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• Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

  - by swmi

  Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

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• Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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• How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

  - by John Galt

  I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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• How can I change the VisualState in a View from the ViewModel?

  - by Decker

  I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I think this is a simple question. My ViewModel is performing an asynch call to obtain data for a DataGrid which is bound to an ObservableCollection in the ViewModel. When the data is loaded, I set the proper ViewModel property and the DataGrid displays the data with no problem. However, I want to introduce a visual cue for the user that the data is loading. So, using Blend, I added this to my markup: <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="LoadingStateGroup"> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoading"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="HistoryGrid"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoaded"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="WorkingStackPanel"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> I think I know how to change the state in my code-behind (something similar to this): VisualStateManager.GoToElementState(LayoutRoot, "HistoryLoaded", true); However, the place where I want to do this is in the I/O completion method of my ViewModel which does not have a reference to it's corresponding View. How would I accomplish this using the MVVM pattern?

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• Hide / show div toggle

  - by aa1

  I have the following mark up with a basic and advanced search divs. <div class="form"> <form> <input type="text" name="first_name"> <input type="text" name="last_name"> <div id="Basic" class="slide"> <input type="text" name="location"> </div> <a onclick="ShowDiv('Adv');">+ show advanced fields</a> <div id="Adv" class="slide hidden"> <input type="text" name="first_name2"> <input type="text" name="last_name2"> <input type="text" name="street"> <input type="text" name="town"> <input type="text" name="country"> </div> </form> <a onclick="ShowDiv('Basic');">- hide advanced fields</a> </div> The toggle is achieved with the following script function HideDiv() { $('.slide').hide(); } function ShowDiv(ctrl) { HideDiv(); $('#' + ctrl).show(); } ShowDiv('Basic'); I need to eliminate the need of using both links. I need to have only one link depending on state. So if the div basic is shown as default the link will say show advanced. When the advanced is shown the anchor link should switch to hide advanced How do I need to edit my jQuery and mark up.

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• Should a Trim method generally in the Data Access Layer or with in the Domain Layer?

  - by jpierson

  I'm dealing with a database that contains data with inconsistencies such as white leading and trailing white space. In general I see a lot of developers practice defensive coding by trimming almost all strings that come from the database that may have been entered by a user at some point. In my oppinoin it is better to do such formating before data is persisted so that it is done only once and then the data can be in a consistent and reliable state. Unfortunatley this is not the case however which leads me to the next best solution, using a Trim method. If I trim all data as part of my data access layer then I don't have to concern myself with defensive trimming within the business objects of my domain layer. If I instead put the trimming responsibility in my business objects, such as with set accessors of my C# properties, I should get the same net results however the trim will be operating on all values assigned to my business objects properties not just the ones that come from the inconsistent database. I guess as a somewhat philisophical question that may determine the answer I could ask "Should the domain later be responsible for defensive/coercive formatting of data?" Would it make sense to have a set accessor for a PhoneNumber property on a business object accept a unformatted or formatted string and then attempt to format it as required or should this responsibility be pushed to the presentation and data access layers leaving the domain layer more strict in the type of data that it will accept? I think this may be the more fundamental question. Update: Below are a few links that I thought I should share about the topic of data cleansing. Information service patterns, Part 3: Data cleansing pattern LINQ to SQL - Format a string before saving? How to trim values using Linq to Sql?

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• [F#] Parallelize code in nested loops

  - by Juliet

  You always hear that functional code is inherently easier to parallelize than non-functional code, so I decided to write a function which does the following: Given a input of strings, total up the number of unique characters for each string. So, given the input [ "aaaaa"; "bbb"; "ccccccc"; "abbbc" ], our method will returns a: 6; b: 6; c: 8. Here's what I've written: (* seq<#seq<char>> -> Map<char,int> *) let wordFrequency input = input |> Seq.fold (fun acc text -> (* This inner loop can be processed on its own thread *) text |> Seq.choose (fun char -> if Char.IsLetter char then Some(char) else None) |> Seq.fold (fun (acc : Map<_,_>) item -> match acc.TryFind(item) with | Some(count) -> acc.Add(item, count + 1) | None -> acc.Add(item, 1)) acc ) Map.empty This code is ideally parallelizable, because each string in input can be processed on its own thread. Its not as straightforward as it looks since the innerloop adds items to a Map shared between all of the inputs. I'd like the inner loop factored out into its own thread, and I don't want to use any mutable state. How would I re-write this function using an Async workflow?

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• Google App Engine how to get an object from the servlet ?

  - by Frank

  I have the following class objects in Google App Engine's dadastore, I can see them from the "Datastore Viewer " : import javax.jdo.annotations.IdGeneratorStrategy; import javax.jdo.annotations.IdentityType; import javax.jdo.annotations.PersistenceCapable; import javax.jdo.annotations.Persistent; import javax.jdo.annotations.PrimaryKey; @PersistenceCapable(identityType=IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Contact_Info_Entry implements Serializable { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy=IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Long Id; public static final long serialVersionUID=26362862L; String Contact_Id="",First_Name="",Last_Name="",Company_Name="",Branch_Name="",Address_1="",Address_2="",City="",State="",Zip="",Country=""; double D_1,D_2; boolean B_1,B_2; Vector<String> A_Vector=new Vector<String>(); public Contact_Info_Entry() { } ...... } How can my java applications get the object from a servlet url ? For instance if have an instance of Contact_Info_Entry who's Contact_Id is "ABC-123", and my App Id is : nm-java When my java program accesses the url : "http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_Contact_Info?Contact_Id=ABC-123 How will the Check_Contact_Info servlet get the object from datastore and return it to my app ? public class Check_Contact_Info_Servlet extends HttpServlet { static boolean Debug=true; public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException { } ... protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException,IOException { doGet(request,response); } } Frank

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• Question about cloning in Java

  - by devoured elysium

  In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

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• Implementing a scrabble trainer

  - by bstullkid

  Hello, I've recently been playing alot of online scrabble so I decided to make a program that quickly searches through a dictionary of 200,000+ words with an input of up to any 26 letters. My first attempt was fail as it took a while when you input 8 or more letters (just a basic look through dictionary and cancel out a letter if its found kind of thing), so I made a tree like structure containing only an array of 26 of the same structure and a flag to indicate the end of a word, doing that It can output all possible words in under a second even with an input of 26 characters. But it seems that when I input 12 or more letters with some of the same characters repeated i get duplicates; can anyone see why I would be getting duplicates with this code? (ill post my program at the bottom) Also, the next step once the duplicates are weeded out is to actually be able to input the letters on the game board and then have it calculate the best word you can make on a given board. I am having trouble trying to figure out a good algorithm that can analyze a scrabble board and an input of letters and output a result; the possible words that could be made I have no problem with but actually checking a board efficiently (ie can this word fit here, or here etc... without creating a non dictionary word in the process on some other string of letters) Anyone have a idea for an approach at that? (given a scrabble board, and an input of 7 letters, find all possible valid words or word sets that you can make) lol crap i forgot to email myself the code from my other computer thats in another state... ill post it on monday when I get back there! btw the dictionary im using is sowpods (http://www.calvin.edu/~rpruim/scrabble/ospd3.txt)

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• Custom Solr sorting

  - by Tom

  Hello everyone, I've been asked to do an evaluation of Solr as an alternative for a commercial search engine. The application now has a very particular way of sorting results using something called "buckets". I'll try to explain with a bit of details: In the interface they have 2 fields: "what" and "where". Both fields are actually sets of fields (what = category, name, contact info... and where= country, state, region, city...) so the copyfield feature of Solr immediately comes to mind. Now based on the field generated the actual match the result should end up in a specific bucket. In particular the first bucket contains all the result documents that have an exact match on the category field, in the second bucket all exact matches on name, the third partial matches on category, the fourth partial matches on name, the fifth matches on contact info etc... Then within each of those first tier buckets all results are placed in second tier buckets depending on what location was matched: city, then region, then province and so on. To even complicate things more there is also a third tier bucket where results are placed according to the value of a ranking field: all documents with the value 1 in the ranking field go in bucket 1 and so on. And finally results should be randomized in the third tier bucket... On top of this they obviously want support for facets and paging. My apologies for the long mail but I would greatly appreciate feedback and/or suggestions. I'm aware that this that this is a very particular problem but everything that points me in the right direction is helpful. Cheers, Tom

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• Autoselect, focus and highlight a new NSOutlineView row

  - by coneybeare

  This is probably just lack of experience with the NSOutlineView but I can't see a way to do this. I have a NSOutlineView (implemented with the excellent PXSourceList) with an add button that is totally functional in the aspect that I save/write/insert/delete rows correctly. I do not use a NSTreeController, and I don't use bindings. I add the entity using the following code: - (void)addEntity:(NSNotification *)notification { // Create the core data representation, and add it as a child to the parent node UABaseNode *node = [[UAModelController defaultModelController] createBaseNode]; [sourceList reloadData]; for (int i = 0; i < [sourceList numberOfRows]; i++) { if (node == [sourceList itemAtRow:i]) { [sourceList selectRowIndexes:[NSIndexSet indexSetWithIndex:i] byExtendingSelection:NO]; [sourceList editColumn:0 row:i withEvent:nil select:NO]; break; } } } When the add button is pressed, a new row is inserted like this: If I click away, then select the row and press enter to edit it, it now looks like this: My question is: How can I programmatically get the same state (focus, selected, highlighted) the first time, to make the user experience better?

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• Really cool way to create custom UITabBar for iPhone app?

  - by ludicco

  Hi, I am doing a lot of researching lately about how to get a different looking with nice effects UITabBar on my iPhone app, but unfortunately I am only finding things on how to replace background color etc. Well, I've checked out this app called Momento which is pretty cool and presents a very slick tabBar: So there are a couple of elements here I would like to ask you guys if you could help me by giving me the right directions on how to get a similar effect :) Arrow above items: as you can see this app has this animated arrow that runs above the selected item with a very smooth animation. Selected Stated of the item's image is not that blue-ish default one neither the default state which displays in a different shade of brown and gray version. nice Items separators with beveled vertical lines. diferrent background image for the tabBar different height for the tabBar At this point after some research I am able to set the height and background image by subclassing UITabBarController but I'm still not sure on how to accomplish the other items specially the first one related to the nice arrow effect. If someone knows about a very good tutorial on how to do this it would be great for clarifying what can or can't be done by subclassing the UITabBarController and specially if can be done in Interface Builder :) I am just starting on this world off app development for iOS so if you could help me on that it would be really appreciated Thanks a lot in advance

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• Hide table rows if Cookie is there

  - by kuswantin

  Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• In .NET, how do I prevent, or handle, tampering with form data of disabled fields before submission?

  - by David

  Hi, If a disabled drop-down list is dynamically rendered to the page, it is still possible to use Firebug, or another tool, to tamper with the submitted value, and to remove the "disabled" HTML attribute. This code: protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { var ddlTest = new DropDownList() {ID="ddlTest", Enabled = false}; ddlTest.Items.AddRange(new [] { new ListItem("Please select", ""), new ListItem("test 1", "1"), new ListItem("test 2", "2") }); Controls.Add(ddlTest); } results in this HTML being rendered: <select disabled="disabled" id="Properties_ddlTest" name="Properties$ddlTest"> <option value="" selected="selected">Please select</option> <option value="1">test 1</option> <option value="2">test 2</option> </select> The problem occurs when I use Firebug to remove the "disabled" attribute, and to change the selected option. On submission of the form, and re-creation of the field, the newly generated control has the correct value by the end of OnLoad, but by OnPreRender, it has assumed the identity of the submitted control and has been given the submitted form value. .NET seems to have no way of detecting the fact that the field was originally created in a disabled state and that the submitted value was faked. This is understandable, as there could be legitimate, client-side functionality that would allow the disabled attribute to be removed. Is there some way, other than a brute force approach, of detecting that this field's value should not have been changed? I see the brute force approach as being something crap, like saving the correct value somewhere while still in OnLoad, and restoring the value in the OnPreRender. As some fields have dependencies on others, that would be unacceptable to me.

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• Image insert problem php sqlserver

  - by Termedi

  Hi I can not save image inside a sql server 2000 database. datatype is image here is the code: // Image Upload <?php include('config.php'); if(is_uploaded_file($_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name'])) { $fileName = $_FILES['userfile']['name']; $tmpName = $_FILES['userfile']['tmp_name']; $fileSize = $_FILES['userfile']['size']; $fileType = $_FILES['userfile']['type']; $size = filesize($tmpName); set_magic_quotes_runtime(0);//to desactive the default escape spacials caracters made by PHP in the externes files $img_binaire = base64_encode(fread(fopen(str_replace("'","''",$tmpName), "r"), $size)); $query = "INSERT INTO test_image (image_name, image_content, image_size) ". "VALUES ('{$fileName}','{$img_binaire}', '{$size}')"; odbc_exec($conn, $query) or die('Error, query failed'); echo "<br>File $fileName uploaded<br>"; echo "<br>File Size: $fileSize <br>"; } ?> // Image Show <?php include('config.php'); $sql = "select * from test_image where id =2"; $rsl = odbc_exec($conn, $sql); $image_info = odbc_fetch_array($rsl); //$count = sizeof($image_info['image_content']); //header('Accept-Ranges: bytes'); //header('Content-Length: '.$image_info['image_size']); //header("Content-length: 17397"); header('Content-Type: image/jpeg'); echo base64_decode($image_info['image_content']); //echo bindec($image_info['image_content']); ?> Error: Warning: odbc_exec() [function.odbc-exec]: SQL error: [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Operand type clash: text is incompatible with image, SQL state 22005 in SQLExecDirect in C:\xampp\htdocs\test\upload.php on line 25 Error, query failed

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• Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

  - by Albert Perrien

  Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

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• Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

  - by NYSystemsAnalyst

  The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

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• How do I install websocket module for Node.js on Debian VPS?

  - by Ollie Shaw

  I currently am renting a VPS from Dreamhost which runs Debian. I am still learning command line on this OS, but fast! I have successfully installed Node.js, now I want to install the websocket module found here: https://github.com/Worlize/WebSocket-Node From the root user, I have run the following command: npm install websocket The error thrown is: [websocket v1.0.7] Native code compile failed!! On Windows, native extensions require Visual Studio and Python. On Unix, native extensions require Python, make and a C++ compiler. Start npm with --websocket:verbose to show compilation output (if any). What commands should I issue to install this websocket module and its requirements? Thanks very much! Edit: When I run sudo apt-get install gcc make I get this message: Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done gcc is already the newest version. gcc set to manually installed. make is already the newest version. 0 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 0 to remove and 44 not upgraded. And the same error when trying to install WebSocket.

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• Retrieving license type (linux/windows/windows+sqlserver) for an Amazon EC2 instance via the API?

  - by Geir

  I need to calculate the hourly running costs for my Amazon EC2 instances. This varies even between instances with same hardware configs (instance types) because I use different amazon images (AMIs): some plain windows server and some windows server with sql server (both of them have additional costs compared with plain linux instances) The EC2 Java API has a describeInstances() method which returns Instance objects with metadata such as instance id, instance type (m1.small/large...), state (running,stopped..) public ip, etc. This Instance object also has a .getLicense().getPool() which according to the Java API should return "The license pool from which this license was used (ex: 'windows')." I thought this is were it may also give 'windows+sqlserver' or something to that effect. The getLicense() method does however return null.. I've navigated around the EC2 web console, not being able to find this information, but I'm hoping that it is possible - otherwise it would mean that you cannot identify the true hourly cost of an particular instance unless you know which AMI was used to create it in the first place (plain windows server or windows server with sql server). Anyone? Thanks :) /Geir

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• Facebook Application with PHP running losing session

  - by ArneRie

  Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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• [C#]Update Datatable and DatagridView with database Changes by Timer

  - by aleroot

  Scenario : i have a database table that is being apdated frequently bey some services. I have a c# Winform Application that load this table in a datagridview by binding a datatable as Datasource, then i whant to add a Timer that every 10 seconds update a the content of a datatable with the last changes in the database table ... I don't need to update a database with the datatable changes, but i need to update datatable with the last changes in the database table, that is the inverse of the usually.... Is there a way to do that ? What is the best way ? i've tried with this code : private void ServiceTimer_Tick(object state) { OdbcConnection oCon = new OdbcConnection(); oCon.ConnectionString = ConnectionStrings; OdbcDataAdapter dp = new OdbcDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM table", oCon); dsProva.Tables.Clear(); dp.Fill(dsProva,"table"); dataGridViewMessaggi.DataSource = dsProva.Tables["table"]; dataGridViewMessaggi.Refresh(); } But every Timer Tick i lost the selection in DatagridView and Current Row .... Is There a better solution ?

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• Consecutive build of VS2005 and VS2008 C++ projects causes LNK1104 error

  - by TestAccount

  I have VS2005 and VS2008 installed on the same machine. I also have a common codebase that I build using both '05 and '08. For this purpose, I have 2 VC projects.. A '08 project called XYZ_2008.vcproj and a '05 project called XYZ_2005.vcproj, and the corresponding 2 slns as well. Both projects output dlls, libs and pdbs to the same output directory (all with appropriate _2005 and _2008 suffixes). Assuming that I am starting from a clean state, I first open XYZ_2005.sln (containing XYZ_2005.vcproj) in VS2005 and build it successfully. Then I close VS2005. Next, I open XYZ_2008.sln (containing XYZ_2008.vcproj) and build (not rebuild) it. At this point, I get an error saying: LINK : fatal error LNK1104: cannot open file 'mfc80u.lib' If now I rebuild the '08 solution, the error goes away and the build succeeds. The build also succeeds if I directly do a rebuild instead of a build for the '08 sln. In spite of everything being separate, the VS08 build seems to be picking up a MFC8 file (from VS05) instead of a MFC9 file. Can somebody please help out with this issue? Thanks in advance!

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• How deserealizing JSON with GSON

  - by loko

  I have one result of APPI http://developer.yahoo.com/geo/placefinder/guide/examples.html, I need to deserealizing the result JSON of example only with GSON http://where.yahooapis.com/geocode?location=San+Francisco,+CA&flags=J&appid=yourappid But i dont now have to do the class for deserealizing one JSON with array This is the reponse: {"ResultSet": {"version":"1.0", "Error":0, "ErrorMessage":"No error", "Locale":"en_US", "Quality":40, "Found":1, "Results":[ {"quality":40, "latitude":"37.779160", "longitude":"-122.420049", "offsetlat":"37.779160", "offsetlon":"-122.420049", "radius":5000, "name":"", "line1":"", "line2":"San Francisco, CA", "line3":"", "line4":"United States", "house":"", "street":"", "xstreet":"", "unittype":"", "unit":"", "postal":"", "neighborhood":"", "city":"San Francisco", "county":"San Francisco County", "state":"California", "country":"United States", "countrycode":"US", "statecode":"CA", "countycode":"", "uzip":"94102", "hash":"C1D313AD706E3B3C", "woeid":12587707, "woetype":9}] } } Im trying to deserealizing of this way but i couldn´t do that, please help me to do the correct class to get the JSON with GSON. public class LocationAddress { private ResultSet resultset; public static class ResultSet{ private String version; private String Error; private String ErrorMessage; private List<Results> results; } public static class Results{ private String quality; private String latitude; private String longitude; public String getQuality() { return quality; } public void setQuality(String quality) { this.quality = quality; } public String getLatitude() { return latitude; } public void setLatitude(String latitude) { this.latitude = latitude; } public String getLongitude() { return longitude; } public void setLongitude(String longitude) { this.longitude = longitude; } } }

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• asp net jquery popup dialog form in asp:formview

  - by qwebek

  Hi, i have following problem, i am using a popup jquery dialog with asp:formview . the purpose of this popup is for user to enter a hyperlink which is placed then in textbox control in formview the popup dialog div is located outside a formview just after body tag <body style="background-color: #FFFFFF; font-family:Lucida Console;"> <div id="dialog-form" title="sdfdfsdf" style="font-size:14px; "> <form> <fieldset> <label for="link">sdfdf</label> <input type="text" name="sdfsdf" id="link" size="32" /> </fieldset> </form> </div> <form id="form1" runat="server" style="margin-top:50px;" > <div> <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" ....... <InsertItemTemplate> ... <sometextbox ...../> <button id="create-user" class="ui-state-default ui-corner-all">Create link</button> ... </InsertItemTemplate> After clicking a button a popup window is shown BUT the page starts to refresh immidiately ((( and ofc popup s hidden after that if relocate the button outside the formview - the page is not refreshed, but i need it in formview.. any ideas what to do?

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