Search Results

Search found 15423 results on 617 pages for 'uses clause'.

Page 512/617 | < Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >

  • Constructor initializer list: code from the C++ Primer, chapter 16

    - by Alexandros Gezerlis
    Toward the end of Chapter 16 of the "C++ Primer" I encountered the following code (I've removed a bunch of lines): class Sales_item { public: // default constructor: unbound handle Sales_item(): h() { } private: Handle<Item_base> h; // use-counted handle }; My problem is with the Sales_item(): h() { } line. For the sake of completeness, let me also quote the parts of the Handle class template that I think are relevant to my question (I think I don't need to show the Item_base class): template <class T> class Handle { public: // unbound handle Handle(T *p = 0): ptr(p), use(new size_t(1)) { } private: T* ptr; // shared object size_t *use; // count of how many Handles point to *ptr }; I would have expected something like either: a) Sales_item(): h(0) { } which is a convention the authors have used repeatedly in earlier chapters, or b) Handle<Item_base>() if the intention was to invoke the default constructor of the Handle class. Instead, what the book has is Sales_item(): h() { }. My gut reaction is that this is a typo, since h() looks suspiciously similar to a function declaration. On the other hand, I just tried compiling under g++ and running the example code that uses this class and it seems to be working correctly. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • .NET HttpModule does not send form variables to PHP file on RewritePath()

    - by jammus
    Hello friends. We have an application running on IIS 6 which uses a custom HttpModule to rewrite urls. This works great (well done us) except in the case where the Context.RewritePath destination is a .php file. The php file is executed as expected, however the $_POST collection is empty meaning it cannot access any forms which are submitted to rewritten urls. The problem does not exist when rewriting to .aspx files as the Request.Form collection is fine. My question therefore has two parts: Why is the $_POST collection not being populated? Is there a way to ensure that the .php $_POST collection is correctly populated after a rewrite? I don't have much to show in the way of code. There's just a simple: context.RewritePath(newPath); once the HttpModule has figured out where to send the request. Edit: Interestingly, if I do var_dump(file_get_contents('php://input')); in the PHP file (method described here) the contents of the form is displayed. So the data is reaching the PHP script but not the $_POST array.

    Read the article

  • Scheme: Mysterious void in pattern match.

    - by Schemer
    Hi. I am writing a function called annotate that uses match-lambda -- often with recursive calls to annotate. Here is one of the pattern matches: (`(lambda (,<param1> . ,<params>) ,<stmts>) `(CLOSURE ENV (,<param1> . ,<params>) (lambda (ENV) ,(map annotate (map (lambda (x) (append `(,<param1> . ,<params>) (list x))) `(,<stmts>)))))) However, when this pattern is matched this is what returns: '(CLOSURE ENV (x) (lambda (ENV) ((CLOSURE ENV (x y) (lambda (ENV) ((+ x y)))))) #<void>) Specifically I can't figure out where "void" is coming from. In fact, if I include the line: ,(displayln (map annotate (map (lambda (x) (append `(,<param1> . ,<params>) (list x))) `(,<stmts>)))) it prints: ((CLOSURE ENV (x y) (lambda (ENV) ((+ x y))))) notably without "void". If someone could tell me what the problem is it would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What library can I use to do simple, lightweight message passing?

    - by Mike
    I will be starting a project which requires communication between distributed nodes(the project is in C++). I need a lightweight message passing library to pass very simple messages(basically just strings of text) between nodes. The library must have the following characteristics: No external setup required. I need to be able to get everything up-and-running in my code - I don't want to require the user to install any packages or edit any configuration files(other than a list of IP addresses and ports to connect to). The underlying protocol which the library uses must be TCP(or if it is UDP, the library must guarantee the eventual receipt of the message). The library must be able to send and receive arbitrarily large strings(think up to 3GB+). The library needn't support any security mechanisms, fault tolerance, or encryption - I just need it to be fast, simple, and easy to use. I've considered MPI, but concluded it would require too much setup on the user's machine for my project. What library would you recommend for such a project? I would roll my own, but due to time constraints, I don't think that will be feasible.

    Read the article

  • PHP While loop seperating unique categories from multiple 'Joined' tables

    - by Hob
    I'm pretty new to Joins so hope this all makes sense. I'm joining 4 tables and want to create a while loop that spits out results nested under different categories. My Tables categories id | category_name pages id | page_name | category *page_content* id | page_id | image_id images id | thumb_path My current SQL join <?php $all_photos = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM categories JOIN pages ON pages.category = categories.id JOIN image_pages ON image_pages.page_id = pages.id JOIN images ON images.id = image_pages.image_id ");?> The result I want from a while loop I would like to get something like this.... Category 1 page 1 Image 1, image 2, image 3 page 2 Image 2, image 4 Category 2 page 3 image 1 page 4 image 1, image 2, image 3 I hope that makes sense. Each image can fall under multiple pages and each page can fall under multiple categories. at the moment I have 2 solutions, one which lists each category several times according to the the amount of pages inside them: eg. category 1, page 1, image 1 - category 1, page 1, image 2 etc One that uses a while loop inside another while loop inside another while loop, resulting in 3 sql queries. <?php while($all_page = mysql_fetch_array($all_pages)) { ?> <p><?=$all_page['page_name']?></p> <?php $all_images = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM images JOIN image_pages ON image_pages.page_id = " . $all_page['id'] . " AND image_pages.image_id = images.id"); ?> <div class="admin-images-block clearfix"> <?php while($all_image = mysql_fetch_array($all_images)) { ?> <img src="<?=$all_image['thumb_path']?>" alt="<?=$all_image['title']?>"/> <?php } ?> </div> <?php } } ?

    Read the article

  • In SQL Server what is most efficient way to compare records to other records for duplicates with in

    - by Glenn
    We have an SQL Server that gets daily imports of data files from clients. This data is interrelated and we are always scrubbing it and having to look for suspect duplicate records between these files. Finding and tagging suspect records can get pretty complicated. We use logic that requires some field values to be the same, allows some field values to differ, and allows a range to be specified for how different certain field values can be. The only way we've found to do it is by using a cursor based process, and it places a heavy burden on the database. So I wanted to ask if there's a more efficient way to do this. I've heard it said that there's almost always a more efficient way to replace cursors with clever JOINS. But I have to admit I'm having a lot of trouble with this one. For a concrete example suppose we have 1 table, an "orders" table, with the following 6 fields. order_id, customer_id product_id, quantity, sale_date, price We want to look through the records to find suspect duplicates on the following example criteria. These get increasingly harder. 1. Records that have the same product_id, sale_date, and quantity but different customer_id's should be marked as suspect duplicates for review. 2. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, quantity and have sale_dates within five days of each other should be marked as suspect duplicates for review 3. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, but different quantities within 20 units, and sales dates within five days of each other should be considered suspect. Is it possible to satisfy each one of these criteria with a single SQL Query that uses JOINS? Is this the most efficient way to do this?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate will not insert a record

    - by Brian Beckham
    I have an application that is now 4+ years old that is exhibiting some odd behavior on our latest deployment. The application uses nHibernate for all inserts / updates / selects, etc. We are currently using .NET 2.0, and nHibernate 1.2 (I know, we need to upgrade) This deployment is on Windows 2008 Server x64, IIS 7.5 - what I have seen so far is that the application runs, but is unable to insert or update records in the DB - reads seem fine so far, but writes are a problem. SOME writes actually work, inserts into some small tables, but most never even make it to the DB. Using SQL Profiler, the insert / updates never make it to the server, and turning log4net up to DEBUG, and show_sql true - the select statements appear, but the insert / update statements never make it into the log at all, and never show up at the server. What's even more odd is that the application seems to be oblivious to this - the commandandclose runs without exception (open session in view with an httpmodule), the domain objects come back with uuid's generated, etc. but never get persisted. Certainly an upgrade is due, but I would hate to try it during a deployment, and without time to accurately test the app. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Invalid Argument javascript error only on certain computers

