tables one is members table with columns member id , member first name, member last name. I have another table guest passes with columns guest pass id and member id and issue date . I have a list view that will displays guest passes details (I.e) like member name and issue date and I have two text boxes those are for entering member name and issue date . member name text box is auto complete text box that working fine.... but the problem is when I am entering the name that is not in member table at this time it will accept and displays a blank field in list view in member name column and member id is stored as "0" in guest pass table ...... I don't want to display the member name empty blank and I don t want to store "0" in guest pass table and this is the insert statement sql2 = @"INSERT INTO guestpasses(member_Id,guestPass_IssueDate)"; sql2 += " VALUES("; sql2 += "'" + tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text + "'"; sql2 += ",'" + tbIssueDate.Text + "'"; guestpassmemberId = memberid is there any validation that need to be done can any one suggestions on this pls... and this is the auto complete text box statement sql = @"SELECT member_Id FROM members WHERE concat(member_Firstname,'',member_Lastname) ='" + tbMemberName.Text+"'"; if (dt != null) { if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text = Convert.ToInt32(dt.Rows[0] ["member_Id"]).ToString(); } } can any one help me on this ... is there any type of validation with sql query pls help me .....

  Read the article

• How do I use requestFocus in a Java JFrame GUI?

  - by JohnWong

  I am given an assignment but I am totally new to Java (I have been programming in C++ and Python for two years). So we are doing GUI and basically we extended JFrame and added a couple fields. Say we have a field named "Text 1" and "Text 2". When user presses enter with the cursor in Text 1, move the focus to Text 2. I tried to add private JTextField textfield1() { textfield1 = new JTextField(); textfield1.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(200, 20)); textfield1.addActionListener( new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { textfield1text = textfield1.getText().trim(); textfield1.setText(textfield1text); System.out.println(textfield1text); textfield1.requestFocus(); } }); return textfield1; } But that doesn't work at all. I noticed that requestFocus is not recommended, and instead one should use requestFocusWindows. But I tried that too. Upon some readings it seems like I have to do keyboard action and listener? But my teacher said it only requires 1 line...

  Read the article

• While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

  - by Mahn

  I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

  Read the article

• What type of objects can be sent back to an action Method using HTML.HIDDEN()

  - by Richard77

  Hello, 1)Let's say I've this form: <%Using(Html.BeginForm()){%> <% = Html.Hidden("myObject", (cast to the appropriate type)ViewData["KeyForMyObject"]%> <input type = "submit" "Submit Object"> <%}%> 2) Here's the Action which's supposed to intercept the value of the object public ActionResult MyAction(Type myObject) { //Do Something with the object } Here's my question: What type of objects the Hidden field can support? In fact, when ViewData["KeyForMyObject"] contains a string, int, or bool, myAction is able to retrieve the value. But, when it comes to objects, such as List, and dictionary, nothing happens. When I debug to check the local values, I see null for Type myObject in the MyMethod. So what are the rules in MVC when it comes to a List or Dictionary? ================================= EDIT To make things simpler, can I write something like this <% = Html.Hidden("contactDic", (Dictionary<string, string>) ViewData["contacts"])%> and expect to retrieve the dictionary in the action Method like this public ActionResult myMethod(Dictionary<string, string> contactDic) { //Do something with the dictionary } Thanks for Helping

  Read the article

• Multilangual website using ASP and a database

  - by Noam Smadja

  i want to consult about something i do. my website has 3 languages. Hebrew (main), english and russian. i am using a database having a table with the fields: ID, fieldName, 1, 2, 3. where 1 2 3 are the languages. upon entering the website language 1 (hebrew) is chosen automaticly until you choose another. and saved as a session("currentLanguage"). i wrote a function langstirng whice recieves a field name and prints the value acording to the language in session("currentLanguage"): Dim languageStrings Set languageStrings = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") languageStrings.ActiveConnection = MM_KerenDB_STRING languageStrings.Source = "SELECT fieldName,"&current_Language&"FROM Multilangual" languageStrings.CursorType = 0 languageStrings.CursorLocation = 2 languageStrings.LockType = 1 languageStrings.Open() sub langstring(fieldName) do while NOT(languageStrings.EOF) if (languageStrings.fields.item("fieldName").value = fieldName) then exit do else languageStrings.movenext end if loop if (languageStrings.EOF) then response.Write("***"&fieldName&"***") else response.Write(languageStrings.fields.item(currentLanguage+1).value) end if languageStrings.movefirst end sub and i use it like so: <div>langstring("header")</div>. i find it stupid that i keep sending the query to the server on any and every page. since the multilangual table does not change "THAT" often i want to somehow save the recordset for the current browsing. I am looking help for THIS solution, Please.

  Read the article

• Is it possible in SQLAlchemy to filter by a database function or stored procedure?

  - by Rico Suave

  We're using SQLalchemy in a project with a legacy database. The database has functions/stored procedures. In the past we used raw SQL and we could use these functions as filters in our queries. I would like to do the same for SQLAlchemy queries if possible. I have read about the @hybrid_property, but some of these functions need one or more parameters, for example; I have a User model that has a JOIN to a bunch of historical records. These historical records for this user, have a date and a debit and credit field, so we can look up the balance of a user at a specific point in time, by doing a SUM(credit) - SUM(debit) up until the given date. We have a database function for that called dbo.Balance(user_id, date_time). I can use this to check the balance of a user at a given point in time. I would like to use this as a criterium in a query, to select only users that have a negative balance at a specific date/time. selection = users.filter(coalesce(Users.status, 0) == 1, coalesce(Users.no_reminders, 0) == 0, dbo.pplBalance(Users.user_id, datetime.datetime.now()) < -0.01).all() This is of course a non-working example, just for you to get the gist of what I'd like to do. The solution looks to be to use hybrd properties, but as I mentioned above, these only work without parameters (as they are properties, not methods). Any suggestions on how to implement something like this (if it's even possible) are welcome. Thanks,

  Read the article

• Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

  - by thr

  Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

  Read the article

• JQuery multiple id index with form submit

  - by RussP

  Hi folks, not sure how to do this as ID's are ment to be unique but this is a dynamically series of forms generated from a php array - based on reading the file names in a directory - with the same ID. What I need to do is identify which form so the data can be processed. Here is the form echo '<form method="post" action="" id="frmwidget">'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td>'; echo ucfirst($comments[0]); echo '</td><td>'; echo $comments[1]; echo '</td><td align="center">'; echo '<input type="checkbox">'; echo '</td>'; echo '</td><td align="center">'; echo '<input type="checkbox">'; echo '</td>'; echo '</td><td align="center">'; echo '<input type="checkbox">'; echo '</td>'; echo '</td><td align="center">'; echo '<input type="submit" id="cmdwidgets">'; echo '</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '</form>'; And here is my start of the Jquery $j(document).ready(function() { $j('#cmdwidgets').live('click',function(){ alert('Your widgets will load'); I will want to Ajax the form in here .. not just an alert $j('#wall').load("admin/inc/ajax-widgets.php"); return false; }); }); Yes I know the form could be 1 form not multiples, but for this purpose it needs to be multiple forms. And yes I know the form is incomplete i.e. field names etc. Any help/suggestions please - thanks in advance

  Read the article

• MS Access Form - Horizontal Anchor Affecting Data Update

  - by nicholas

  Running Access 2007 with a databound form. The form Record Source is set to a query, and all fields in the form have a defined Control Source; nothing fancy, just field names. The form is a Single form with record navigation buttons which perform a "Next Record" and "Previous Record" actions. As I navigate the records the controls in the header update correctly. However, if I change a control Horizontal Anchor property to "Right" the fields no longer update on record navigation. This is observed for both text box and combo box controls. I can switch the anchoring back to "Left" and the updating works as it should. Is there some reason anchoring would affect a control updating of in an Access form? Or is this a bug that has been observed before? The only workaround I can think of is to assign the control text/value property in the form OnCurrent event, but this seems somewhat sloppy. Am I missing something here?

  Read the article

• onKeypress Enter Key event on textfield not working in Chrome

  - by rlcrews

  I have a question along the same vein as the one asked here regarding how the enter key is handled in chrome. The effect I am trying to accomplish is to allow the enter key to call a click event of one a button while focus in within the current field. To accomplish this I am using the following code: javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> //attempting to capture keypress for chrome here but this is not working $("#txtContainer").keypress(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == '13') { e.preventDefault(); doClick(buttonname, e); return false; } }); function doClick(buttonName, e) { var key; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; //IE else key = e.which; //firefox if (key == 13) { var btn = document.getElementById(buttonName); if (btn != null) { btn.click(); event.keyCode = 0 } } } </script> within the aspx <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:LinkButton ID="newBtn" runat="server" OnClick="btnLogin_Click" Text="ASP Link" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtContainer" runat="server" Width="100" /> <asp:Label ID="time_lbl" runat="server" /> </div> </form> and within the code behind aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { txtContainer.Attributes.Add("onKeyPress", "doClick('" + newBtn.ClientID + "',event)"); } } public void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { time_lbl.Text = txtContainer.Text; } The above code works fine in FF and IE however chrome continues to submit the entire form vs. capturing the keypress on the enterkey. Thank you for any suggestions.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >