Search Results

Search found 15115 results on 605 pages for 'state pattern'.

Page 512/605 | < Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >

• Need help with Javascript....I think

  - by Mikey

  I'm trying to bypass going through a bunch of menus, to get to the data I want directly. Here are the links I want to go to: http://factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53053072904&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53025981400&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53067011620&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 Notice, if you pull that up right now, you simply see a GIF outline of the map, however there is no map data "behind" it. However, if you go to: factfinder.census.gov/servlet/DTGeoSearchByListServlet?ds_name=DEC_2000_SF1_U&_lang=en&_ts=288392632118 Select Geographic Type: ..... ..... Census Tract Select a State: Washington Select a County: Pierce Select one or more geographic areas: Census Tract 729.04 Hit "Map It" The map will load perfectly. Also, until you close your browser, any of the other links will work perfectly. What I want to do, is be able to bypass these 5 steps, but obviously something is preventing this. Is there a feasible workaround? I have my own domain that I would be able to upload new Javascript or HTML files or whatever is needed.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

  - by Mad Halfling

  Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

  Read the article

• Bind postback data from a strong type view of type List<T>

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I have a strong type view of type List<List<MyViewModelClass>> The outer list will always have two lists of List<MyViewModelClass>. For each of the two outer lists I want to display a group of checkboxes. Each set can have an arbitrary number of choices. My view model class looks similar to this: public class MyViewModelClass { public Area Area { get; set; } public bool IsGeneric { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public bool IsChecked { get; set; } } So the final view will look something like: Please select those that apply: First set of choices: x Option 1 x Option 2 x Option 3 etc. Second set of choices: x Second Option 1 x Second Option 2 x Second Option 3 x Second Option 4 etc. Checkboxes should display MyViewModelClass.Area.Name, and their value should be related to MyViewModelClass.Area.Id. Checked state is of course related to MyViewModel.IsChecked. Question I wonder how should I use Html.CheckBox() or Html.CheckBoxFor() helper to display my checkboxes? I have to get these values back to the server on a postback of course. I would like to have my controller action like one of these: public ActionResult ConsumeSelections(List<List<MyViewModelClass>> data) { // process data } public ActionResult ConsumeSelections(List<MyViewModelClass> first, List<MyViewModelClass> second) { // process data } If it makes things simpler, I could make a separate view model type like: public class Options { public List First { get; set; } public List Second { get; set; } } As well as changing my first version of controller action to: public ActionResult ConsumeSelections(Options data) { // process data }

  Read the article

• How to edit files directly on webdav in windows.

  - by phazei

  I have a webDAV setup with the cPanel webdisk. I can connect to it through NetHood and I can drag and drop files to/from there. What I can't do is simply edit any of the files directly. I need to copy it somewhere else, edit it, then copy it back. That's essentially what is needed with ftp, though smart clients will monitor the file, making it easier than webDAV in the current state I'm using it in. I was under the impression that webdav was supposed to let me work on the files as if it were a local drive. But nothing can actually open the files. How can I go about bringing more functionality around to it? Or is this as good as it gets? I have tried 'net use q:\ https://myserver.com:2083' and 'net use q:\ '\myserver.com@SSL:2083\' but neither work and only throws: "System error 67 has occurred. The network name cannot be found." I ultimately want to use TortiseSVN with the webDAV so I can have my working copy running on the server.

  Read the article

• Type error while trying to implement the (>>=) function in order to create a custom monad transforme

  - by CharlieP

  Hello, I'm trying to create a monad transformer for a future project, but unfortunately, my implementation of the Monad typeclasse's (=) function doesn't work. First of all, here is the underlying monad's implementation : newtype Runtime a = R { unR :: State EInfo a } deriving (Monad) Here, the implementation of the Monad typeclasse is done automatically by GHC (using the GeneralizedNewtypeDeriving language pragma). The monad transformer is defined as so : newtype RuntimeT m a = RuntimeT { runRuntimeT :: m (Runtime a) } The problem comes from the way I instanciate the (=) function of the Monad typeclasse : instance (Monad m) => Monad (RuntimeT m) where return a = RuntimeT $ (return . return) a x >>= f = runRuntimeT x >>= id >>= f The way I see it, the first >>= runs in the underlying m monad. Thus, runRuntimeT x >>= returns a value of type Runtime a (right ?). Then, the following code, id >>=, should return a value of type a. This value is the passed on to the function f of type f :: (Monad m) => a -> RuntimeT m b. And here comes the type problem : the f function's type doesn't match the type required by the (=) function. Jow can I make this coherent ? I can see why this doesn't work, but I can't manage to turn it into something functionnal. Thank you for you help, and do not hesitate to correct any flaws in my message, Charlie P.