    - by Jen
    Getting an error whenever we click a particular button/link on our site. It is generating a javascript "Invalid Argument" error. I know in the other posts it is typically because it is a syntax error in the javascript however it only just seems to have started happening and it doesn't happen on all pcs. ie. in our client's environment if I remote onto their web server and view the uat website I get the javascript error. If I remote onto their sql server and view the uat website I don't get the javascript error. If it was a syntax error then I would always get the error wouldn't I? both browsers are the same version of IE6 (yeah I know...) :) I have tried deleting temporary internet files - including viewing the files and deleting them myself - but no joy. client uses citrix.. and they're all getting the error :( Any ideas would be appreciated - Thanks! :) Update - Sorry I haven't posted specific code as there is too much to post (and I'm not sure where the error is occurring). The "button" launches a new window which in turn opens up a couple of aspx pages and calls lots of javascript. So the window opens ok, and there's a function that gets called to resize the window - but before it calls the resizing of the window/content it throws the invalid argument error. Am busy trying to get alerts to trigger to see if I can see where it's falling over but so far no luck. Again not sure why this error doesn't occur when I use a particular PC (same browser version)

    Read the article

  • Type of member is not CLS-compliant

    - by John Galt
    Using Visual Studio 2008 and VB.Net: I have a working web app that uses an ASMX web service which is compiled into its separate assembly. I have another class library project compiled as a separate assembly that serves as a proxy to this web service. This all seems to work at runtime but I am getting this warning at compile time which I don't understand and would like to fix: Type of member 'wsZipeee' is not CLS-compliant I have dozens of webforms in the main project that reference the proxy class with no compile time complaints as this snippet shows: Imports System.Data Partial Class frmZipeee Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Public wsZipeee As New ProxyZipeeeService.WSZipeee.Zipeee Dim dsStandardMsg As DataSet Private Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load And yet I have one webform (also in the root of the main project) which gives me the "not CLS-compliant" message but yet attempts to reference the proxy class just like the other ASPX files. I get the compile time warning on the line annoted by me with 'ERROR here.. Imports System.Data Partial Class frmHome Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Public wsZipeee As New ProxyZipeeeService.WSZipeee.Zipeee ERROR here Dim dsStandardMsg As DataSet Private Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load This makes no sense to me. The file with the warning is called frmHome.aspx.vb; all others in the project declare things the same way and have no warning. BTW, the webservice itself returns standard datatypes: integer, string, and dataset.

    Read the article

  • iOS UIImageView dataWithContentsOfURL returning empty

    - by user761389
    I'm trying to display an image from a URL in a UIImageView and I'm seeing some very peculiar results. The bit of code that I'm testing with is below imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/user_dyn/1073/32/32"; imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/assets/profile_images/default/32_32/avatar-male-01.jpg"; NSURL *imageURLRes = [NSURL URLWithString:imageURL]; NSData *imageData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:imageURLRes]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageWithData:imageData]; NSLog(@"Image Data: %@", imageData); In it's current form I can see data in the output window which is what I'd expect. However if comment out the second imageURL so I'm referencing the first I'm getting empty data and therefore nil is being returned by imageWithData. What is possibly more confusing is that the first image is basically the same as the second but it's been through a PHP processing script. I'm nearly certain that it isn't the script that's causing the issue because if I use this instead imageURL = @"http://images.shopow.co.uk/image/product_dynimg/389620/32/32" the image is displayed and this uses the same image processing script. I'm struggling to find any difference in the images that would cause this to occur. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to handle build rule with unknown targets in OMake when target list generator is built

    - by Michael E
    I have a project which uses OMake for its build system, and I am trying to handle a rather tough corner case. I have some definition files and a tool which can take these definition files and create GraphViz files. There are two problems, though: Each definition file can produce multiple graphs, and the list of graphs it can produce is encoded in the file. My dump tool does have a -list option which lists all the graphs a definition file will produce. This dump tool is built in the source tree. I want this list available in the OMakefile so I can use other rules to convert the DOT files to SVG, and have a phony target depend on all the SVGs (goal: a single build command which builds SVG descriptions of all my graphs). If I only had the first problem, it would be easy - I would run the tool to build a list, and then use that list to build a target which invokes the dumper to output the GraphViz files. However, I am rather stuck on forcing the dump tool to be built before it is needed. If this were make, I would just run make recursively to build the dump tool. OMake does not allow recursive invocation, however, and the build function is only usable from osh. Any suggestions for a good solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

    Read the article

  • How to get Amazon s3 PHP SDK working?

    - by JakeRow123
    I'm trying to set up s3 for the first time and trying to run the sample file that comes with the PHP sdk that creates a bucket and attempts to upload some demo files to it. But this is the error I am getting: The difference between the request time and the current time is too large. I read on another question on SO that this is because Amazon determines a valid request by comparing the times between the server and the client, that the 2 must be within a 15 min span of one another. Now here is the problem. My laptop's time is 12:30AM June 8, 2012 at the moment. On my server I created a file called servertime.php and placed this code in that file: <?php print strftime('%c'); ?> and the output is: Fri Jun 8 00:31:22 2012 It looks like the day is correct but I don't know what to make of 00:31:22. In any case, how is it possible to always make sure the time between the client and server is within a 15 minute window of one another. What if I have a user in China who wishes to upload a file on my site which uses s3 for the cdn. Then the time difference would be over a day. How can I make sure all my user's times are within 15 minutes of my server time? What if the user is in the U.S. but the time on their machine is misconfigured. Basically how to get s3 bucket creation and upload to work?

    Read the article

  • Extracting DCT coefficients from encoded images and video

    - by misha
    Is there a way to easily extract the DCT coefficients (and quantization parameters) from encoded images and video? Any decoder software must be using them to decode block-DCT encoded images and video. So I'm pretty sure the decoder knows what they are. Is there a way to expose them to whomever is using the decoder? I'm implementing some video quality assessment algorithms that work directly in the DCT domain. Currently, the majority of my code uses OpenCV, so it would be great if anyone knows of a solution using that framework. I don't mind using other libraries (perhaps libjpeg, but that seems to be for still images only), but my primary concern is to do as little format-specific work as possible (I don't want to reinvent the wheel and write my own decoders). I want to be able to open any video/image (H.264, MPEG, JPEG, etc) that OpenCV can open, and if it's block DCT-encoded, to get the DCT coefficients. In the worst case, I know that I can write up my own block DCT code, run the decompressed frames/images through it and then I'd be back in the DCT domain. That's hardly an elegant solution, and I hope I can do better. Presently, I use the fairly common OpenCV boilerplate to open images: IplImage *image = cvLoadImage(filename); // Run quality assessment metric The code I'm using for video is equally trivial: CvCapture *capture = cvCaptureFromAVI(filename); while (cvGrabFrame(capture)) { IplImage *frame = cvRetrieveFrame(capture); // Run quality assessment metric on frame } cvReleaseCapture(&capture); In both cases, I get a 3-channel IplImage in BGR format. Is there any way I can get the DCT coefficients as well?

    Read the article

  • Large scale Merge Replication strategy - what can go wrong?

