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  • Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

    - by Derrek
    I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

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  • Hive performance increase

    - by Sagar Nikam
    I am dealing with a database (2.5 GB) having some tables only 40 row to some having 9 million rows data. when I am doing any query for large table it takes more time. I want results in less time small query on table which have 90 rows only-- hive> select count(*) from cidade; Time taken: 50.172 seconds hdfs-site.xml <configuration> <property> <name>dfs.replication</name> <value>3</value> <description>Default block replication. The actual number of replications can be specified when the file is created. The default is used if replication is not specified in create time. </description> </property> <property> <name>dfs.block.size</name> <value>131072</value> <description>Default block replication. The actual number of replications can be specified when the file is created. The default is used if replication is not specified in create time. </description> </property> </configuration> does these setting affects performance of hive? dfs.replication=3 dfs.block.size=131072 can i set it from hive prompt as hive>set dfs.replication=5 Is this value remains for a perticular session only ? or Is it better to change it in .xml file ?

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  • Management API - The request body XML was invalid or not correctly specified

    - by maartenba
    Cross posting from http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/windowsazuretroubleshooting/thread/31b6aedc-c069-4e32-8e8f-2ff4b7c30793 I'm getting this error on changing configuration through the service management API: The request body XML was invalid or not correctly specified The request body payload: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ChangeConfiguration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/windowsazu re"> <Configuration>PD94bWwgdmVyc2lvbj0iMS4wIj8+CjxTZXJ2aWNlQ29uZmlndX JhdGlvbiB4bWxuczp4c2k9Imh0dHA6Ly93d3cudzMub3JnLzIwMDEvWE1MU2NoZW1hLWluc3RhbmNlIi B4bWxuczp4c2Q9Imh0dHA6Ly93d3cudzMub3JnLzIwMDEvWE1MU2NoZW1hIiB4bWxucz0iaHR0cDovL3 NjaGVtYXMubWljcm9zb2Z0LmNvbS9TZXJ2aWNlSG9zdGluZy8yMDA4LzEwL1NlcnZpY2VDb25maWd1cm F0aW9uIiBzZXJ2aWNlTmFtZT0iIiBvc0ZhbWlseT0iMSIgb3NWZXJzaW9uPSIqIj4KICA8Um9sZSBuYW 1lPSJXZWJSb2xlMSI+CiAgICA8Q29uZmlndXJhdGlvblNldHRpbmdzPgogICAgICA8U2V0dGluZyBuYW 1lPSJNaWNyb3NvZnQuV2luZG93c0F6dXJlLlBsdWdpbnMuRGlhZ25vc3RpY3MuQ29ubmVjdGlvblN0cm luZyIgdmFsdWU9IlVzZURldmVsb3BtZW50U3RvcmFnZT10cnVlIi8+CiAgICA8L0NvbmZpZ3VyYXRpb2 5TZXR0aW5ncz4KICAgIDxJbnN0YW5jZXMgY291bnQ9IjIiLz4KICAgIDxDZXJ0aWZpY2F0ZXMvPgogID wvUm9sZT4KPC9TZXJ2aWNlQ29uZmlndXJhdGlvbj4K</Configuration> </ChangeConfiguration> I'm passing it the following configuration: $configuration = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ServiceConfiguration xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ServiceHosting/2008/10/ServiceConfiguration" serviceName="" osFamily="1" osVersion="*"> <Role name="WebRole1"> <ConfigurationSettings> <Setting name="Microsoft.WindowsAzure.Plugins.Diagnostics.ConnectionString" value="UseDevelopmentStorage=true"/> </ConfigurationSettings> <Instances count="2"/> <Certificates/> </Role> </ServiceConfiguration>'; Does anyone know why this error occurs? I suspect it has something to do with encoding but not sure.