  Read the article

• Javascript Detect Control Key Held on Mouseup

  - by Michael Mikowski

  I've searched a good deal, and can't seem to find a satisfactory solution. I hope someone can help. While I am using jQuery, I am also writing many thousands of lines of Javascript. So a "pure" javascript solution is just fine. I'm trying to determine if the control key is physically held down on a mouseup event. That's it; there are no other preconditions. Does anyone know how to do this reliably, cross-browser? I've tried storing this in a state variable by noting when the key is pressed and released: // BEGIN store control key status in hash_state $().bind('keydown','ctrl',function( arg_obj_e ){ hash_state.sw_ctrldn = true; console.debug( hash_state.sw_ctrldn ); }); $().bind('keyup','ctrl',function( arg_obj_e ){ hash_state.sw_ctrldn = false; console.debug( hash_state.sw_ctrldn ); }); // END store control key status in hash_state However, this really doesn't work. If you test this using firebug and watch the console, you will see that auto-repeat seems to happen, and the value toggles. I inspected the mouseup event to see if there is anything useful there, but to no avail: var debugEvent = function( arg_obj_e ){ var str = ''; for ( var attr in arg_obj_e ){ str += attr + ': ' + arg_obj_e[attr] + '\n'; } console.debug(str); } Any help would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• javascript class calling XMLHttpRequest internally, then handling onreadystatechange

  - by Radu M

  this thing almost works: function myClass(url) { this.source = url; this.rq = null; this.someOtherProperty = "hello"; // open connection to the ajax server this.start = function() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { this.rq = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (this.rq.overrideMimeType) this.rq.overrideMimeType("text/xml"); } else this.rq = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); try { this.rq.onreadystatechange = connectionEvent; this.rq.open("GET", this.source, true); this.rq.send(null); this.state = 1; } catch (err) { // some error handler here } } function connectionEvent() { alert("i'm here"); alert("this doesnt work: " + this.someOtherProperty); } } // myClass so it's nothing more than having the XMLHttpRequest object as a member of my class, instead of globally defined, and invoking it in the traditional way. however, inside my connectionEvent callback function, the meaning of "this" is lost, even though the function itself is scoped inside myClass. i also made sure that the object that i instantiate from myClass is kept alive long enough (declared global in the script). in all the examples of using javascript classes that i saw, "this" was still available inside the inner functions. for me, it is not, even if i take my function outside and make it a myClass.prototype.connectionEvent. what am i doing wrong? thank you.

  Read the article

• android checkbox box issue

  - by raqz

  i have this check box in a alertdialog. when i try to check the state of the checkbox, the application force closes. any idea why? LayoutInflater factory = LayoutInflater.from(NewActivity.this); final View textDisplayView = factory.inflate(R.layout.nearestlocs, null); final AlertDialog.Builder newAlert = new AlertDialog.Builder(NewActivity.this); newAlert.setView(textDisplayView); final CheckBox checkBoxLab = (CheckBox) findViewById(R.id.checkboxlab); newAlert.setPositiveButton("Display on Map", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int whichButton) { if(checkBoxLab.isChecked()){ libDisplayFlag = true; } error log 03-13 08:01:58.273: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 03-13 08:01:58.292: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-13 08:01:58.292: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): at com.isproj3.NewActivity$3.onClick(NewActivity.java:158) 03-13 08:01:58.292: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): at com.android.internal.app.AlertController$ButtonHandler.handleMessage(AlertController.java:158) 03-13 08:01:58.292: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) xml <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:gravity="center" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1"> <CheckBox android:id="@+id/checkboxlib" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Library" android:gravity="left" android:textColor="#FF0000" android:paddingBottom="5px" android:textSize="07pt" android:checked="true" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/librarytext" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:gravity="center" android:paddingBottom="5px" android:textSize="8pt" /> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout>

