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• PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer works from Maven command line, but not from Eclipse?

  - by HDave

  I have Eclipse configured to use an external maven instance. Nonetheless I have an integration test that runs fine from the command line, but fails from within Eclipse. The error is a class Spring application context bean error: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type The culprit it a bean that sets property values using a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer. <!-- property settings for non-JNDI database connections --> <bean id="placeholderConfigUuid" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="systemPropertiesModeName" value="SYSTEM_PROPERTIES_MODE_OVERRIDE" /> <property name="location" value="classpath:database.properties" /> <property name="placeholderPrefix" value="$DS{" /> </bean> I know which bean is failing because it appears in the stack trace and because when I replace the $DS{hibernate.dialect} with a static value it works. I have two questions: 1) Since M2Eclipse is using the same Maven setup as the command line, why does one work and the other fail? 2) How to fix this? I really like the ability to run a single jUnit test from within Eclipse on demand.

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• Does using functional languages help against computing values repeatedly?

  - by sharptooth

  Consider a function f(x,y): f(x,0) = x*x; f(0,y) = y*(y + 1); f(x,y) = f(x,y-1) + f(x-1,y); If one tries to implement that recursively in some language like C++ he will encounter a problem. Suppose the function is first called with x = x0 and y = y0. Then for any pair (x,y) where 0 <= x < x0 and 0 <= y < y0 the intermediate values will be computed multiple times - recursive calls will form a huge tree in which multiple leaves will in fact contain the same pairs (x,y). For pairs (x,y) where x and y are both close to 0 values will be computed numerous times. For instance, I tested a similar function implemented in C++ - for x=20 and y=20 its computation takes about 4 hours (yes, four Earth hours!). Obviously the implementation can be rewritten in such way that repeated computation doesn't occur - either iteratively or with a cache table. The question is: will functional languages perform any better and avoid repeated computations when implementing a function like above recursively?

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• How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

  - by Yeodave

  Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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• Building a J2EE dev/test setup on a single PC

  - by John

  It's been a while since I did Java work, and even then I was never responsible for starting a large project from the very start... there were test/staging/production systems already running, etc, etc. Now I am looking to start a J2EE project from scratch on my trusty workstation, which has never been used for Java development and runs Windows 7 64bit. First of all, I'll be getting Eclipse. As far as writing the code goes I'm pretty happy. And running it through Eclipse is OK, but what I'd really want is to have a VM running MySQL and TomCat on which I can properly deploy my project and run/debug it 'remotely' from my dev PC. And I guess this should be done using Ant instead of letting Eclipse build the WAR for me, so that I don't end up with a dependence on Eclipse. I'm certain Eclipse can do this, so you hit a button and it runs Ant scripts, deploys and debugs for instance, but very hazy on it. Are there any good guides on this? I don't want to be taught Java, or even Ant, but rather the 'glue' parts like getting my test VM up and running under Windows, getting a build/test/deploy/run pipeline running through Eclipse, etc. One point, I only plan to use Windows... hosting a Windows VM on my Windwos desktop. And while I can use command-line tools like ant/svn, I'm much more a GUI person who loves IDE integration... I'd rather this didn't end up an argument about Linux or Vi, etc! I am looking for free, but am a MAPS subscriber, and run Win7 Ultimate in case that makes a difference as far as free VM solutions.

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• Limiting a search to records from last_request_at...

  - by bgadoci

  I am trying to figure out how to display a count for records that have been created in a table since the last_request_at of a user. In my view I am counting the notes of a question with the following code: <% unless @questions.empty? %> <% @questions.each do |question| %> <%= h(question.notes.count) %> end end This is happening in the /views/users/show.html.erb file. Instead of counting all the notes for the question, I would only like to count the notes that have been created since the users last_request_at datetime. I don't neccessarily want to scope notes to display this 'new notes' count application wide, just simply in this one instance. To accomplish I am assuming I need to create a variable in the User#show action and call it in the view but not really sure how to do that. Other information you may need: class Note < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :question end class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy belongs_to :user end

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• Concurrent usage of table causing issues

  - by Sven

  Hello In our current project we are interfacing with a third party data provider. They need to insert data in a table of ours. This inserting can be frequent every 1 min, every 5min, every 30, depends on the amount of new data they need to provide. The use the isolation level read committed. On our end we have an application, windows service, that calls a webservice every 2 minutes to see if there is new data in this table. Our isolation level is repeatable read. We retrieve the records and update a column on these rows. Now the problem is that sometimes this third party provider needs to insert a lot of data, let's say 5000 records. They do this per transaction (5rows per transaction), but they don't close the connection. They do one transaction and then the next untill all records are inserted. This caused issues for our process, we receive a timeout. If this goes on for a long time the database get's completely unstable. For instance, they maybe stopped, but the table somehow still stays unavailable. When I try to do a select on the table, I get several records but at a certain moment I don't get any response anymore. It just says retrieving data but nothing comes anymore until I get a timeout exception. Only solution is to restart the database and then I see the other records. How can we solve this. What is the ideal isolation level setting in this scenario?

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• Split a string by comma, quote and full-stop.. with a few exceptions

  - by dunc

  I've got a lot of text, similar to the following paragraph, which I'd like to split into words without punctuation (', ", ,, ., newline etc).. with a few exceptions. Initially considered endemic to the Chalakudy River system in Kerala state, southern India, but now recognised to have a wider distribution in surrounding drainages including the Periyar, Manimala, and Pamba river though the Manimala data may be questionable given it seems to be the type locality of P. denisonii. In the Achankovil River basin it occurs sympatrically, and sometimes syntopically, with P. denisonii. Wild stocks may have dwindled by as much as 50% in the last 15 years or so with collection for the aquarium trade largely held responsible although habitats are also being degraded by pollution from agricultural and domestic sources, plus destructive fishing methods involving explosives or organic toxins. The text refers to P. denisonii which is a species of fish. It's an abbreviation of Genus species. I would like this reference to be one word. So, for instance, this is the kind of array I'd like to see: Array ( ... [44] given [45] it [46] seems [47] to [48] be [49] the [50] type [51] locality [52] of [53] P. denisonii [54] In [55] the ... ) The only things that distinguish these species references such as P. denisonii from a new sentence like end. New are: The P (for Puntius, as in the P. in the aforementioned example) is only ever one letter, always a capital the d (as in . denisonii) is always either a lower case letter or an apostrophe (') What regexp can I use with preg_split to give me such an array? I've tried a simple explode( " ", $array ) but it doesn't do the job at all. Thanks in advance,

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• How to output multiple rows from an SQL query using the mysqli object

  - by Jonathan

  Assuming that the mysqli object is already instantiatied (and connected) with the global variable $mysql, here is the code I am trying to work with. class Listing { private $mysql; function getListingInfo($l_id = "", $category = "", $subcategory = "", $username = "", $status = "active") { $condition = "`status` = '$status'"; if (!empty($l_id)) $condition .= "AND `L_ID` = '$l_id'"; if (!empty($category)) $condition .= "AND `category` = '$category'"; if (!empty($subcategory)) $condition .= "AND `subcategory` = '$subcategory'"; if (!empty($username)) $condition .= "AND `username` = '$username'"; $result = $this->mysql->query("SELECT * FROM listing WHERE $condition") or die('Error fetching values'); $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; return $info; } } there are several hundred listings in the db and when I call $result-fetch_array() it places in an array the first row in the db. however when I try to call the object, I can't seem to access more than the first row. for instance: $listing_row = new Listing; while ($listing = $listing_row-getListingInfo()) { echo $listing[0]; } this outputs an infinite loop of the same row in the db. Why does it not advance to the next row? if I move the code: $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; if I move this outside the class, it works exactly as expected outputting a row at a time while looping through the while statement. Is there a way to write this so that I can keep the fetch_array() call in the class and still loop through the records?

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• How to override "inherited" z-indexes?

  - by Earlz

  I am needing to override the notion of inherited z-indexes. For instance in this code <style> div{ background-color:white; top: 0px; bottom: 0px; left: 0px; right: 0px; } </style> <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 2;"> div 1 <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 3;"> div 2 </div> </div> <div style="position: fixed; z-index: 2;"> div 3 </div> http://jsbin.com/epoqo3/3 I want for div 2 to be displayed, but instead div 3 is displayed. How can I change this behavior without changing my structure.

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• What do I do about a Java program that spawned two instaces of itself?

  - by user288915

  I have a java JAR file that is triggered by a SQL server job. It's been running successfully for months. The process pulls in a structured flat file to a staging database then pushes that data into an XML file. However yesterday the process was triggered twice at the same time. I can tell from a log file that gets created, it looks like the process ran twice simultaneously. This caused a lot of issues and the XML file that it kicked out was malformed and contained duplicate nodes etc. My question is, is this a known issue with Java JVM's spawning multiple instances of itself? Or should I be looking at sql server as the culprit? I'm looking into 'socket locking' or file locking to prevent multiple instances in the future. This is the first instance of this issue that I've ever heard of. More info: The job is scheduled to run every minute. The job triggers a .bat file that contains the java.exe - jar filename.jar The java program runs, scans a directory for a file and then executes a loop to process if the file if it finds one. After it processes the file it runs another loop that kicks out XML messages. I can provide code samples if that would help. Thank you, Kevin

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• Java : Inner class of an interface (from google guice)

  - by bsreekanth

  Hello, I was going through the source of google guice, and found an unfamiliar piece of code. It would be great learning if someone can clarify it. I have very basic understanding of inner classes, as they keep the implementation details close to the public interface. Otherwise the inner class may pollute the namespace. Now, I see the below lines at public static final Scope SINGLETON = new Scope() { public <T> Provider<T> scope(final Key<T> key, final Provider<T> creator) { return new Provider<T>() { ......... } It assign an inner class instance to the static variable, but Scope is an interface defined as (at) public interface Scope Is it possible to instantiate the interface?? or is it a succinct syntax for an anonymous implementation of an interface?? If anyone can explain what the author is intended by multiple nested classes above (Scope and Provider), and why it make sense to implement this way, it would help me to understand. thanks.

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• Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

  - by yarmiganosca

  Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

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• Prevent coersion to a single type in unlist() or c(); passing arguments to wrapper functions

  - by Leo Alekseyev

  Is there a simple way to flatten a list while retaining the original types of list constituents?.. Is there a way to programmatically construct a heterogeneous list?.. For instance, I want to create a simple wrapper for functions like png(filename,width,height) that would take device name, file name, and a list of options. The naive approach would be something like my.wrapper <- function(dev,name,opts) { do.call(dev,c(filename=name,opts)) } or similar code with unlist(list(...)). This doesn't work because opts gets coerced to character, and the resulting call is e.g. png(filename,width="500",height="500"). If there's no straightforward way to create heterogeneous lists like that, is there a standard idiomatic way to splice arguments into functions without naming them explicitly (e.g. do.call(dev,list(filename=name,width=opts["width"]))? -- Edit -- Gavin Simpson answered both questions below in his discussion about constructing wrapper functions. Let me give a summary of the answer to the title question: It is possible to construct a heterogeneous list with c() provided the arguments to c() are lists. To wit: > foo <- c("a","b"); bar <- 1:3 > c(foo,bar) [1] "a" "b" "1" "2" "3" > c(list(foo),list(bar)) [[1]] [1] "a" "b" [[2]] [1] 1 2 3 > c(as.list(foo),as.list(bar)) ## this creates a flattened heterogeneous list [[1]] [1] "a" [[2]] [1] "b" [[3]] [1] 1 [[4]] [1] 2 [[5]] [1] 3

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• Error using maven profiles

  - by user3127896

  I've added two profiles to my application and that how it looks: <profiles> <profile> <id>dev</id> <properties> <db.username>root</db.username> <db.password>root</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> <profile> <id>prod</id> <properties> <db.username>prodroot</db.username> <db.password>prodpass</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> </profiles> In my jdbc.properties file i changed values like this: jdbc.driverClassName=${db.driverClass} jdbc.dialect=org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect jdbc.databaseurl=jdbc:mysql://${db.connectionURL}/dbname jdbc.username=${db.username} jdbc.password=${db.password} And here's bean from spring-container.xml <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> When i try to deploy my application i got following error: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'dataSource' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring-servlet.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'db.driverClass' Structure of project: Any ideas what i'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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• Problem with using Jquery.ajax over .load on Zend

  - by Matthew

  Right now, what i'm trying to do is to replace a label on the front page with a block of html. Right now, the page basically has: <label id="replace"></label> the js currently has: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#replace").load('/test'); }); the Zend class function has: public function indexAction(){ $this->_helper->layout()->disableLayout(); $this->_view->message = "This is from TestController index"; } and finally the index.phtml template simply has: <?php echo $this->message;?> Right now, I want to change the code around so that instead of just replacing that label with the same message, it would do a POST where the function will pull out a parameter, do something (like for instance, go to the database and pull something out with the POST parameter) and then return the message. I've tried editing the js so that it would look like: $.post('/test', {param : "test_param"}, function(data) {$("#replace").html(data);}); or $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/test', data: "{param:test_param}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {$("#replace").html(data);} }); and neither worked. I took a step back and tried to replicate the .load functionality and do: $.ajax({ url: '/test', success: function(data) { $('#replace').html(data); alert('Load was performed.'); } }); and it doesn't work either. Anyone have any tips on how to go about doing this?

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• Creating mock Objects in PHP unit

  - by Mike

  Hi, I've searched but can't quite find what I'm looking for and the manual isn't much help in this respect. I'm fairly new to unit testing, so not sure if I'm on the right track at all. Anyway, onto the question. I have a class: <?php class testClass { public function doSomething($array_of_stuff) { return AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); } } ?> Now, clearly I want the AnotherClass::returnRandomElement($array_of_stuff); to return the same thing every time. My question is, in my unit test, how do I mockup this object? I've tried adding the AnotherClass to the top of the test file, but when I want to test AnotherClass I get the "Cannot redeclare class" error. I think I understand factory classes, but I'm not sure how I would apply that in this instance. Would I need to write an entirely seperate AnotherClass class which contained test data and then use the Factory class to load that instead of the real AnotherClass? Or is using the Factory pattern just a red herring. I tried this: $RedirectUtils_stub = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('RedirectUtils'); $o1 = new stdClass(); $o1->id = 2; $o1->test_id = 2; $o1->weight = 60; $o1->data = "http://www.google.com/?ffdfd=fdfdfdfd?route=1"; $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('chooseRandomRoot') ->will($this->returnValue($o1)); $RedirectUtils_stub->expects($this->any()) ->method('decodeQueryString') ->will($this->returnValue(array())); in the setUp() function, but these stubs are ignored and I can't work out whether it's something I'm doing wrong, or the way I'm accessing the AnotherClass methods. Help! This is driving me nuts.

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• Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

  - by Jon Artus

  I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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• How to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers

  - by droidsites

  Doing a web site using spring mvc. I added a SignupController to handle all the sign up related requests. Once user signup I am adding that to a session using @Scope("session"). Below is the SignupController code, SignupController.java @Controller @Scope("session") public class SignupController { @Autowired SignupServiceInter signUpService; private static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(SignupController.class); private String sessionUser; @RequestMapping("/SignupService") public ModelAndView signUp(@RequestParam("userid") String userId, @RequestParam("password") String password,@RequestParam("mailid") String emailId){ logger.debug(" userId:"+userId+"::Password::"+password+"::"); String signupResult; try { signUpService.registerUser(userId, password,emailId); sessionUser = userId; //adding the sign up user to the session return new ModelAndView("userHomePage","loginResult","Success"); //Navigate to user Home page if everything goes right } catch (UserExistsException e) { signupResult = e.toString(); return new ModelAndView("signUp","loginResult", signupResult); //Navigate to signUp page back if user does not exist } } } I am using "sessionUser" variable to store the signed up User Id. My understanding is that when I use @Scope("session") for the controller all the instance variables will added to HttpSession. So by that understanding I tried to access this "SessionUser" in userHomePage.jsp as, userHomepage.jsp Welcome to <%=session.getAttribute("sessionUser")%> But it throws null. So my question is how to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers. Note: My work around is that pass that signed User Id to jsp page through ModelAndView, but it seems passing the value like these among the pages takes me back to managing state among pages using QueryStrings days.

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• C#; listbox's as one object(container)

  - by Oyeme

  Hello, I use Visual studio 2008 I have 5 listbox's on form,I created a new class file -called him "scaner.cs" scaner.cs -he cannot see "listbox". I have create an instance. scaner Comp = new scaner(listBox2, listBox1, listBox3, listBox4, listBox5); In scaner.cs file I use it like this. class scaner { public ListBox ls; public ListBox lsE; public ListBox lsIVars; public ListBox lsNumbers; public ListBox lsStrings; public scaner(ListBox ls, ListBox lsE, ListBox lsIVars, ListBox lsNumbers, ListBox lsStrings) { this.ls = ls; this.lsE = lsE; this.lsIVars = lsIVars; this.lsNumbers = lsNumbers; this.lsStrings = lsStrings; } } My question : How can i replaced this big code to more "comfortably" method. scaner Comp = new scaner(listBox2, listBox1, listBox3, listBox4, listBox5); IF i had more then 5 listbox's ,it will be awful. How can i acced form another class file "Listbox's" Thanks for answers.

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• efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

  - by user168715

  The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

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• "Permission denied" with Internet Explorer and jQuery

  - by rallex

  I try to do an AJAX call with jQuery and $.post in Internet Explorer, but all I get is an error saying "Permission denied". The problem is kinda weird since it occurs only when I access a page after I was on any other page. For instance I type the URL in the adress line and let IE load the page. Then I click on a button so the script should start loading JSON data. (The script providing the data lies on the same server and I access it with a relative URL, so using a different domain is not the problem here. Even tried to use a absolute URL with the same host part.) But when I refresh the page then and try it again it works! Same thing when I come to that page from another page. At first nothing works, but when I click "refresh" everything is fine. IE gives me the error message "Permission denied" while in every other browser I don't notice this behaviour. Since I have tried many things and still cannot imagine where the problem lies I'd like to ask you what you think the problem might be?

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• IIS7 URL Rewriting: How not to drop HTTPS protocol from rewritten URL?

  - by Scott Mitchell

  I'm working on a website that's using IIS 7's URL rewriting feature to do a permanent redirect from example.com to www.example.com, as well as rewrites from similar domain names to the "main" one, such as from www.examples.com to www.example.com. This rewrite rule - shown below - has worked well for sometime now. However, we recently added HTTPS support and noticed that if users visit one of the URLs to be rewritten to www.example.com then HTTPS is dropped. For instance, if a user visits https://example.com they get redirected to http://www.example.com, whereas we would like them to be sent to https://www.example.com. Here is the rewrite rule of interest (in Web.config): <rule name="Canonical Host Name" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions logicalGrouping="MatchAny"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^example\.com$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.net$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.info$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?examples\.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.example.com/{R:1}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> As you can see, the action element's url attribute points directly to http://, so I get why https://example.com is redirected to http://www.example.com. My question is, how do I fix this? I tried (naively) to just drop the http:// part from the url attribute, but that didn't work. Thanks!

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• Ordering .each results in the view...

  - by bgadoci

  I am wondering if it is possible to dictate the order (i.e. :order = 'created_at DESC') within the view. I realize that logic in the view is not ideal but I seem to be having some problems locating where to affect this output. For instance, here is my code: <% @user.questions.each do |question| %> <%= link_to_unless_current h (question.title), question %> Created about <%= time_ago_in_words h(question.created_at) %> ago Updated about <%= time_ago_in_words h(question.updated_at) %> ago <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_question_path(question) %> | <%= link_to 'Destroy', question, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %> <% end %> In my QuestionsController I have the following index action but it is not affecting the output from the code above. class QuestionsController < ApplicationController def index @questions = Question.all(:order => 'created_at DESC', :limit => 20) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @questions } end end end

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• JavaScript Show/Hide as Filters to list of divs

  - by deconspray

  Looking to create Javascript that acts like a filter on a list of divs. For instance, here's the intended markup... <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 1</a> <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 2</a> <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 3</a> <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 4</a> <a href="#" onclick="">Filter Item 5</a> <div class="1">Item 1</div> <div class="1">Item 1</div> <div class="2">Item 2</div> <div class="3">Item 3</div> <div class="1">Item 1</div> <div class="4">Item 4</div> <div class="4">Item 4</div> <div class="1">Item 1</div> <div class="5">Item 5</div> I want to be able to click on the link for Item 1, and show only Item 1 divs and hide all other divs, click the link of Item 2, and show only Item 2 divs and hide all other divs and so on. I've seen several similar scripts but nothing that seemingly turns divs matching the class on/off in this manner. TIA.

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• Custom API requirement

  - by Jonathan.Peppers

  We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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