    - by niidto
    Hi, I'm developing a piece of software that uses Merge Replication and SQL Compact on Windows Mobile 6. At the moment it is running on 5 devices reasonably well. The issues I've come up against are as follows: The schema has had to change a lot, and will continue to have to change as the application evolves. There have been various errors replicating these schema changes down to the device, uploads failing due to schema inconsistencies. Subscriptions expiring (after 14 days) and unable to reinitialize with upload - AKA, potential data los of unsynced data up to that point. Basically, the worst case scenario is data loss, and when merge replication fails, there seems to be no way back to get the data off. My method until now has been to drop and create the subscription on the device. I don't hear many people doing this, though it seems to solve everything. The long term plan is to role this out to 500+ devices. Any advice on people who have undertaken similar projects, and how to minimise data loss and make it so that there's appropriate error handling code to recover from sync failures would be much appreciated. James

    Read the article

  • Greasemonkey failing to GM_setValue()

    - by HonoredMule
    I have a Greasemonkey script that uses a Javascript object to maintain some stored objects. It covers quite a large volume of information, but substantially less than it successfully stored and retrieved prior to encountering my problem. One value refuses to save, and I can not for the life of me determine why. The following problem code: Works for other larger objects being maintained. Is presently handling a smaller total amount of data than previously worked. Is not colliding with any function or other object definitions. Can (optionally) successfully save the problem storage key as "{}" during code startup. this.save = function(table) { var tables = this.tables; if(table) tables = [table]; for(i in tables) { logger.log(this[tables[i]]); logger.log(JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); GM_setValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user, JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); logger.log(tables[i] + "_" + this.user + " updated"); logger.log(GM_getValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user)); } } The problem is consistently reproducible and the logging statments produce the following output in Firebug: Object { 54,10 = Object } // Expansion shows complete contents as expected, but there is one oddity--Firebug highlights the array keys in purple instead of the usual black for anonymous objects. {"54,10":{"x":54,"y":10,"name":"Lucky Pheasant"}} // The correctly parsed string. bookmarks_HonoredMule saved undefined I have tried altering the format of the object keys, to no effect. Further narrowing down the issue is that this particular value is successfully saved as an empty object ("{}") during code initialization, but skipping that also does not help. Reloading the page confirms that saving of the nonempty object truly failed. Any idea what could cause this behavior? I've thoroughly explored the possibility of hitting size constraints, but it doesn't appear that can be the problem--as previously mentioned, I've already reduced storage usage. Other larger objects save still, and the total number of objects, which was not high already, has further been reduced by an amount greater than the quantity of data I'm attempting to store here.

    Read the article

  • Boost program will not working on Linux

    - by Martin Lauridsen
    Hi SOF, I have this program which uses Boost::Asio for sockets. I pretty much altered some code from the Boost examples. The program compiles and runs just like it should on Windows in VS. However, when I compile the program on Linux and run it, I get a Segmentation fault. I posted the code here The command I use to compile it is this: c++ -I/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/NTL-5.4.2/include -I/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/boost_1_43_0/include mpqs.cpp mpqs_polynomial.cpp mpqs_host.cpp -o mpqs_host -L/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/NTL-5.4.2/lib -lntl -L/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/gmp-4.2.1/lib -lgmp -lm -L/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/boost_1_43_0/lib -lboost_system -lboost_thread -static -lpthread By commenting out code, I have found out that I get the Segmentation fault due to the following line: boost::asio::io_service io_service; Can anyone provide any assistance, as to what may be the problem (and the solution)? Thanks! Edit: I tried changing the program to a minimal example, using no other libraries or headers, just boost/asio.hpp: #define DEBUG 0 #include <boost/asio.hpp> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { boost::asio::io_service io_service; return 0; } I also removed other library inclusions and linking on compilation, however this minimal example still gives me a segmentation fault.

    Read the article

  • OpenGL Mipmapping: how does OpenGL decide on map level?

    - by Droozle
    Hi, I am having trouble implementing mipmapping in OpenGL. I am using OpenFrameworks and have modified the ofTexture class to support the creation and rendering of mipmaps. The following code is the original texture creation code from the class (slightly modified for clarity): glEnable(texData.textureTarget); glBindTexture(texData.textureTarget, (GLuint)texData.textureID); glTexSubImage2D(texData.textureTarget, 0, 0, 0, w, h, texData.glType, texData.pixelType, data); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glDisable(texData.textureTarget); This is my version with mipmap support: glEnable(texData.textureTarget); glBindTexture(texData.textureTarget, (GLuint)texData.textureID); gluBuild2DMipmaps(texData.textureTarget, texData.glTypeInternal, w, h, texData.glType, texData.pixelType, data); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(texData.textureTarget, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR_MIPMAP_LINEAR); glDisable(texData.textureTarget); The code does not generate errors (gluBuild2DMipmaps returns '0') and the textures are rendered without problems. However, I do not see any difference. The scene I render consists of "flat, square tiles" at z=0. It's basically a 2D scene. I zoom in and out by using "glScale()" before drawing the tiles. When I zoom out, the pixels of the tile textures start to "dance", indicating (as far as I can tell) unfiltered texture look-up. See: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b_As2Np3m8A at 25s. My question is: since I do not move the camera position, but only use scaling of the whole scene, does this mean OpenGL can not decide on the appropriate mipmap level and uses the full texture size (level 0)? Paul

    Read the article

  • How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

    Read the article

  • Loading city/state from SQL Server to Google Maps?

    - by knawlejj
    I'm trying to make a small application that takes a city & state and geocodes that address to a lat/long location. Right now I am utilizing Google Map's API, ColdFusion, and SQL Server. Basically the city and state fields are in a database table and I want to take those locations and get marker put on a Google Map showing where they are. This is my code to do the geocoding, and viewing the source of the page shows that it is correctly looping through my query and placing a location ("Omaha, NE") in the address field, but no marker, or map for that matter, is showing up on the page: function codeAddress() { <cfloop query="GetLocations"> var address = document.getElementById(<cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput>).value; if (geocoder) { geocoder.geocode( {<cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput>: address}, function(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ map: map, position: results[0].geometry.location, title: <cfoutput>#Trim(hometown)#,#Trim(state)#</cfoutput> }); } else { alert("Geocode was not successful for the following reason: " + status); } }); } </cfloop> } And here is the code to initialize the map: var geocoder; var map; function initialize() { geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(42.4167,-90.4290); var myOptions = { zoom: 5, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latlng, map: map, title: "Test" }); map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); } I do have a map working that uses lat/long that was hard coded into the database table, but I want to be able to just use the city/state and convert that to a lat/long. Any suggestions or direction? Storing the lat/long in the database is also possible, but I don't know how to do that within SQL.

    Read the article

  • CSV is actually .... Semicolon Separated Values ... (Excel export on AZERTY)

    - by Bugz R us
    I'm a bit confused here. When I use Excel 2003 to export a sheet to CSV, it actually uses semicolons ... Col1;Col2;Col3 shfdh;dfhdsfhd;fdhsdfh dgsgsd;hdfhd;hdsfhdfsh Now when I read the csv using Microsoft drivers, it expects comma's and sees the list as one big column ??? I suspect Excel is exporting with semicolons because I have a AZERTY keyboard. However, doesn't the CSV reader then also have to take in account the different delimiter ? How can I know the appropriate delimiter, and/or read the csv properly ?? public static DataSet ReadCsv(string fileName) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); string pathName = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(fileName); string file = System.IO.Path.GetFileName(fileName); OleDbConnection excelConnection = new OleDbConnection (@"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + pathName + ";Extended Properties=Text;"); try { OleDbCommand excelCommand = new OleDbCommand(@"SELECT * FROM " + file, excelConnection); OleDbDataAdapter excelAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(excelCommand); excelConnection.Open(); excelAdapter.Fill(ds); } catch (Exception exc) { throw exc; } finally { if(excelConnection.State != ConnectionState.Closed ) excelConnection.Close(); } return ds; }

    Read the article

  • IE8: weird border around HTML button element

    - by s427
    I have a button element with a custom background (image+color) and no borders except for a 2px border-bottom (and a bunch of other properties --code below) which renders quite differently in Firefox and in IE8. The problem is, this is a work for a company that uses IE8 as their only browser, so it's important that the button renders well in IE8. Here's a visual comparison between the two: My question here is not about the padding difference (I'm looking into that), but about the weird border that is visible on IE8 in addition to the regular border (border-bottom). Can anyone explain to me where it comes from and how to get rid of it? Thanks in advance. Here is the HTML code: <button class="btn" id="c_edit"> <span>Annuler</span> </button> And here is the CSS: .btn { display: inline-block; margin: 0 0 7px 5px; padding: 0; color: #ddd; font-size: 14px; font-family: FrutigerLTStd55Roman, sans-serif; text-decoration: none; border: none; border-bottom: 2px solid #222; background-color: #999; background-image: url('img/btn_bg.gif'); background-position: 0 bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; cursor: pointer; transition: all .5s ease-out; } .btn span { display: inline-block; margin: 0; padding: 8px 10px 6px 40px; background-color: transparent; background-position: 4px 0; background-repeat: no-repeat; }

    Read the article

  • Xcode 4: nib files not loading when run, can't find UI elements

    - by Jordan
    So, I just downloaded Xcode 4 and installed it. I was actually quite looking forward to the single window and integrated IB... - However, when I open and run one of my projects, the nib files that the project uses don't seem to load. Instead I'm left looking at a blank white screen (iPhone). This project ran well and fine on Xcode 3.2. So I thought... this can't be that hard to fix. So I opened up a nib file, thinking that maybe editing or creating a new one from scratch could point me in the right direction. But I can't find the old resources panel from interface builder anywhere. How am I meant to create a new view or add buttons? I know I'm probably just missing something obvious :s Did anyone else have the same nib file problems - is there a fix (or something stupidly simple that I'm forgetting about)? - EDIT: Ok. If I background and un-background the app, the view loads fine. But this happens every time I build, on both iPhone and iOS simulator, i.e. the app doesn't work properly until it's been backgrounded. All the code for loading the view follows from - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application. Now I am really confused. - Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • Setting WCF service for multiple client calls

    - by user348255
    Hi all, I have made a WCF service which is defined like this: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] binding is done using netTcpBinding. We support 50+ clients that call the server from time to time. Each client opens a channel using channelfactory once it is loaded and uses that channel for all calls (creates the channel and proxy only once). we have built a small load tester that imitates the client by calling the server by 50 different threads at once (using 50 different channels). when we run this tester, after the 10th client tries to connect, all other client fail connecting. We have set throttling to 100. My questions are: 1. is it correct for each client to create a channel and use it through the client life time? or, do i need to use a using statement for each call to the server (create and distroy a new channel for each call). 2. does the service have a limit of channel connections to it? other then throttling? thanks alot, Guy.

    Read the article

  • Why does an authorized OAuth request token need to be exchanged for an access token?

    - by Joe Shaw
    I'm wondering what the reasons are for OAuth to require a round-trip to the data provider to exchange an authorized request token for an access token. My understanding of the OAuth workflow is: Requesting site (consumer) gets a request token from the data provider site (service provider). Requesting site asks the data provider site to authenticate the user, passing in a callback. Once the user has been authenticated and authorized the requesting site, the user is directed back to the requesting site (consumer) via the callback provided which passes back the now-authorized request token and a verification code. The requesting site exchanges the request token for an access token. The requesting site uses the access token to get data from the data provider site. Assuming I got that right, why couldn't the callback simply provide the access token to the requesting site directly in step 3, eliminating step 4? Why is the request to exchange the request token for the access token necessary? Does it exist solely for consumers that require users to enter the verification code manually, with the thought that it would be shorter and simpler than the access token itself?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519  | Next Page >