  Read the article

• Which knowledge base/rule-based inference engine to choose for real time Runway incursion prevention

  - by Piligrim

  Hello, we are designing a project that would listen to dialog between airport controllers and pilots to prevent runway incursions (eg. one airplane is taking off while other is crossing the runway). Our professor wants us to use Jena for knowledge base (or anything else but it should be some sort of rule-based engine). Inference is not the main thing in Jena and there's not much documentation and examples of this. So we need an engine that would get messages from pilots as input and output possible risks of incursion or any other error in message protocol. It should be easy to write rules, and should be easy to provide engine with real time data. I image it something like this: A pilot sends a message that he lands on some runway, the system remembers that the runway is busy and no one should cross it If someone is given an instruction to cross this runway, the engine should fire a rule that something is wrong When the pilot sends a message that he left the runway and goes to the gate, the system clears the runway and lets other planes to use it. So is Jena, or prolog or any other rules engine suitable for this? I mean it is suitable, but do we really need to use it? I asked the prof. if we could just keep state of the runway and use some simple checks based on messages we receive and he said that it is not scalable and we need the knowledge base. Can someone give me any advise on which approach to use for this system? If you recommend k.b., then which one should we use? The project is written in java. Thank you.

  Read the article

• UIImagePickerController shows last picture taken instead of camera input

  - by jules

  I'm having a strange behaviour within my app. For taking pictures i'm using the following pretty standard code for displaying the UIImagePickerController: UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.allowsEditing = NO; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; [self presentViewController:picker animated:YES completion:nil]; It works perfectly fine the first time I tap the button which calls this action. The strange behaviour starts when I tap that button again. The UIImagePickerController starts again BUT it doesnt show the input from the camera anymore. It shows the last picture I've taken. More Details of this state: Tapping on the image shows the yellow square of the auto focus. (which it actually uses to focus the camera correctly) When I tap on the ImageCapture button - the correct image is taken and presented on the screen. If I take a picture and press 'Retake' the regular camera image is presented as input. More weirdness: It has nothing to do with the iPad I'm using. Creating a new example app which only has button which calls the code from above everything works perfectly fine. I assume it has something to do with the configuration of the app. Therefore I checked everything but could not find any differences which may cause this issue. Thanks in advance for any advice! Update: I do implement the UIImagePickerControllerDelegate in order to dismiss the UIImagePickerController.

  Read the article

• Facebook Graph API authentication in canvas app and track session

  - by cdpnet

  Short question is: how can i use graph api oauth redirects mechanism to authenticate user and save retrieved access_token and also use javascript SDK when needed (the problem is javascript SDK will have different access_token when initialized). I have initially setup my facebook iframe canvas app, with single sign on. This works well with graph api, as I am able to use access_token saved by facebook's javascript when it detects sessionchange(user logged in). But, I want to rather not do single sign-on. But, use graph api redirect and force user to send to a permissions dialog. But, if he has already given permissions, I shouldn't redirect user. How to handle this? Another question: I have done graph api redirects for authentication and have retrieved access_token also. But then, what if I want to use javascript call FB.ui to do stream.Publish? I think it will use it's own access_token which is set during FB.init and detecting session. So, I am looking for some path here. How to use graph api for authentication and also use facebook's javascript SDK when needed. P.S. I'm using ASP .NET MVC 2. I have an authentication filter developed, which needs to detect the user's authentication state and redirect.(currently it does this to graph api authorize url)

  Read the article

• vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

  - by intuited

  I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

  Read the article

• Is this a good approach to address double-base64-encoding?

  - by Freiheit

  My software understands attachments, like PNGs attached to user records. These attachments are usually sent in from outside sources as a Base64 encoded string. The database stores whatever data it is given, Base64 encoded or not. When I serve up the attachment for download I do this: if (Base64.isBase64(data)) { data = Base64.decodeBase64(data); } There is a potential for data that is double encoded. For instance the sender of a message had base64 encoded data, then encoded it again when building the message to send to me. I think the following code would address that circumstance: while (Base64.isBase64(data)) { data = Base64.decodeBase64(data); } So if data is encoded multiple times, it would be decoded until its in its 'raw' state and then served up for download. Is this approach an acceptable way to address that problem? Ideally some sort of checking could happen at the edge when I receive attachment data, but that will take more time. This looping seems to be a faster way to do it. The 'Base64' library is Apache Commons: http://commons.apache.org/codec/apidocs/org/apache/commons/codec/binary/Base64.html I trust it to properly identify Base64 encoded data.

  Read the article

• Automation Error upon running VBA script in Excel

  - by brohjoe

  Hi guys, I'm getting an Automation error upon running VBA code in Excel 2007. I'm attempting to connect to a remote SQL Server DB and load data to from Excel to SQL Server. The error I get is, "Run-time error '-2147217843(80040e4d)': Automation error". I checked out the MSDN site and it suggested that this may be due to a bug associated with the sqloledb provider and one way to mitigate this is to use ODBC. Well I changed the connection string to reflect ODBC provider and associated parameters and I'm still getting the same error. Here is the code with ODBC as the provider: Dim cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Dim wbBook As Workbook Dim wsSheet As Worksheet Dim rnStart As Range Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object. Set cnt = New ADODB.Connection cnt.ConnectionString = _ "Driver={SQL Server}; Server=onlineSQLServer2010.foo.com; Database=fooDB Uid=logonalready;Pwd='helpmeOB1';" cnt.Open On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE('Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0', & _ "'Data Source=C:\Database.xlsx; Extended Properties=Excel 12.0')...[SalesOrders$]" cnt.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the connection objects Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. cnt.Close If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing End If End Sub

  Read the article

• Android: How to get a custom view to redraw partially?

  - by Peterdk

  I have a custom view that fills my entire screen. (A piano keyboard) When a user touches the key, it would cause a invalidate() to be called and the whole keyboard gets redrawn to show the new state with a touched key. Currently the view is very simple, but I plan to add a bit more nice graphics. Since the whole keyboard is dynamically rendered this would make redrawing the entire keyboard more expensive. So I thought, let's look into partial redrawing. Now I call invalidate(Rect dirty) with the correct dirty region. I set my onDraw(Canvas canvas) method to only draw the keys in the dirty region if I do indeed want a partial redraw. This results in those keys being drawn, but the rest of the keyboard is totally black/not drawn at all. Am I wrong in expecting that calling invalidate(Rect dirty) would "cache" the current canvas, and only "allows" drawing in the dirty region? Is there any way I can achieve what I want? (A way to "cache" the canvas and only redraw the dirty area?"

  Read the article

• Entity Framework with ASP.NET MVC. Updating entity problem

  - by Kitaly

  Hi people. I'm trying to update an entity and its related entities as well. For instance, I have a class Car with a property Category and I want to change its Category. So, I have the following methods in the Controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var categories = context.Categories.ToList(); ViewData["categories"] = new SelectList(categories, "Id", "Name"); var car = context.Cars.Where(c => c.Id == id).First(); return PartialView("Form", car); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { var category = context.Categories.Where(c => c.Id == car.Category.Id).First(); car.Category = category; context.UpdateCar(car); context.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } The UpdateCar method, in ObjectContext class, follows: public void UpdateCar(Car car) { var attachedCar = Cars.Where(c => c.Id == car.Id).First(); ApplyItemUpdates(attachedCar, car); } private void ApplyItemUpdates(EntityObject originalItem, EntityObject updatedItem) { try { ApplyPropertyChanges(originalItem.EntityKey.EntitySetName, updatedItem); ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(updatedItem, originalItem); } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } public void ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(IEntityWithRelationships newEntity, IEntityWithRelationships oldEntity) { foreach (var relatedEnd in oldEntity.RelationshipManager.GetAllRelatedEnds()) { var oldRef = relatedEnd as EntityReference; if (oldRef != null) { var newRef = newEntity.RelationshipManager.GetRelatedEnd(oldRef.RelationshipName, oldRef.TargetRoleName) as EntityReference; oldRef.EntityKey = newRef.EntityKey; } } } The problem is that when I set the Category property after the POST in my controller, the entity state changes to Added instead of remaining as Detached. How can I update one-to-one relationship with Entity Framework and ASP.NET MVC without setting all the properties, one by one like this post?

  Read the article

• managed beans as managed properties

  - by Sean

  I am using JSF 1.1 on WebSphere 6.1. I am building search functionality within an application and am having some issues. I've stripped out the extras, and have left myself with the following: 4 managed beans: SearchController - Controller bean, session scope SearchResults - session scope (store the results) ProductSearch - session scope (store the search conditions) ResultsBacking - Backing bean for DataTable, used to determine which row was clicked, request scope The SearchController bean has, as managed properties, the other 3. All except ResultsBacking are session scoped. If there is only 1 item in the search results, I want to bring up that record directly. I call setFirst(0) for the data table in the ResultsBacking method (I want to use the existing method that handle which item was clicked, so this is called right after the setFirst). When I go to do another search, I get an IllegalArgumentException when calling getRowData in the data table. According to the api, this is thrown 'if now(sic) row data is available at the currently specified row index'. I'm confused as to why this happens. It works the first time but not the second. Do I need to remove the ResultsBacking on a new search to get rid of the old state?

  Read the article

• ActiveX control loading but not activating correctly (only when using in Reg Free COM)

  - by embnut

  I have an ActiveX control (created using C#) that I am adding to a form in Visual FoxPro using late binding. It works without problems when I register the control. I want to use reg free COM and created necessary manifest files. Now it load and displays in an inactive state until I double click or programatically activate it. I don't think it has anything to do with the reg free com manifest files. However is there something I need to do to set it up before/after making the late binding call AddObject()? this.AddObject('OleControl1', 'oleControl', 'SomeCompany.SomeOleControl') When I check the OleTypeAllowed Property of the OleControl created by AddObject() it is 1 (Embedded OLE object) instead of -2 (ActiveX object). So the OleControl got instantiated to the wrong type. I also tried the following: DEFINE(d) a subclass of OleControl and set the property OleTypeAllowed = -2. Used late binding to load the control. It did not work as required. The OleTypeAllowed came back as 1 Registered the ActiveX control. Added the ActiveX control to the project as a subclass using the visual editor. Unregistered the control. Used late binding to load the control. It did not work as required. The OleTypeAllowed came back as 1. Is it possible to load the OleControl as a ActiveX control? Any input from VB that I can convert to FoxPro would also be appreciated.

  Read the article

• Javascript redeclared global variable overrides old value

  - by Yousuf Haider

  I ran into an interesting issue the other day and was wondering if someone could shed light on why this is happening. Here is what I am doing (for the purposes of this example I have dumbed down the example somewhat): I am creating a globally scoped variable using the square bracket notation and assigning it a value. Later I declare a var with the same name as the one I just created above. Note I am not assigning a value. Since this is a redeclaration of the same variable the old value should not be overriden as described here: http://www.w3schools.com/js/js_variables.asp //create global variable with square bracket notation window['y'] = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows New instead of Old The problem is that the old value actually does get overriden and in the above eg. the alert shows 'new' instead of 'old'. Why ? I guess another way to state my question is how is the above code different in terms of semantics from the code below: //create global variable var y = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows Old

  Read the article

• Problem parsing an atom feed using simplexml_load_file(), can't get an attribute.

  - by Craig Ward

  Hi, I am trying to create a social timeline. I pull in feeds form certain places so I have a timeline of thing I have done. The problem I am having is with Google reader Shared Items. I want to get the time at which I shared the item which is contained in <entry gr:crawl-timestamp-msec="1269088723811"> Trying to get the element using $date = $xml->entry[$i]->link->attributes()->gr:crawl-timestamp-msec; fails because of the : after gr which causes a PHP error. I could figure out how to get the element, so thought I would change the name using the code below but it throws the following error Warning: simplexml_load_file() [function.simplexml-load-file]: I/O warning : failed to load external entity "<?xml version="1.0"?><feed xmlns:idx="urn:atom-extension:indexing" xmlns:media="http://search.yahoo.com/mrss/" xmlns <?php $get_feed = file_get_contents('http://www.google.com/reader/public/atom/user/03120403612393553979/state/com.google/broadcast'); $old = "gr:crawl-timestamp-msec"; $new = "timestamp"; $xml_file = str_replace($old, $new, $get_feed); $xml = simplexml_load_file($xml_file); $i = 0; foreach ($xml->entry as $value) { $id = $xml->entry[$i]->id; $date = date('Y-m-d H:i:s', strtotime($xml->entry[$i]->attributes()->timestamp )); $text = $xml->entry[$i]->title; $link = $xml->entry[$i]->link->attributes()->href; $source = "googleshared"; echo "date = $date<br />"; $sql="INSERT IGNORE INTO timeline (id,date,text,link, source) VALUES ('$id', '$date', '$text', '$link', '$source')"; mysql_query($sql); $i++; }` Could someone point me in the right direction please. Cheers Craig

  Read the article

• ASP Classic, SQL 2008, XML Output, and DSN vs DSN-Less Produces Chinese Letters

  - by RoLYroLLs

  I've been having a problem for the past month and can't seem to figure out what is wrong. Here's the setup and a little background. Background: I have a web-host who was running my website on Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2000. One of my webpages returned a result set from a stored procedure from the SQL server as xml. Below is the code: Stored Procedure: select top 10 1 as tag , null as parent , column1 as [item!1!column1!element] , column2 as [item!1!column2!element] from table1 for XML EXPLICIT ASP Page: index.asp Call OpenConn Set cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmd .ActiveConnection = dbc .CommandText = "name of proc" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@RetVal", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 4) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@Level", adInteger, adParamInput, 4, Level) End With Set rsItems = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") With rsItems .CursorLocation = adUseClient .CursorType = adOpenStatic .LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic Set .Source = cmd .Open Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With If NOT rsItems.BOF AND NOT rsItems.EOF Then OutputXMLQueryResults rsItems,"items" End If Set rsItems = Nothing Set cmd = Nothing Call CloseConn Sub OpenConn() strConn = "Provider=SQLOLEDB;Data Source=[hidden];User Id=[hidden];Password=[hidden];Initial Catalog=[hidden];" Set dbc = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dbc.open strConn End Sub Sub CloseConn() If IsObject(dbc) Then If dbc.State = adStateOpen Then dbc.Close End If Set dbc = Nothing End If End Sub Sub OutputXMLQueryResults(RS,RootElementName) Response.Clear Response.ContentType = "text/xml" Response.Codepage = 65001 Response.Charset = "utf-8" Response.Write "" Response.Write "" While Not RS.EOF Response.Write RS(0).Value RS.MoveNext WEnd Response.Write "" Response.End End Sub Present: All was working great, until my host upgraded to Windows Server 2008 and SQL Server 2008. All of the sudden I was getting results like this: From Browser: From View Source: However, I found that if I use a DSN connection strConn = "DSN=[my DSN Name];User Id=[hidden];Password=[hidden];Initial Catalog=[hidden];" it works perfectly fine! My current host is not going to support DSN any longer, but that's out of scope for this issue. Someone told me to use an ADO.Stream object instead of a Recordset object, but I'm unsure how to implement that. Question: Has anyone run into this and found a way to fix it? What about that ADO.Stream object, can someone help me with a sample that would fit my code?

  Read the article

• PCA extended face recognition

  - by cMinor

  The state of the art says that we can use PCA to perform face recognition. like this, this or this I am working with a project that involves training a classifier to detect a person who is wearing glasess or hats or even a mustache. The purpose of doing this is to detect when a person that has robbed a bank, store, or have commeted some sort of crime(s) (we have their image in a database), enters a certain place ( historically we know these guys have robbed, so we should take care to avoid problems). We came first to have a distributed database with all images of criminals, then I thought to have a layer of them clasifying these criminals using accesories like hats, mustache or anything that hides their face etc... Then, to apply that knowledge to detect when a particular or a suspect person enters a comercial place. ( In practice when someone is going to rob not all the times they are using an accesorie...) What do you think about this idea of doing PCA to first detect principal components of the face and then the components of an accesory. I was thinking that maybe a probabilistic approach is better so we can compute the probability the criminal is the person that entered a place and call the respective authorities.

  Read the article

• Why calling Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()) is a bad idea?

  - by Tal Kanel

  I've read some posts saying using this method is "not good", shouldn't been use, it's not the right way to "close" the application and it's not how android works... I understand and accept the fact that Android OS knows better then me when it's the right time to terminate the process, but I didn't heard yet a good explanation why it's wrong using the killProcess() method?. after all - it's part of the android API... what I do know is that calling this method while other threads doing in potential an important work (operations on files, writing to DB, HTTP requests, running services..) can be terminated in the middle, and it's clearly not good. also I know I can benefit from the fact that "re-open" the application will be faster, cause the system maybe still "holds" in memory state from last time been used, and killProcess() prevents that. beside this reason, in assumption I don't have such operations, and I don't care my application will load from scratch each run, there are other reasons why not using the killProcess() method? I know about finish() method to close an Activity, so don't write me about that please.. finish() is only for Activity. not to all application, and I think I know exactly why and when to use it... and another thing - I'm developing also games with the Unity3D framework, and exporting the project to android. when I decompiled the generated apk, I was very suprised to find out that the java source code created from unity - implementing Unity's - Application.quit() method, with Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()). Application.quit() is suppose to be the right way to close game according to Unity3d guides (is it really?? maybe I'm wrong, and missed something), so how it happens that the Unity's framework developers which doing a very good work as it seems implemented this in native android to killProcess()? anyway - I wish to have a "list of reasons" why not using the killProcess() method, so please write down your answer - if you have something interesting to say about that. TIA

  Read the article

• Having trouble coming up with a good architecture for a client/server application

  - by rmw1985

  I am writing a remote backup service meant to support 1000+ users. It is going to use librsync to store reverse diffs (like rdiff-backup) and make data transfer efficient. My trouble is that I do not know the "best" way to implement the client/server model. I have thought of doing it like rsync/rdiff-backup do it by having the client open an SSH connection and running a server executable and communicating across pipes. Another alternative would be to write a server which would handle authentication and communicate with the client via SSL. The reason I have thought of this is that there is "state" information like how many backup jobs are setup, etc. that must be maintained. Another alternative that I have thought about is running a "web service" using Pylons or Django to handle the authentication, but I do not know how to bridge that the the "storage" side. Since I am using librsync, I cannot use "dumb" storage. Is there a way to pipe data through Pylons or Django to a server side handler that would do the rsync calculation? This seems to me like maybe a dumb question but I am sort of lost. Any tips or suggestions from more experienced developers would be extremely helpful.

  Read the article

• DDD and Client/Server apps

  - by Christophe Herreman

  I was wondering if any of you had successfully implemented DDD in a Client/Server app and would like to share some experiences. We are currently working on a smart client in Flex and a backend in Java. On the server we have a service layer exposed to the client that offers CRUD operations amongst some other service methods. I understand that in DDD these services should be repositories and services should be used to handle use cases that do not fit inside a repository. Right now, we mimic these services on the client behind an interface and inject implementations (Webservices, RMI, etc) via an IoC container. So some questions arise: should the server expose repositories to the client or do we need to have some sort of a facade (that is able to handle security for instance) should the client implement repositories (and DDD in general?) knowing that in the client, most of the logic is view related and real business logic lives on the server. All communication with the server happens asynchronously and we have a single threaded programming model on the client. how about mapping client to server objects and vice versa? We tried DTO's but reverted back to exposing the state of our objects and mapping directly to them. I know this is considered bad practice, but it saves us an incredible amount of time) In general I think a new generation of applications is coming with the growth of Flex, Silverlight, JavaFX and I'm curious how DDD fits into this.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >