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• Changing Apache2.2.11 httpd.conf has no effect

  - by Adrian

  Hi, Hopefully someone can help here. I recently installed wampserver ver 2.0 with Apache ver 2.2.11. My issue is, I have some large php scripts which timeout at the default 5 min (300 sec) browser limit (I'm using ie8). It is critcal I get this limit extended. I have tried changing the httpd.conf file to include the following: TimeOut 1200 My objective was to set the timeout at 1200 seconds, or 20 min. I had just chosen a random location to place this directive within the httpd.conf file as I cannot locate any documentation to suggest it belongs in a specific place within the file. Regardless, the changes I make appear in the httpd.conf file that can be found in the system tray for wampserver, however they have no effect - the browser still times out after 5 minutes. I thought perhaps I had the capitals incorrect, so I changed to: Timeout 1200 This change had no effect either. Can someone please help, this is very frustrating. Maybe the command can only be used within a specific module? If so, I have no idea which one, nor do I know the syntax to specify this. Regards Adrian.

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• NMEA data received but empty. Is there any secret?

  - by Roland Bertolom

  I have a tablet "Futjitsu Stylistic Q550". It's running on Windows 7 (not Phone!). It has a built-in GPS-receiver "Sierra Wireless". I need to parse NMEA data from COM-port. I can do it but it's always empty! Like "$GPRMC,,V,,,,,,,,,,N*53". I've tried standing on open space a long time (so my Android device had located me via GPS for a long time) but NMEA data still empty. So I suppose that GPS is off. But I don't know how to figure it out. I've tried send to COM port $PARAM,START,0*61 but no changes. I've tried to insert SIM-card into the device, as it was suggested on one forum but result was the same. Well is it possible that GPS is idle or something or it's just not working? And if it is idle or off how can I enable it? And.. That looks strange but GSV enumerates satellites but everyone of them has still no data e.g.: $GPGSV,4,1,16,32,,,,11,,,,23,,,*78

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• Java applet loading images from external jars

  - by Mathias

  I have a jar on a server, and users should be able to develop extensions for it. Therefore the jars main class should be extended and some resources should be added to a second user created jar which will be loaded from another server or locally. Now I have problems accessing the resources (images) from the user loaded jars. Heres is the structure: My Server: game.jar containing game.class images.class ... image1.png (...) Local: user.jar containing: user.class extends game userimage.png The extension is loaded via Greasemonkey, it modifies the "archive" attribute to "/home/username/user.jar, game.jar" and the "code" attribute to "user.class". The user should be able to overwrite already defined images. If the image does not exist in game.jar, it is loaded correctly from user.jar. But the images loaded early in the game are always loaded from the game.jar, others seem to be overwritten correctly by the user. Is there a way to make sure they are always loaded in the correct order? This might be because of some caching mechanism. Because Greasemonkey removes the game from the page, changes the archive and code and reinsert it, the game is loaded without a mod for a brief second. In that time, images are loaded as expected from game jar, but those are the ones not being overwritable by the user. But how to avoid it? Another thing: If I overwrite the "run" method in user.class, the game is unable to load any image at all. Not from the user.jar and not from the game.jar. Java doesn't find the image, as the URL object "getClass().getResource(imagename)" returns with null. I tried to overwrite the image.class, but that doesn't fix the problem, unless I overwrite every class from game.class involved into calling the image.class

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• Getting an non-object error in my php script

  - by Disowned

  Hey I was trying to call a script to made some changes to an html file, however when I run the script it tells me that it's making a call to a non-object. Obviously I did something wrong, but what? Here's the script. /*Dom controllers*/ $dom = new DOMDocument(); $dom->loadHTML('index.html'); $id = $dom->getElementById('contact_us'); $p = $dom->appendChild(new DOMElement('p')); $op = $dom->getElementsByTagName('p'); /* Dem POST vars used by dat Ajax mah ziggen, yeah boi*/ if (isset($_POST['Home']) && isset($_POST['About']) && isset($_POST['Contact']) && isset($_POST['sexyText'])){ $home = $_POST['Home']; $about = $_POST['About']; $contact = $_POST['Contact']; $text = $_POST['sexyText']; trim($home); trim($about); trim($contact); trim($text); } function post(){ global $dom, $id, $home, $about, $contact, $text, $textp, $p, $op; $textp = $dom->createTextNode($text); $p->appendChild($textp); $id->replaceChild($p, $op); $dom->saveHTMLFile('index.html'); } post(); echo 1; ?> The error happens at the replaceChild function.

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• How do I alter the default style of a button without WPF reverting from Aero to Classic?

  - by DanM

  I've added PresentationFramework.Aero to my App.xaml merged dictionaries, as in... <Application x:Class="TestApp.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="/PresentationFramework.Aero;component/themes/Aero.NormalColor.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/WPFToolkit;component/Themes/Aero.NormalColor.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="ButtonResourceDictionary.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> </Application> I'm trying to modify the default look of buttons just slightly. I put this style in my ButtonResourceDictionary: <Style TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Padding" Value="3" /> <Setter Property="FontWeight" Value="Bold" /> </Style> All buttons now have the correct padding and bold text, but they look "Classic", not "Aero". How do I fix this style so my buttons all look Aero but also have these minor changes? I would prefer not to have to set the Style property for every button.

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• Generic version control strategy for select table data within a heavily normalized database

  - by leppie

  Hi Sorry for the long winded title, but the requirement/problem is rather specific. With reference to the following sample (but very simplified) structure (in psuedo SQL), I hope to explain it a bit better. TABLE StructureName { Id GUID PK, Name varchar(50) NOT NULL } TABLE Structure { Id GUID PK, ParentId GUID (FK to Structure), NameId GUID (FK to StructureName) NOT NULL } TABLE Something { Id GUID PK, RootStructureId GUID (FK to Structure) NOT NULL } As one can see, Structure is a simple tree structure (not worried about ordering of children for the problem). StructureName is a simplification of a translation system. Finally 'Something' is simply something referencing the tree's root structure. This is just one of many tables that need to be versioned, but this one serves as a good example for most cases. There is a requirement to version to any changes to the name and/or the tree 'layout' of the Structure table. Previous versions should always be available. There seems to be a few possibilities to tackle this issue, like copying the entire structure, but most approaches causes one to 'loose' referential integrity. Example if one followed this approach, one would have to make a duplicate of the 'Something' record, given that the root structure will be a new record, and have a new ID. Other avenues of possible solutions are looking into how Wiki's handle this or go a lot further and look how proper version control systems work. Currently, I feel a bit clueless how to proceed on this in a generic way. Any ideas will be greatly appreciated. Thanks leppie

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• Need an Overview of Possibilities for multicolumn programming

  - by Sam

  Hi folks, From source1 and source2 i gather that IE9 will NOT support multi-column css3!! Since it is still the most popular browser (another thing i cannot understand), i am left but no other choice than to use Programming Power to make multi-columns work. Now, I use three divs that float to left, and which are manually filled with text. Please don't laugh i know its stupid! But I would wish to not to have to worry about the columns and just have a one piece of (un-interrupted) text which all goes into only 1 div, and then have a program smart enough to split it up into X equally wide columns. Question: before i start reinvent the wheel, what methods of programming power have you known that tackle this elegantly? Please suggest your best working multi-column layout sources so I can evaluate which option is the best (I will update the below table). Exploring all possibilities 2011 and further, to enable multi column text user experience: Language Author SourceCodeUsage WorksOnAllMajorBrowser? ================================================================================= html manual labour put text manually in separate left-floating divs "Y" // Upside: control! Downside: few changes necessitates to reflow 3 divs manually! CSS3 w3c css3.info/preview/multi-column-layout/ "N" // {-moz-column-count: 3; -webkit-column-count: 3; } Thats all! javascript a list apart will add url soon ? // php ? ? ? //

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• Problem updating values in combobox in vb.net

  - by user225269

  I have this code, but I have a problem. When I update but do not really made any changes to the value and press the update button, the data becomes null. And it will seem that I deleted the value. I've taught of a solution, that is to add both combobox1.selectedtext and combobox1.selecteditem to the function. But it doesn't work. combobox1.selecteditem is working when you try to alter the values when you update. But will save a null value when you don't alter the values using the combobox combobox1.selectedtext will save the data into the database even without altering. But will not save the data if you try to alter it. -And I incorporated both of them, but still only one is performing, and I think it is the one that I added first: Dim shikai As New Updater Try shikai.id = TextBox1.Text shikai.fname = TextBox2.Text shikai.mi = TextBox3.Text shikai.lname = TextBox4.Text shikai.ad = TextBox5.Text shikai.contact = TextBox9.Text shikai.year = ComboBox1.SelectedText shikai.section = ComboBox2.SelectedText shikai.gender = ComboBox3.SelectedText shikai.religion = ComboBox4.SelectedText shikai.year = ComboBox1.SelectedItem shikai.section = ComboBox2.SelectedItem shikai.gender = ComboBox3.SelectedItem shikai.religion = ComboBox4.SelectedItem shikai.bday = TextBox6.Text shikai.updates() MsgBox("Successfully updated!") Please help, what would be a simple workaround to solve this problem?

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• Cryptic Erlang Errors

  - by Jim

  Okay so I started learning erlang recently but am baffled by the errors it keeps returning. I made a bunch of changes but I keep getting errors. The syntax is correct as far as I can tell but clearly I'm doing something wrong. Have a look... -module(pidprint). -export([start/0]). dostuff([]) - receive begin - io:format("~p~n", [This is a Success]) end. sender([N]) - N ! begin, io:format("~p~n", [N]). start() - StuffPid = spawn(pidprint, dostuff, []), spawn(pidprint, sender, [StuffPid]). Basically I want to compile the script, call start, spawn the "dostuff" process, pass its process identifier to the "sender" process, which then prints it out. Finally I want to send a the atom "begin" to the "dostuff" process using the process identifier initially passed into sender when I spawned it. The errors I keep getting occur when I try to use c() to compile the script. Here they are.. ./pidprint.erl:6: syntax error before: '-' ./pidprint.erl:11: syntax error before: ',' What am I doing wrong?

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• how to make a software and preserve database integrity and correctness and please help confused

  - by user287745

  i have made an application project in vs 08 c#, sql server from vs 08. the database has like 20 tables and many fields in each have made an interface for adding deleting editting and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. now i have to 1) make to project in to a software which i can deliver to professor. that is he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. no vs 08 needed to start the debugging 2) the database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything win xp) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN i am able to change the connection string to the shared database using vs 08/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am i supposed to do that when its a software? 3)there will by many clients am i supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database, how will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? i mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. so its not necessary that only one user will write at a time. so is there any coding for this or? please help me out here i am stuck do not know what to do i have no practical experience, would appreciate all the help thank you

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• How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

  - by Jonathan

  I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

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• JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

  - by rattaman

  Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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• Rtti data manipulation and consistency in Delphi 2010

  - by Coco

  Has anyone an idea, how I can make TValue using a reference to the original data? In my serialization project, I use (as suggested in XML-Serialization) a generic serializer which stores TValues in an internal tree-structure (similar to the MemberMap in the example). This member-tree should also be used to create a dynamic setup form and manipulate the data. My idea was to define a property for the Data: TDataModel <T> = class {...} private FData : TValue; function GetData : T; procedure SetData (Value : T); public property Data : T read GetData write SetData; end; The implementation of the GetData, SetData Methods: procedure TDataModel <T>.SetData (Value : T); begin FData := TValue.From <T> (Value); end; procedure TDataModel <T>.GetData : T; begin Result := FData.AsType <T>; end; Unfortunately, the TValue.From method always makes a copy of the original data. So whenever the application makes changes to the data, the DataModel is not updated and vice versa if I change my DataModel in a dynamic form, the original data is not affected. Sure I could always use the Data property before and after changing anything, but as I use lot of Rtti inside my DataModel, I do not realy want to do this anytime. Perhaps someone has a better suggestion?

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• ASP.Net MVC DotNetOpenAuth Sample Issue on publish

  - by Roger D. Pharr

  I'm trying to use the MSDN Open ID project template for ASP.NET MVC C#. I've been able to configure a local copy to run well. But when I publish it to my hosting provider - it craps out. The error is "500 internal server error". Is there something I should know about publishing this template that I haven't noticed? Here are some more details (for diligence): Hosting provider is GoDaddy/SQL2005/IIS7. When I configure & publish the blank MVC template, it works. The local database publishes successfully, but I haven't been able to troubleshoot the connection in web.config yet. I expect there are connection string problems in the file. I tried disabling all of the references to log4net, as it seemed to be invoked several times on startup. But those changes did not seem to make a difference in either the local or published application performance. My IDE is Visual Studio 2010 Pro Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• Google maps KM bounds box reapplying itself on map zoom

  - by creminsn

  I have a map in which I apply a custom overlay using KMbox overlay to signify where I think the users general point of interest lies. What I want is to display this map to the user and allow them to click on the map to give me an exact location match of their POI. This all works fine except for when the user clicks on the map and changes the zoom of the map. Here's my code to add the marker to the map. function addMarker(location) { if(KmOverlay) { KmOverlay.remove(); } if(last_marker) { last_marker.setMap(null); } marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: location, map: map }); // Keep track for future unsetting... last_marker = marker; } And to show the map I have this function. function show_map(lt, ln, zoom, controls, marker) { var ltln = new google.maps.LatLng(lt, ln); var vars = { zoom: zoom, center: ltln, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, navigationControl: controls, navigationControlOptions: {style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.ZOOM_PAN} , mapTypeControl: false, scaleControl: false, scrollwheel: false }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), vars); KmOverlay = new KmBox(map, new google.maps.LatLng(lat, lon), KmOpts); var totalBounds = new google.maps.LatLngBounds(); totalBounds.union(KmOverlay.getBounds()); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function(event) { addMarker(event.latLng); }); } I have a working example at the following link here

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• Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

  - by mr.b

  In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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• When should we use Views, Temporary Tables and Direct Queries ? What are the Performance issues in a

  - by Shantanu Gupta

  I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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• Building static (but complicated) lookup table using templates.

  - by MarkD

  I am currently in the process of optimizing a numerical analysis code. Within the code, there is a 200x150 element lookup table (currently a static std::vector < std::vector < double ) that is constructed at the beginning of every run. The construction of the lookup table is actually quite complex- the values in the lookup table are constructed using an iterative secant method on a complicated set of equations. Currently, for a simulation, the construction of the lookup table is 20% of the run time (run times are on the order of 25 second, lookup table construction takes 5 seconds). While 5-seconds might not seem to be a lot, when running our MC simulations, where we are running 50k+ simulations, it suddenly becomes a big chunk of time. Along with some other ideas, one thing that has been floated- can we construct this lookup table using templates at compile time? The table itself never changes. Hard-coding a large array isn't a maintainable solution (the equations that go into generating the table are constantly being tweaked), but it seems that if the table can be generated at compile time, it would give us the best of both worlds (easily maintainable, no overhead during runtime). So, I propose the following (much simplified) scenario. Lets say you wanted to generate a static array (use whatever container suits you best- 2D c array, vector of vectors, etc..) at compile time. You have a function defined- double f(int row, int col); where the return value is the entry in the table, row is the lookup table row, and col is the lookup table column. Is it possible to generate this static array at compile time using templates, and how?

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• Force windows video driver reload. Is it possible at all?

  - by somemorebytes

  Hi there, Some drivers use parameters written in the registry to configure themselves when they get loaded at boot time. I can modify those values and then reboot, but I would like to know if it is possible to force the driver reload, making the changes effective without rebooting. Specifically, I am talking about the video driver (nvidia). I read somewhere, that calling through pINvoke() [User32.ll]::ChangeDisplaySettings() with a 640x480x8bits resolution,(which is so low that it should not be supported by a modern driver) will force windows to load the "Standard VGA driver", and making another call with the current resolution will load the nvidia driver again. This does not work though. At least in Windows 7, even if the low res is not displayed as "supported" the system reduces the screen to a little square in the center of the screen, showing the low res wihtout unloading the nvidia driver. So, is there any .NET/Win32 API, service to restart, or any way at all to force a video driver reload? Perhaps programatically disabling the device (as you could do from the Device Manager) and reenabling it again? Any idea? Thanks a lot.

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• Eclipse cannot find existing project in build path

  - by PNS

  Here is probably one of the idiosyncrasies of Eclipse and its handling of build paths, which cannot be fixed despite all sorts of workarounds tested so far. The issue relates to a workspace of several projects, each of which compiles into its own JAR. Dependencies among the projects are resolved by adding the relevant ones to the build path (no Maven or other external tool or plugin is used), via Project -> Properties -> Java Build Path -> Projects Among all these projects, a couple (say, com.example.p1 and com.example.p2) refuse to recognize a third (and simple) one (say, com.example.p3), while all other projects do. So, although P3 is added to the build path, all related classes from P3 are imported properly and the source code of each such class is accessible by hitting F3, Eclipse keeps complaining that The import com.example.p3 cannot be resolved and SomeClass cannot be resolved to a type where com.example.p3.SomeClass is one of the P3 classes. If instead of the P3 project I put its compiled JAR in the build path, the issue disappears. However, code in P3 changes frequently and it is a time waste to keep compiling and refreshing the workspace so that the change is picked up, not to mention that this should not happen in an IDE anyway (and it does not for the other projects using P3). Among the workarounds tried are things like: Removing and adding again P1, P2, P3 Cleaning up and recompiling everything Checking whether any other project loads the P3 JAR Putting P3 at the top of the Eclipse build path "Order and Export" list Using the "Fix project setup" suggestion of Eclipse (available when hovering the mouse over the red-underlined-error compilation line). Actually, this option offers adding to the build path either P3 or its JAR, but if P3 is added, the issue reappears. Any ideas?

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• Nullable<T> as a parameter

  - by ferch

  I alredy have this: public static object GetDBValue(object ObjectEvaluated) { if (ObjectEvaluated == null) return DBNull.Value; else return ObjectEvaluated; } used like: List<SqlParameter> Params = new List<SqlParameter>(); Params.Add(new SqlParameter("@EntityType", GetDBValue(EntityType))); Now i wanted to keep the same interface but extend that to use it with nullable public static object GetDBValue(int? ObjectEvaluated) { if (ObjectEvaluated.HasValue) return ObjectEvaluated.Value; else return DBNull.Value; } public static object GetDBValue(DateTime? ObjectEvaluated) {...} but i want only 1 function GetDBValue for nullables. How do I do that and keep the call as is is? Is that possible at all? I can make it work like: public static object GetDBValue<T>(Nullable<T> ObjectEvaluated) where T : struct { if (ObjectEvaluated.HasValue) return ObjectEvaluated.Value; else return DBNull.Value; } But the call changes to: Params.Add(new SqlParameter("@EntityID ", GetDBValue<int>(EntityID)));

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• Global javascript variable not accessible in jquery change event

  - by Dan

  I have to be missing something simple, but I'm really not sure what. I'm not a JS veteran, so this may be an easy answer - sure hope so :). I have a button that, when clicked, gets JSON data. When a drop-down is changed, I check to see if there is data, if there is, I want to clear it out as the drop-down indicates what data to retrieve when the button is clicked The Code: var selected, $locDialog; var locations = []; $(function() { // Save the selected Name selected = $("#selected option:selected").val(); // Setup Dialog for Locations $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false }); // If user changes the selected // 1. Prompt for confirmation // 2. If users confirms, clear data $('#selected').change(function() { if (locations) { var confirmed = confirm("Oh Rly?"); if (confirmed) { // Clear data var locations; } } }); // When user clicks "Location" Button.. $('.loc-select button').click(function() { if (!locations) { $.getJSON("/Controller/JSONAction", { selectedId: selected, pageNum: 1, pageSize: 100 }, function(data) { locations = data; $.each(locations, function(index, loc) { var $tr = $('<tr/>') .append($('<td/>') .append('<input type="checkbox" name="TEST-'+index+'" value="'+loc.Id+'"/>')) .append('<td>' + loc.Name + '</td>'); $("#location-dialog table tbody").append($tr); }); }); } $locDialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); }); Here's the thing, Inside the .click(...) callback, I can see locations is []. Now, when I am in the .change(...) callback, I see locations is undefined. Any help/insight, as always, is appreciated!

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• InputManager ignores cut/copy/paste when initiated from menu

  - by Wallstreet Programmer

  I'm using the InputManager to check if changes to controls are done by user or code. This works fine, except when user uses the context menu for cut/copy/paste. If the user do ctrl+v in a textbox, InputManager correctly notices it. However, if the paste is done from the context menu of the textbox, the InputManager never fires the PreNotifyInput or PostNotifyInput events. Anyone knows why? Or how to detect that these user actions? Below is a working sample. The lower textblock never gets updated when user uses the cut/copy/paste menu in the above textbox since PreNotifyInput never fires. XAML: <Window x:Class="InputMgrDemo.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <TextBox TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" /> <TextBlock Name="_text" /> </StackPanel> </Window> Code behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputMgrDemo { public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); InputManager.Current.PreNotifyInput += ((sender, e) => _userInput = true); InputManager.Current.PostNotifyInput += ((sender, args) => _userInput = false); } private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (_userInput) { _text.Text = (sender as TextBox).Text; } } private bool _userInput; } }

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• Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

  - by bert

  How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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• JSP:Include not rendering the page correctly

  - by sreekanth

  am having trouble with including a jsp page with tag. This is what is happening. I making changes to a portlet application running on Websphere 7 server. This is the hierarchy of the jsp pages. blankPage.jsp --bookingViewTabs.jsp -- availableRooms.jsp meaning blankPage is included in bookingViewTabs which is inturn included in availableRooms.jsp I have 2 problems with this. (1). The blankPage.jsp does not render correctly on the screen. It gets cutoff (2). The other is in blankPage.jsp there is a form called "guestProfileSearchResultsFormId". this form has several hidden fields for data. example, "guestId" which is a child of that form and can be accessed formname.fieldname, but when i include that page into another jsp as the first include(there are several includes on the page) under the another form tag, the form field is not being rendered as a child of the form, but as a sibling of the form. If i change the order and include some other page and include this, it is working as it is supposed to have. meaning with children intact. I don't understand this behavior. I HAVE ATTACHED A GIF IMAGE OF WHAT I SEE ON THE BROWSER Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance

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