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  • Perl Cookie not working

    - by grosseskino
    Hi! I already spent all day looking for an answer for this: I am using Perl with LWP::UserAgent and HTTP::Cookies. My problem is that I can't get past an cookie-base age-check. In Perl I use this code: my $browser = LWP::UserAgent->new; my $resp = $browser->get( $url, 'User-Agent' => 'MySpider/1.0' ); #Cookie Setup my $cookies = HTTP::Cookies->new(); $cookies->set_cookie(1,'age_check', '1','/','.example.com/', 80, ,0,3354512128, 0); $browser->cookie_jar($cookies); The Site is setting the Cookie with JavaScript function saveSplash(domain) { var expDate = new Date(); expDate.setTime(expDate.getTime()+(1*24*3600*1000)); setCookie("age_check", 1, expDate, '/', domain); setCookie("screen_width", getScreenWidth(), expDate, '/', domain); } This is the Cookie saved by my browser: age_check 1 example.com/ 1088 3354512128 30140182 2646218624 30139981 Any idea what I am doing wrong? Thanks in advance guys!

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  • C# property exactly the same, defined in two places

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I have the following classes: Defect - represents a type of data that can be found in a database FilterQuery - provides a way of querying the database by setting simple Boolean filters Both Defect and FilterQuery implement the same interface: IDefectProperties. This interface specifies particular fields that are in the database. Different classes have methods that return lists of Defect instances. With FilterQuery, you specify some filters for the particular properties implemented as part of IDefectProperties, and then you run the query and get back a list of Defect instances. My problem is that I end up implementing some properties exactly the same in FilterQuery and Defect. The two are inherently different classes, they just share some of the same properties. For example: public DateTime SubmitDateAsDate { get { return DateTime.Parse(SubmitDate); } set { SubmitDate = value.ToString(); } } This is a property required by IDefectProperties that depends on a different property, SubmitDate, which returns a string instead of a DateTime. Now SubmitDate is implemented differently in Defect and FilterQuery, but SubmitDateAsDate is exactly the same. Is there a way that I can define SubmitDateAsDate in only place, but both Defect and FilterQuery provide it as a property? FilterQuery and Defect already inherit from two different classes, and it wouldn't make sense for them to share an ancestor anyway, I think. I am open to suggestions as to my design here as well.

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  • Switching application-wide theme programmatically?

    - by Cheezmeister
    EDIT: Related question here: Multi theme support in android app I'm attempting to get a user-chosen theme and feel like I'm frustratingly close. Defining the theme in AndroidManifest.xml works as it should, but (as best I can tell) can't change based on app preferences: <application android:theme="@style/theme_sunshine" android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> Alternatively, setting it dynamically in each activity also works: someChosenTheme = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(this).getString("themePreference", "theme_twilight"); setTheme(someOtherChosenTheme); But that seems messy, and I'd rather set the theme for the entire app in one place. My first thought was to grab the application context as soon as my main activity launches and do it there: getApplicationContext().setTheme(R.style.theme_dummy); As best I can tell[0], this ought to do the trick, but in fact it's not doing anything--the entire app has the default Android style. Is the above valid, and if so, might I be doing something else dumb? I'm working in API level 3 if that matters. Prods in the right direction greatly appreciated! [0] http://developer.android.com/reference/android/content/Context.html#setTheme%28int%29 http://developer.android.com/reference/android/content/Context.html#getApplicationContext%28%29

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  • Why would JSP tags appear in HTML source code?

    - by Michael
    I'm a front-end web developer at a company using Java on their server. As a front-end developer, I'm concerned with the HTML structure that the server produces, but I don't have control over anything our back-end team produces. Rather than ask someone on that team, I would like to gather knowledge from the Stackoverflow community so I can communicate intelligently with the back-end team. So, I am curious as to what would cause certain JSP tags to appear in the rendered HTML that is sent to the browser. We have tags in our HTML source such as: <flow:fileRef id="vfileColor" fileId="vfile.color"/> <flow:fileRef id="StyleDir" fileId="StyleDir"/> <flow:fileRef id="vfileStylesheet" fileId="vfile.stylesheet"/> I am more interested in knowing why these appear, not as much about what they do. Is there a server setting for Tomcat/Apache/etc. that would hide these tags from the browser? Any information would be helpful. Thanks in advance.

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  • undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass message with rails and a legacy database

    - by Jude Osborn
    I'm setting up a very simple rails 3 application to view data in a legacy MySQL database. The legacy database is mostly rails ORM compatible, except that foreign key fields are pluralized. For example, my "orders" table has a foreign key field to the "companies" table called "companies_id" (rather than "company_id"). So naturally I'm having to use the ":foreign_key" attribute of "belongs_to" to set the field name manually. I haven't used rails in a few years, but I'm pretty sure I'm doing everything right, yet I get the following error when trying to access "order.currency.code": undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass This is a very simple application so far. The only thing I've done is generate the application and a bunch of scaffolds for each of the legacy database tables. Then I've gone into some of the models to make adjustments to accommodate the above mentioned difference in database naming conventions, and added some fields to the views. That's it. No funny business. So my database tables look like this (relevant fields only): orders ------ id description invoice_number currencies_id currencies ---------- id code description My Order model looks like this: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :currency, :foreign_key=>'currencies_id' end My Currency model looks like this: class Currency < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :orders end The relevant view snippet looks like this: <% @orders.each do |order| %> <tr> <td><%= order.description %></td> <td><%= order.invoice_number %></td> <td><%= order.currency.code %></td> </tr> <% end %> I'm completely out of ideas. Any suggestions?

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  • Split user.config into different files for faster saving (at runtime)

    - by HorstWalter
    In my c# Windows Forms application (.net 3.5 / VS 2008) I have 3 settings files resulting in one user.config file. One setting file consists of larger data, but is rarely changed. The frequently changed data are very few. However, since the saving of the settings is always writing the whole (XML) file it is always "slow". SettingsSmall.Default.Save(); // slow, even if SettingsSmall consists of little data Could I configure the settings somehow to result in two files, resulting in: SettingsSmall.Default.Save(); // should be fast SettingsBig.Default.Save(); // could be slow, is seldom saved I have seen that I can use the SecionInformation class for further customizing, however what would be the easiest approach for me? Is this possible by just changing the app.config (config.sections)? --- added information about App.config The reason why I get one file might be the configSections in the App.config. This is how it looks: <configSections <sectionGroup name="userSettings" type="System.Configuration.UserSettingsGroup, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" <section name="XY.A.Properties.Settings2Class" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" / <section name="XY.A.Properties.Settings3Class" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" allowExeDefinition="MachineToLocalUser" requirePermission="false" / </sectionGroup </configSections I got the sections when I've added the 2nd and 3rd settings file. I have not paid any attention to this, so it was somehow the default of VS 2008. The single user.config has these 3 sections, it is absolutely transparent. Only I do not know how to tell the App.config to create three independent files instead of one. I have "played around" with the app.config above, but e.g. when I remove the config sections my applications terminates with an exception.

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  • How to set the ActiveMQ redeliveryPolicy on a queue?

    - by edbras
    How do I set the redeliveryPolicy in ActiveMQ on a Queue? 1) In the doc, see: activeMQ Redelivery, the explain that you should set it on the ConnectionFactory or Connection. But I want to use different value's for different Queue's. 2) Apart from that, I don't seem to get it work. Setting it on the connection factory in Spring (I am using activemq 5.4.2. with Spring 3.0) like this don't seem to have any effect: <amq:connectionFactory id="amqConnectionFactory" brokerURL="${jms.factory.url}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:connectionFactory> I also tried to set it as property on the defined Queue, but that also seem to be ignored as the redelivery occurs sooner that the defined values: <amq:queue id="jmsQueueDeclarationSnd" physicalName="${jms.queue.declaration.snd}" > <amq:properties> <amq:redeliveryPolicy maximumRedeliveries="6" initialRedeliveryDelay="15000" useExponentialBackOff="true" backOffMultiplier="5"/> </amq:properties> </amq:queue> Thanks

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  • Fatal error: Allowed memory size exhausted...

    - by Nano HE
    HI, I upload my php testing script to online vps server just now. The script used to parse a big size XML file(about 4M, 7000Lines). But my IE explorer show the online error message below. Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 16777216 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 77 bytes) in /var/www/test/result/index.php on line 26 I am sure I already tested the php script on localhost successfully. Is there any configuration need be enable/modify on my VPS? Such as php.ini or some setting for apache server? I just verified there are about 200M memory usage are avaliable for my VPS. How can I fix this? ...... function startElementHandler ($parser,$name,$attrib){ global $usercount; global $userdata; global $state; // Line #26; //Debug //print "name is: ".$name."\n"; switch ($name) { case $name=="_ID" : { $userdata[$usercount]["first"] = $attrib["FIRST"]; $userdata[$usercount]["last"] = $attrib["LAST"]; $userdata[$usercount]["nick"] = $attrib["NICK"]; $userdata[$usercount]["title"] = $attrib["TITLE"]; break; } ...... default : {$state=$name;break;} } }

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  • How can I get sessions to work if I'm using Google App Engine + Django 1.1?

    - by user341642
    Is there a way for me to get sessions working? I know Django has built in session management, and GAE has some tools for it if you're using their watered down version of Django 0.96, but is there a way to get sessions to work if you're trying to use GAE w/ Django 1.1 (i.e. use_library() call). I assume using a db-backed session doesn't work, and a file system backed one won't work b/c we don't have access to the filesystem if we deploy to the Google production servers. This kinda worked (as in didn't crap out) when I used SessionMiddleware backed by a local-memory backed cache and a non-persistent cache (i.e. setting SESSION_ENGINE to django.contrib.sessions.backends.cache). But the session never seems to persist in this case, no matter how I set the timeouts. A new session key is generated on every page reload. Maybe this is b/c the GAE assumes complete statelessness with each request and blows away my local cache? Apologies in advance, I'm pretty new to Python. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • NHibernate lazy properties behavior?

    - by GeReV
    I've been trying to get NHibernate into development for a project I'm working on at my workplace. Since I have to put a strong emphasis on performance, I've been running a proof-of-concept stress test on an existing project's table with thousands of records, all of which contain a large text column. However, when selecting a collection of these records, the select statement takes a relatively long time to execute; apparently due to the aforementioned column. The first solution that comes to mind is setting this property as lazy: <property name="Content" lazy="true"/> But there seems to be no difference in the SQL generated by NHibernate. My question is, how do lazy properties behave in NHibernate? Is there some kind of type limitations I could be missing? Should I take a different approach altogether? Using HQL's new Class(column1, column2) approach works, but lazy properties sounds like a simpler solution. It's perhaps worth mentioning I'm using NHibernate 2.1.2GA with the Castle DynamicProxy. Thanks!

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  • I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur (MS SQL/ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Alex
    I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second LINQ TO SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

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  • Javascript for disabling dropdown in ASP.NET

    - by Lijo
    Hi Team, I am using JScript in ASP.NET 2005. I have a page with a checkbox and a dropdown list. When the checkbox is checked the dropdown is to be disabled. During Postback of the page this should be retained. I am using a javascript function as follows if((chkOwner[1].checked==true)) { document.getElementById(ddlClientID).disabled=true; document.getElementById(ddlClientID).className = "form-disabled"; document.getElementById(ddlClientID).selectedIndex = 0; } else { document.getElementById(ddlClientID).disabled=false; document.getElementById(ddlClientID).className = "form-input"; document.getElementById(ddlClientID).selectedIndex = 0; } This works, almost. However, the dropdown selection is not retained after postback (when checkbox is not selected). Apprently the solution is to remove the last line, i.e, in the else part, remove the selectedIndex =0 setting. But, when I do that the disabling of dropdown (when check box is selected) is not working after post back. Could you please help on this? Thanks Lijo

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  • Sharing class member data between sub components

    - by Tim Gradwell
    I have an aggregate 'main' class which contains some data which I wish to share. The main class also has other class members. I want to share the data with these other class members. What is the correct / neatest way to do this? The specific example I have is as follows. The main class is a .net Form. I have some controls (actually controls within controls) on the main form which need access to the shared data. Main Form - DataX - DataY - Control1 -- Subcontrol1 - Control2 -- SubControl2 SubControls 1 and 2 both wish to access DataX and DataY. The trouble is, I feel like better practice (to reduce coupling), would be that either subcontrols should not know about Main Form, or Main Form should not know about subcontrols - probably the former. For subcontrols not to know about Main Form, would probably mean Main Form passing references to both Controls 1 and 2, which in turn would pass the references on to SubControls 1 and 2. Lots of lines of code which just forward the references. If I later added DataZ and DataW, and Controls 3 and 4 and SubControls 3 and 4, I'd have to add lots more reference forwarding code. It seems simpler to me to give SubControls 1 and 2 member references to Main Form. That way, any sub control could just ask for MainForm.DataX or MainForm.DataY and if I ever added new data, I could just access it directly from the sub controls with no hassle. But it still involves setting the 'MainForm' member references every time I add a new Control or Subcontrol. And it gives me a gut feeling of 'wrong'. As you might be able to tell I'm not happy with either of my solutions. Is there a better way? Thanks

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  • Strategies for testing reactive, asynchronous code

    - by Arne
    I am developing a data-flow oriented domain-specific language. To simplify, let's just look at Operations. Operations have a number of named parameters and can be asked to compute their result using their current state. To decide when an Operation should produce a result, it gets a Decision that is sensitive to which parameter got a value from who. When this Decision decides that it is fulfilled, it emits a Signal using an Observer. An Accessor listens for this Signal and in turn calls the Result method of the Operation in order to multiplex it to the parameters of other Operations. So far, so good, nicely decoupled design, composable and reusable and, depending on the specific Observer used, as asynchronous as you want it to be. Now here's my problem: I would love to start coding actual Tests against this design. But with an asynchronous Observer... how should I know that the whole signal-and-parameters-plumbing worked? Do I need to use time outs while waiting for a Signal in order to say that it was emitted successfully or not? How can I be, formally, sure that the Signal will not be emitted if I just wait a little longer (halting problem? ;-)) And, how can I be sure that the Signal was emitted because it was me who set a parameter, and not another Operation? It might well be that my test comes to early and sees a Signal that was emitted way before my setting a parameter caused a Decision to emit it. Currently, I guess the trivial cases are easy to test, but as soon as I want to test complex many-to-many - situations between operations I must resort to hoping that the design Just Works (tm)...

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  • AS3 and cross-domain

    - by Davide Arcinotti
    I think i'm a little confused. I'm loading an swf, located at domainB.com/secondsubfolder, from an swf located at domainA.com/firstsubfolder. I always put the crossdomain.xml near the "loader" swf in domainA.com/firstsubfolder. It seems to not work, except if I put the crossdomain.xml in the root of the loaded content, domainB.com/crossdomain.xml. Did I always do it wrong, or is it because of some server setting? Using another domain for the loaded content, e.g. domainB_beta.com/secondsubfolder on another server just works as usual. Where do I have to look to change these settings? Does it depend on server settings, or am I doing something wrong? This is the loader actionscript code: import flash.display.Loader; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.system.Security; Security.allowDomain("domainB.com"); var context:LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(); context.securityDomain = SecurityDomain.currentDomain; var loaderMain:Loader = new Loader(); loaderMain.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, errorHandler); loaderMain.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, errorHandler); loaderMain.load(new URLRequest('domainB/secondsubfolder/file.swf'),context); addChild(loaderMain); function errorHandler(event:ErrorEvent):void { trace("errorHandler says: " + event); }

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  • Using Javascript to get URL Vars, not working when multiple values present in QueryString

    - by bateman_ap
    Hi, I am using a Javascript function to get the values of a URL to pass to jQuery using the function below: function getUrlVars() { var vars = [], hash; var hashes = window.location.href.slice(window.location.href.indexOf('?') + 1).split('&'); for(var i = 0; i < hashes.length; i++) { hash = hashes[i].split('='); vars.push(hash[0]); vars[hash[0]] = hash[1]; } return vars; } And then setting the value like this: var type = getUrlVars()["type"] This all works perfectly, however I have just come into a situation where I need to get multiple values, one of my form elements are checkboxes where multiple values can be checked, so my URL will look something like this: http://www.domain.com/test.php?type=1&cuisine[]=23&cuisine[]=43&name=test If I alert out the cuisine value using the function above I only ever get the final value: alert (getUrlVars()["cuisine[]"]); Would alert "43". What I would like it to be is a comma delimited string of all "cuisine" values. ie in the above example "23,43" Any help very welcome! In case any solution requires it I am using PHP 5.3 and Jquery 1.4

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  • Unit Tests Architecture Question

    - by Tom Tresansky
    So I've started to layout unit tests for the following bit of code: public interface MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1(); void MyInterfaceMethod2(); } public class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do something } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something else } void SubRoutineP() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } public class MyImplementation2 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do a 3rd thing } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something completely different } void SubRoutineQ() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } with several implementations and the expectation of more to come. My initial thought was to save myself time re-writing unit tests with something like this: public abstract class MyInterfaceTester { protected MyInterface m_object; @Setup public void setUp() { m_object = getTestedImplementation(); } public abstract MyInterface getTestedImplementation(); @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod1() { // use m_object to run tests } @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod2() { // use m_object to run tests } } which I could then subclass easily to test the implementation specific additional methods like so: public class MyImplementation1Tester extends MyInterfaceTester { public MyInterface getTestedImplementation() { return new MyImplementation1(); } @Test public void testSubRoutineP() { // use m_object to run tests } } and likewise for implmentation 2 onwards. So my question really is: is there any reason not to do this? JUnit seems to like it just fine, and it serves my needs, but I haven't really seen anything like it in any of the unit testing books and examples I've been reading. Is there some best practice I'm unwittingly violating? Am I setting myself up for heartache down the road? Is there simply a much better way out there I haven't considered? Thanks for any help.

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  • Fake location for the device (custom)

    - by AtomRiot
    I know there are a few apps out there to fake a devices location but specifically what i want to do is use a location grabbed from a url. What direction should I look for setting the location on the device. The scenario i have is a jailbroken Wi-Fi iPad tethered to a nexus one. The nexus one would host a background service that when a request is recieved, it would respond with gps data of its current location. The jailbroken ipad would have a background service that either updated the location on a time interval, or on a per request basis (depending on how i have to implement it) by submitting a request to the tethered nexus one service. That data would then be set on the ipad and an application requesting location would get the service data. The goal is to recreate the location faker app's functionality with the exception of the spoofed location comes from the nexus ones gps via the service but i have not yet found out how to set the location data for the device. I can ofcourse implement this in a per app basis but it would be awesome to have any app be able to use it.

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  • ASP.NET configuration inheritance

    - by NowYouHaveTwoProblems
    I have an ASP.NET application that defines a custom configuration section in web.config. Recently I had a customer who wanted to deploy two instances of the application (for testing in addition to an existing production application). The configuration chosen by the customer was: foo.com - production application foo.com/Testing - test application In this case, the ASP.NET configuration engine decided to apply the settings at foo.com/web.config to foo.com/Testing/web.config. Thankfully this caused a configuration error because the section was redefined at the second level rather than giving the false impression that the two web applications were isolated. What I would like to do is to specify that my configuration section is not inherited and must be re-defined for any web application that requires it but I haven't been able to find a way to do this. My web.config ends up something like this <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyApp" type="MyApp.ConfigurationSection"/> </configSections> <MyApp setting="value" /> <NestedSettingCollection> <Item key="SomeKey" value="SomeValue" /> <Item key="SomeOtherKey" value="SomeOtherValue" /> </NestedSettingCollection> </MyApp> </configuration>

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  • Memory Barrier by lock statement

    - by jalalaldeen
    I read recently about memory barrier and the reordaring issue and now I have some confusion about it. Let us have a following senario: private object _object1 = null; private object _object2 = null; private bool _usingObject1 = false; private object MyObject { get { if (_usingObject1) { return _object1; } else { return _object2; } } set { if (_usingObject1) { _object1 = value; } else { _object2 = value; } } } private void Update() { _usingMethod1 = true; SomeProperty = FooMethod(); //.. _usingMethod1 = false; } 1- At Update method; is it always _usingMethod1 = true statement excecuted before getting or setting the property? or due reordaring issue we can not garantee that? 2- Should we use volitle like. private volitle bool _usingMethod1 = false; 3- If we use lock; can we garantee then every statement within the lock will be excecuted in order like: private void FooMethod() { object locker = new object(); lock (locker) { x = 1; y = a; i++; } } Thanks in advanced..

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  • Is there such a thing as a MemberExpression that handles a many-to-many relationship?

    - by Jaxidian
    We're trying to make it easy to write strongly-typed code in all areas of our system, so rather than setting var sortColumn = "FirstName" we'd like to say sortOption = (p => p.FirstName). This works great if the sortOption is of type Expression<Func<Person, object>> (we actually use generics in our code but that doesn't matter). However, we run into problems for many-to-many relationships because this notation breaks down. Consider this simple code: internal class Business { public IQueryable<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } internal class Address { public State MyState { get; set; } } internal class State { public string Abbreviation { get; set; } public int StateID { get; set; } } Is it possible to have this sort of MemberExpression to identify the StateID column off of a business? Again, the purpose of using this is not to return a StateID object, it's to just identify that property off of that entity (for sorting, filtering, and other purposes). It SEEMS to me that there should be some way to do this, even if it's not quite as pretty as foo = business.Addresses.SomeExtension(a => a.State.StateID);. Is this really possible? If more background is needed, take a look at this old question of mine. We've since updated the code significantly, but this should give you the general detailed idea of the context behind this question.

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  • Getting a Script Error Every Time I Click a Link

    - by Flip4Life
    I have everything working perfectly on my site, but for some reason, I get an error message in console whenever I click a link anywhere on my site. The error has to do with this line of coding here: jQuery(function($){ $('.navbar a, .scroll a, .smoothscroll a').bind('click',function(event){ var $anchor = $(this); $('html, body').stop().animate({ scrollTop: $($anchor.attr('href')).offset().top }, 850,'easeInOutExpo'); event.preventDefault(); }); }); And the error I am getting is this: "SCRIPT5007: Unable to get value of the property 'top': object is null or undefined custom.min.js, line 6 character 197" The exact code it is highlighting is this part of the above code: $('html, body').stop().animate({ scrollTop: $($anchor.attr('href')).offset().top }, 850,'easeInOutExpo') All I know is that when I remove the above code, my scroll-to links stop working on pages such as these: http://www.northtownsremodeling.com/things-to-know.php You can see the popup error happen and stay in the console easily by going to a page with a filter like this: http://www.northtownsremodeling.com/bathroom/ And clicking one of the filter buttons. Ultimately, I am trying to make it so my scroll-to setting still works, but not have that error come up anymore. I made this script a long time ago, and I'm really confused as to what could be causing this error when everything is functioning perfectly otherwise? Thanks!

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