Search Results

Search found 24195 results on 968 pages for 'asp net3 5'.

Page 515/968 | < Previous Page | 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522  | Next Page >

• my web service works locally but, not when it is deployed

  - by rogdawg

  When I deploy my web service, I get the following error: There is no build provider registered for the extension '.svc'. You can register one in the section in machine.config or web.config. Make sure is has a BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute attribute which includes the value 'Web' or 'All'. I found one thread (http://forums.asp.net/t/1228638.aspx) that suggested a solution but, I can not get it to work. If I make the changes to my web config file as suggested in the thread, I then get a configuration error. One odd thing is that, if I check the machine.config file on my machine, located at C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\CONFIG\machine.config, I don't see any of the config settings described in the thread. As a matter of fact, there is no mention of "compilation" or "buildProviders" at all. The on-line documents I have found regarding BuildProviderAppliesToAttribute have not been of any help. Thanks in advance for any advice you can give. Here is my entire config file listing: <?xml version="1.0"?>

  Read the article

• How to count the number of listitems in an asp.bulletedlist with JavaScript

  - by Andy5

  Hi I have an asp:bulletedlist control, which sits inside a div tag, and I need to count the number of list items inside the control. Searching the internet, and noting the fact the html given back by the items is a list i.e. <li>, I thought I could use an example of: var listcontrol = document.getElementById('BulletedList1'); var countItems = listcontrol.getElementByTagName('li').length; However, when I do this, it throws and error saying that no object exists for this control. So, my problem is, and because I must do this clientside because I want to use this to set the height of the div tag, is how do you count the number of items inside a asp:bulletedlist control with javascript?

  Read the article

• jQuery logic firing twice from a Usercontrol when used in a jQueryUI modal dialog

  - by AaronS

  I have an asp.net usercontrol that I'm using to put a bunch of HTML and Jquery logic into to be shared on several pages. This usercontrol has some dropdown boxes loaded from json calls and has no added codebehind logic. When I use this usercontrol on a normal page it works perfectly fine, and no issues at all. However, when I wrap the usercontrol in a div, and use a jqueryUI modal dialog, everything in the usercontrol fires twice. Not only code in the initial $(document).ready(function() {});, but also every function is also fired twice when called. Debugging this in Visual Studio, I see that everything is first being called from the external JS file, and then again from a "script block" file that is somehow getting generated on the fly. This script block file isn't getting generated on a page that doesn't wrap the user control in a modal. The same happens if I use IISExpress or IIS7. The question is, why is this script block file getting created, and why is all my jQuery logic firing twice? --edit-- Here is the div: <div id="divMyDiv" title="MyDiv"> <uc1:MyUserControl runat="server" ID="MyUsercontrol" /> </div> Here is the modal logic that uses it: $("#divMyDiv").dialog({ autoOpen: false, height: 400, width: 400, modal: true, open: function (type, data) { $(this).parent().appendTo("form"); } }); Note: The problm still occurs, even if I remove the "open:" function. But, it does not occur if I remove the entire dialog block, so it is specific to this dialog call.

  Read the article

• How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

  - by Yeodave

  Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

  Read the article

• Why do we need serialization in web service

  - by Cloud2010

  I have one webservice: public class Product { public int ProductId { get; set; } public string ProductName { get; set; } } public class Service : System.Web.Services.WebService { public Service () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public List<Product> GetItems() { List<Product> productList = new List<Product>() { new Product{ProductId=1,ProductName="Pencil"}, new Product{ProductId=2,ProductName="Pen"} }; return productList; } and in a asp.net application I am consuming it like: localhost.Service s = new localhost.Service(); List<localhost.Product> k = new List<localhost.Product>(); k = s.GetItems().ToList(); // i am getting the values here. now my question is do I need to serialize my webmethod as i am returning custom types? when should we serialize ? is it necessary at all, if yes , then what are the conditions?

  Read the article

• Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

  - by Ralpharama

  I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

  Read the article

• Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

  - by TampaRich

  Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Passing null child object from parent object to a partial view

  - by Mike

  I have an object which contains models for my ASP.NET MVC web app. The Model that is being passed into the view has sub models for "gadgets" on that particular view. Each of these sub models gets passed to a partial view (gadget). The problem is when I have a null model in the view model. See example below. View Model: public class FooBarHolder() { public FooBar1 FooBar1 { get; set; } public FooBar2 FooBar2 { get; set; } } We pass FooBarHolder into the view and inside the view we make calls such as <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo", Model.FooBar1); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Foo2", Model.FooBar2); %> Now say for instance that Model.FooBar2 was null. What I am experiencing from the strongly typed partial view is an error that says "This view expected a model of type FooBar2 but got a model of type FooBarHolder." Why is this happening instead of just passing in a null?

  Read the article

• Is a server side script necessary to process a form?

  - by jitendra

  Is a server side script necessary to send a form to email? For example, suppose I want to submit this form. Is it only possible with php asp.net etc. or it can be done with javascript only? <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE>HTML form tutorial example</TITLE> </HEAD> <BODY> <H1>HTML form tutorial example</H1> <FORM> Name: <INPUT TYPE="TEXT" NAME="Name" VALUE="" SIZE="25" MAXLENGTH="50"> <BR> Email: <INPUT TYPE="TEXT" NAME="Email" VALUE="" SIZE="25" MAXLENGTH="50"><BR> <INPUT TYPE="SUBMIT" NAME="submit" VALUE="Sign Me Up!"> </FORM> </BODY> </HTML>

  Read the article

• Response Redirect - Open Link in New Window

  - by bacis09

  First, I've taken the time to review this question which seems to be the most similar, however, the solution that seems to have been selected will not work in my scenario.Not to mention I worry about some of the comments claiming it to be brittle or an inadequate solution. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/104601/asp-net-response-redirect-to-new-window -We have an XML document which basically contains all of the information for a Side menu. -We have numerous URLS which are stored in a constants class. -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it label) is used to determine if the menu item is created as a LinkButton or a Label. -Links use a custom user control that is used standard for all links across the application (why suggestion on similar thread doesn't work - I don't want all links to open in a new window - just one) -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it function) is used in a Switch statement to generate our links using Response Redirect. It may look something like this. switch (function) { case goto 1: string url; if (user_group == 1) { url = Constants.CONSTANT1 } else { url = Constants.CONSTANT2 } Response.Redirect(url) case goto 2: ...... default: ...... break; } Given this scenario, I'm trying to find the best way to quickly open a New Window, when a specific case in this switch statement is met. Can it be done with Response Redirect (this seems to be arguable - people say no it can't, yet other people say they have made it work)? If not, what alternative can work here?

  Read the article

• How to implement a search page which shows results on the same page?

  - by Andrew

  I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2 for the first time on a project at work and am feeling like a bit of a noob. I have a page with a customer search control/partial view. The control is a textbox and a button. You enter a customer id into the textbox and hit search. The page then "refreshes" and shows the customer details on the same page. In other words, the customer details appear below the customer search control. This is so that if the customer isn't the right one, the user can search again without hitting back in the browser. Or, perhaps they mistyped the customer id and need to try again. I want the URL to look like this: /Customer/Search/1 Obviously, this follows the default route in the project. Now, if I type the URL above directly into my browser, it works fine. However, when I then use the search control on that page to search for say customer 2, the page refreshes with the correct customer details but the URL does not change! It stays as /Customer/Search/1 When I want it to be /Customer/Search/2 How can I get it to change to the correct URL? I am only using the default route in Global.asax. My Search method looks like this: <AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)> _ Function Search(ByVal id As String) As ActionResult Dim customer As Customer = New CustomerRepository().GetById(id) Return View("SearchResult", customer) End Function

  Read the article

• Dropdownlist value not being set when there is a default blank option

  - by uriDium

  I am using ASP.Net MVC. I have a partial view which has a form with dropdownlists. The dropdownlists are set via ViewData. The partial view is used in a Create and Edit page. The create works fine. I get the dropdownlists and the blank option is a "Please select", like so <%= Html.DropDownList("ContactNrType", ViewData["ContactNrType"] as SelectList, "Please Select") %> But this doesn't seem to work for my edit. If I have that extra "Please select" parameter then it does not select the value for the drop down. I am setting the value of the drop down in the controller like so ViewData["ContactNrType"] = new SelectList(new List<string> { "Mobile", "Home", "Work", "Friend" }, candidate.ContactNrType); Any idea as to what I am doing wrong? I want to share the partial view which contains the form between the two pages. So I need the "Please Select" option for the Create. And I need the value set for the Edit (I don't mind that it has an option that still says "Please Select").

  Read the article

• Is there a maximum number of input controls that can be used on an HTML form?

  - by Rich

  I have an ambitious requirement for an asp.net 2.0 web page that contains a table (gridview), and each row in the grid contains 6 select (dropdown) controls for data entry. The number of rows that will be displayed is dependent upon the user's search parameters, which are specified in another area of the page. Unfortunately, with the default (and even basic) search parameters specified, the grid could contain several hundred rows. I've noticed that the browser, in this case IE8, starts behaving rather erratically once I reach a large number of rows -- no documented evidence for the number of rows where this begins to be a problem. For example, trying to view the source of the page results in a message from IE stating that there was a problem with the page that forced the browser to reload it, and I never get the source. Obviously the page loads and renders rather slowly also. I know that my solution is probably going to involve paging the gridview such that it only displays 20 or so rows per page, and I'll have to write code to handle the saving of changes in the dropdown values when the user changes pages. I can probably turn off viewstate on the gridview also. However, the question I really want to pose is this -- has anyone seen a documented rule indicating the maximum number of input controls that an HTML browser form is supposed to be able to contain? I could not find anything on the Internet after doing a search, and I suspect the answer may be whatever the browser can handle based on the machine configuration it is running on. Any rules of thumb you use? Thanks for any suggestions. Rich

  Read the article

• jquery dialog calls a server side method with button parameters

  - by Chiefy

  Hello all, I have a gridview control with delete asp:ImageButton for each row of the grid. What I would like is for a jquery dialog to pop up when a user clicks the delete button to ask if they are sure they want to delete it. So far I have the dialog coming up just fine, Ive got buttons on that dialog and I can make the buttons call server side methods but its getting the dialog to know the ID of the row that the user has selected and then passing that to the server side code. The button in the page row is currently just an 'a' tag with the id 'dialog_link'. The jquery on the page looks like this: $("button").button(); $("#DeleteButton").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ManageUsers.aspx/DeleteUser", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { // Replace the div's content with the page method's return. $("#DeleteButton").text(msg.d); } }); }); // Dialog $('#dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 400, modal: true, bgiframe: true }); // Dialog Link $('#dialog_link').click(function () { $('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); The dialog itself is just a set of 'div' tags. Ive thought of lots of different ways of doing this (parameter passing, session variable etc...) but cant figure out how to get any of them working. Any ideas are most welcome As always, thanks in advance to those who contribute.

  Read the article

• partially connected application using asp.net 3.5 (not mobile apps)

  - by Hari

  We had a requirement to build a ASP.NET 3.5 web application using web forms, WCF, ADO.NET and SQL Server. The users would connect via Internet. Recently we understood that it is possible that users would often remain disconnected and would have Internet access intermittently. I need to understand if we can create occasionally connected web application using asp.net 3.5 - what all technologies/features we need to use? Is MS Sync Framework the answer to the problem - is it a viable option to use with web application? Is windows application the right approach instead of web applications - where the business logic would be run at the client itself, using local SQL Express editions with data then been synced up with Enterprise SQL server at server end when connection is established using replication and/or MS Sync framework. In that case is there a need to use WCF? Does Silverlight applications help in this context -building paritally connected web apps? Really appreciate if you can give pointers to how to go about this task of creating .net partially connected apps (not mobile apps)?

  Read the article

• Best method to search heriarachal data

  - by WDuffy

  I'm looking at building a facility which allows querying for data with hierarchical filtering. I have a few ideas how I'm going to go about it but was wondering if there are any recommendations or suggestions that might be more efficient. As an example imagine that a user is searching for a job. The job areas would be as follows. 1: Scotland 2: --- West Central 3: ------ Glasgow 4: ------ Etc 5: --- North East 6: ------ Ayrshire 7: ------ Etc A user can search specific (ie Glasgow) or in a larger area (ie Scotland). The two approaches I am considering are 1: keep a note of children in the database for each record (ie cat 1 would have 2, 3, 4 in its children field) and query against that record with a SELECT * FROM Jobs WHERE Category IN Areas.childrenField. 2: Use a recursive function to find all results who have a relation to the selected area The problems I see from both are 1: holding this data in the db will mean having to keep track of all changes to structure 2: Recursion is slow and inefficent Any ideas, suggestion or recommendations on the best approach? I'm using C# ASP.NET with MSSQL 2005 DB.

  Read the article

• Dynamic Views based on view models

  - by Joe

  I have an asp.net mvc 2 app. I need to display the same page to each user. But each user has different rights to the data. IE some can see but not edit some data, some cannot edit nor see the data. Ideally data that cannot be seen nor edited is whitespace on the view. For security reasons I want my viewmodels to be sparse as possible. By that I mean if a field cannot be seen nor edited , that field should not be on the viewmodel. Obviously I can write view for each view model but that seems wasteful. So here is my idea/wishlist Can I decorate the viewmodel with attributes and hook into a pre render event of the html helpers and tell it to do &nbsp; instead??? Can I have the html helpers output &nbsp; for entries not found on the viewmodel?? or can I easily convert a view built into code then programaticlly build the markup and then put into the render engine to be processed and viewd as html on client side??

  Read the article

• How can i get the flash player working

  - by Selase

  Am only looking to play some flash content on my page. found this code on the web and just copied it into my codes and changed the file name. However the intellisense underlines part of the code in green and says "File 'swfobject.js' was not found" this is the code i copied below. <asp:Content ID="HeaderContent" runat="server" ContentPlaceHolderID="HeadContent"> <script type='text/javascript' src='swfobject.js'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> var s1 = new SWFObject('cmsflash.swf','player', '400', '300', '9'); s1.addParam('allowfullscreen', 'false'); s1.addParam('allowscriptaccess', 'always'); s1.addParam('flashvars', 'file=video.flv'); s1.write('preview'); </script> <style type="text/css"> and it underlines only (swfobject.js) saying file not found. the file i wish to display is named cmsflash and is in the root directory probably ~/cmsflash.swf where and what could be going wrong? the block where the flash should display is declared as follows <table class="style2" style="height: 309px; width: 76%"> <tr> <td> <p id='preview'>The player will show in this paragraph</p> </td> </tr> </table> <span class="style6"> <br /> Please Help

  Read the article

• JS window.close() let IE hang

  - by p4bl0.666

  Hi all, for reason I won't bore you with, I'm writing an asp.net application that must open some pages in new browser windows. I managed to open them within a postback (don't ask why, I just needed to) with this code: script = String.Format(@"window.open(""{0}"", ""{1}"");", url, target); ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(page, typeof(Page), "Redirect", script, true); Now I have new windows each one with a button that should close it. I have simply an onclick="window.close()" (but that prompts me when I'm closing the browser) or window.open('','_self','');window.close() (horrible, I agree but it's the only way I found to avoid the JS prompt) On firefox it works perfectly but on IE7 (the browser our customers have) after 2-3 times I use that button to close the window I can't open other windows (in both cases, with or without the JS prompt). With the method above it does nothing, and with a <a href="mypage.aspx" target="_blank">click me</a> a new window is opened but hangs on loading (it doesn't even calls the Page_Load). What could be the cause? How can I solve this? Thank you.

  Read the article

• retaining the form inputs on clicking the submit button

  - by sushant

  i have a form. the code is: <html> <body> <form method="post" action="array.asp"> <input type="text" name="Req_id1"> Req_id: <input type="text" name="Req_id"> <input type="submit" value="search" id=submit1 name=submit1> <select id="selFiles" name="selFiles" class="Select" style="width: 500px" tabindex="130"> <% Dim req_id,myArray(11) req_id=Request.Form("Req_id") myArray(0) = "FCC_CITI_LONDON\FCC_V.FM_Release_5.0" myArray(1) = "FCC_CITIUSDDA\FC_UBS_V.UM_10.3.0.0.CitiUSDDA1.0" myArray(2) = "FCC_KorAm\Flexcube_V.CK_Release_5.0" myArray(3) = "FCC-CL\FCC-CL.1.1.1" myArray(4) = "Mayaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(5) = "Juneaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(6) = "Julyaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(7) = "Augustaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(8) = "Septemberaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(9) = "Octoberaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(10) = "Novemberaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(11) = "Decemberaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" Dim myArrResult myArrResult = Filter(myArray, req_id, True, vbTextCompare) Dim item For Each item In myArrResult Response.Write("<option>" + item + "</option>") Next %> </select> </body> </html> in between the form there is an opption to search a string from the array. on clicking submit the result are shown in the drop-down box. but the problem is that i loose all the input entered in the form before. for ex:the first input box goes blank. how do i retain the previous inputs? any help is really appreciated.

  Read the article

• dotNet Templated, Repeating, Databound ServerControl: Counting the templates OnDataBind?

  - by Campbeln

  I have a server control that wraps an underlying class which manages a number of indexes to track where it is in a dataset (ie: RenderedRecordCount, ErroredRecordCount, NewRecordCount, etc.). I've got the server control rendering great, but OnDataBinding I'm having an issue as to seems to happen after CreateChildControls and before Render (both of which properly manage the iteration of the underlying indexes). While I'm somewhat familiar with the ASP.NET page lifecycle, this one seems to be beyond me at the moment. So... how do I hook into the iterative process OnDataBinding uses so I can manage the underlying indexes? Will I have to iterate over the ITemplates myself, managing the indexes as I go or is there an easier solution? Also... I implemented the iteration of the underlying indexes during CreateChildControls originally in the belief that was the proper place to hook in for events like OnDataBinding (thining it was done as the controls were being .Add'd). Now it seems that this may actually be unnecessary. So I guess the secondary question is: What happens during CreateChildControls? Are the unadulterated (read: with <%-tags in place) controls added to the .Controls collection without any other processing?

  Read the article

• javascript error handling

  - by pankaj

  I have a javascript function for checking errors which I am calling on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error I want to stop execution of the click event. But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in the javascript function.

  Read the article

• Mapping a URL to a service inside a class library

  - by johnk82swe

  I'm developing a small content management solution than can be used in any ASP.NET 3.5 website. The website references some dll's and then lets the aspx's inherit my page baseclass. Some configuration in web.config is also needed, but thats it. Now I'm building a standalone Silverlight editor for the CMS. My idea is that it should communicate with the server using web services. But the question is how to make this service available to the editor? I don't want the website developers having to bother with it. If I used a REST API rather than SOAP I could just create an HttpHandler in my class library and let the website developers add a handler to it in web.config with the path "editor" and then the editor could communicate with that handler on mywebsite.com/editor. Is there any way to achieve the same with a asmx or wcf service? The important thing is that the website developers never have to set up any asmx files or anything. They should only have to specify a url and map that url to a service inside my class library. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Does async and await incease performance of an ASP.Net application

  - by Kerezo

  I recently read a article about c#-5 and new $ nice asynchronous programming. I see it works greate in windows application. The question came to me before is if this feature can increase ASP.Net performance? consider this code: public T GetData() { var d = GetSomeData(); return d; } and public async T GetData2() { var d = await GetSomeData(); return d; } Has in an ASP.Net appication that two codes difference? thanks

  Read the article

• initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

  - by ludwigs3rd

  I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522  | Next Page >