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  • VB.Net - Launch app on Windows startup

    - by Queops
    We all now the tricky folders where your application runs when you publish your VB.NET to other people, but I won't give up on the benefits of the system (auto-update, you know). Problem is: Program is supposed to startup, or not, with Windows if the user wishes so. I'm saving program preferences into My.Settings. All fine with that. If you debug it it will save the values between sessions. The problem is after deployment. I installed the program on a testing machine. Application works okay, the settings load, if it's the user launching it by themselfs (using shortcut on desktop for example). Now upon restarting the program does indeed start up as I want it to but the My.Settings don't show up! It's like the config file has been erased. If I close program and re-open by clicking shorcut it loads the settings just fine though. So I wonder what's the problem? This is the code I use to save the registry key: regKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run", True) regKey.SetValue("ScapeTracker", Chr(34) & Application.ExecutablePath & Chr(34) & " startup") Does what it's supposed to. The startup parameter is needed so the program knows if it's launched on startup on not (to show up on tray and idle there until user decides to use it). So the problem is that I can't use the settings upon restart of Windows, so I'm assuming the VB.Net applications have some extra parameters when launching? How can I solve this?

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  • Android Webkit Input elements buggy with CSS3 translate3D

    - by Dansl
    I'm having a couple issues with the Input element in a Webkit Android App i'm developing. Testing on 2.X, but 3.x doesn't seem to have these issues... The app works by having separate Div's for each "page", and I'm using CSS3 translate3D to animate between the pages. Some of those pages include Input elements. When I tap on the input to gain focus, any of my "position:fixed" Div's will shift about 5px from the top, and 5px left. Now the kicker... it will eventually fix itself, and then never happen again when you tap on an input, its only that first time... My other problem, the Input elements are screwy with keyboards, for instance, spell corrections/autocomplete will not input text, and when using Swype Keyboard, you can't "swipe" the word, ONLY individual taps for each letter will input text into the Input element. I've read that a lot of these might be caused by CSS3 Translate3D. But, I've tried just about everything to fix these issues, and I've searched just about every site for a solution, but havent been able to find a fix, or find anyone else with this issue... Does anyone else have these issues, or know of a fix? (Possible solution??) Anyone know of a way to override the default behavior of Input elements in the webkit? I wonder if I can generate my own TextView and position it over these input fields...? Any help is greatly appreciated :)

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  • Debugged Program Window Won't Close

    - by Marc Bernier
    Hi, I'm using VS 2008 on a 64-bit XP machine. I'm debugging a 32-bit C++ DLL via a console program. The DLL and EXE projects are contained in the same SLN so that I can modify the DLL as I test. What happens is that every once in a while I kill the program with Debug | Stop Debugging (Shift-F5). VS stops the program, but the console window stays open! If I'm sitting at a breakpoint and hit Shift-F5, it will terminate properly, but if the program is running full-tilt when I stop it, I often see this instead. The big problem is that I can't close these zombie windows. Using End Task in Task Manager does nothing (no message, no nothing). When I shut down the machine, it is unable to due to the orphans and I have to resort to actually turning off the power. I think this is connected to having the DLL and EXE project in the same SLN, as for months I worked on this project in 2 VS instances, one for the DLL and the other for the EXE. I would continually jump back and forth between the windows as I worked. This problem never happened until I put the two projects into a single SLN. The single SLN works a lot better, but this anomaly is very irritating. Any ideas anyone? UPDATE After a bit of searching (here), I found that it appears to have to do with one of the updates from last Tuesday (KB977165 or KB978037). Thank you Microsoft for your excellent pre-release testing.

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  • Access Controller Context/ TempData from business objects

    - by thanikkal
    I am trying to build a session/tempdata provider that can be swapped. The default provider will work on top of asp.net mvc and it needed to access the .net mvc TempData from the business object class. I know the tempdata is available through the controller context, but i cant seem to find if that is exposed through HttpContext or something. I dont really want to pass the Controller context as an argument as that would dilute my interface definition since only asp.net based session provider needs this, other (using NoSQL DB etc) doesn't care about Controller Context. To clarify further, adding little more code here. my ISession interface look like this. and when this code goes to production, the session/tempdata is expected to work using NoSql db. But i also like to have another implementation that works on top of asp.net mvc session/tempdata for my dev testing etc. public interface ISession { T GetTempData<T>(string key); void PutTempData<T>(string key, T value); T GetSessiondata<T>(string key); void PutSessiondata<T>(string key, T value); }

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  • How do I get Spotlight attributes to display in the get info window?

    - by Alexander Rauchfuss
    I have created a spotlight importer for comic files. The attributes are successfully imported and searchable. The one thing that remains is getting the attributes to display in a file's get info window. It seems that this should be a simple matter of editing the schema.xml file so the attributes are nested inside displayattrs tags. Unfortunately this does not seem to be working. I simplified the plugin for testing. The following are all of the important files. schema.xml <types> <type name="cx.c3.cbz-archive"> <allattrs> kMDItemTitle kMDItemAuthors </allattrs> <displayattrs> kMDItemTitle kMDItemAuthors </displayattrs> </type> <type name="cx.c3.cbr-archive"> <allattrs> kMDItemTitle kMDItemAuthors </allattrs> <displayattrs> kMDItemTitle kMDItemAuthors </displayattrs> </type> GetMetadataForFile.m Boolean GetMetadataForFile(void* thisInterface, CFMutableDictionaryRef attributes, CFStringRef contentTypeUTI, CFStringRef pathToFile) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [NSAutoreleasePool new]; NSString * file = (NSString *)pathToFile; NSArray * authors = [[UKXattrMetadataStore stringForKey: @"com_opencomics_authors" atPath: file traverseLink: NO] componentsSeparatedByString: @","]; [(NSMutableDictionary *)attributes setObject: authors forKey: (id)kMDItemAuthors]; NSString * title = [UKXattrMetadataStore stringForKey: @"com_opencomics_title" atPath: file traverseLink: NO]; [(NSMutableDictionary *)attributes setObject: title forKey: (id)kMDItemTitle]; [pool release]; return true; }

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  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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  • Strange problem with simple multithreading program in Java

    - by Elizabeth
    Hello, I am just starting play with multithreading programming. I would like to my program show alternately character '-' and '+' but it doesn't. My task is to use synchronized keyword. As far I have: class FunnyStringGenerator{ private char c; public FunnyStringGenerator(){ c = '-'; } public synchronized char next(){ if(c == '-'){ c = '+'; } else{ c = '-'; } return c; } } class ThreadToGenerateStr implements Runnable{ FunnyStringGenerator gen; public ThreadToGenerateStr(FunnyStringGenerator fsg){ gen = fsg; } @Override public void run() { for(int i = 0; i < 10; i++){ System.out.print(gen.next()); } } } public class Main{ public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { FunnyStringGenerator FSG = new FunnyStringGenerator(); ExecutorService exec = Executors.newCachedThreadPool(); for(int i = 0; i < 20; i++){ exec.execute(new ThreadToGenerateStr(FSG)); } } } EDIT: I also testing Thread.sleep in run method instead for loop.

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  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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  • How do I resize an iframe with dynamic content?

    - by Middletone
    I'm populating an iframe with some contents that are injected into it but I'm unable to size it correctly. I've tried a variety of methods but here is the most recent code. After populating the iframe with an html based mail message it doesn't seem to register the scroll height. <iframe scrolling="no" width="100%" onload="javascript:(LoadIFrame(this));" > HTML content goes here. Make sure it's long enough to need to scroll before testing. </iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> function LoadIFrame(iframe) { $("iframe").each(function() { $(this).load(function() { var doc = this.document; if (this.contentDocument) { doc = this.contentDocument; } else if (this.contentWindow) { doc = this.contentWindow.document; } else if (this.document) { doc = this.document; } this.height = (doc.body.scrollHeight + 50) + 'px'; this.onload = ''; }); txt = $(this).text(); var doc = this.document; if (this.contentDocument) { doc = this.contentDocument; } else if (this.contentWindow) { doc = this.contentWindow.document; } else if (this.document) { doc = this.document; } doc.open(); doc.writeln(txt); doc.close(); }); } </script>

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  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

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  • NoSQL for filesystem storage organization and replication?

    - by wheaties
    We've been discussing design of a data warehouse strategy within our group for meeting testing, reproducibility, and data syncing requirements. One of the suggested ideas is to adapt a NoSQL approach using an existing tool rather than try to re-implement a whole lot of the same on a file system. I don't know if a NoSQL approach is even the best approach to what we're trying to accomplish but perhaps if I describe what we need/want you all can help. Most of our files are large, 50+ Gig in size, held in a proprietary, third-party format. We need to be able to access each file by a name/date/source/time/artifact combination. Essentially a key-value pair style look-up. When we query for a file, we don't want to have to load all of it into memory. They're really too large and would swamp our server. We want to be able to somehow get a reference to the file and then use a proprietary, third-party API to ingest portions of it. We want to easily add, remove, and export files from storage. We'd like to set up automatic file replication between two servers (we can write a script for this.) That is, sync the contents of one server with another. We don't need a distributed system where it only appears as if we have one server. We'd like complete replication. We also have other smaller files that have a tree type relationship with the Big files. One file's content will point to the next and so on, and so on. It's not a "spoked wheel," it's a full blown tree. We'd prefer a Python, C or C++ API to work with a system like this but most of us are experienced with a variety of languages. We don't mind as long as it works, gets the job done, and saves us time. What you think? Is there something out there like this?

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  • Error in Ordinary Differential Equation representation

    - by Priya M
    UPDATE I am trying to find the Lyapunov Exponents given in link LE. I am trying to figure it out and understand it by taking the following eqs for my case. These are a set of ordinary differential equations (these are just for testing how to work with cos and sin as ODE) f(1)=ALPHA*(y-x); f(2)=x*(R-z)-y; f(3) = 10*cos(x); and x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(y)=X(3); f1 means dx/dt;f2 dy/dt and f3 in this case would be -10sinx. However,when expressing as x=X(1);y=X(2);i am unsure how to express for cos.This is just a trial example i was doing so as to know how to work with equations where we have a cos,sin etc terms as a function of another variable. When using ode45 to solve these Eqs [T,Res]=sol(3,@test_eq,@ode45,0,0.01,20,[7 2 100 ],10); it throws the following error ??? Attempted to access (2); index must be a positive integer or logical. Error in ==> Eq at 19 x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(x)=X(3); Is my representation x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(y)=X(3); alright? How to resolve the error? Thank you

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  • FragmentActivity cannot be resolve to a type

    - by Pratik
    I am starting learning for android tablet programming and I am able to updated my Eclipse as well as all new sdk for android. I have start testing application from this blog while at extending the FragmentActivity getting this error I have google it but not getting any solution. My project was created with 3.0 version having 11 level, all other packages are successfully used in the code but only this FragmentActivity was not able to resolve. Am I missing any library or any thing? My code public class Testing_newActivity extends FragmentActivity { // here the FragmentActivity getting error package not found for import /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); //setContentView(R.layout.main); if (getResources().getConfiguration().orientation == Configuration.ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) { // If the screen is now in landscape mode, we can show the // dialog in-line so we don't need this activity. finish(); return; } if (savedInstanceState == null) { // During initial setup, plug in the details fragment. DetailsFragment details = new DetailsFragment(); details.setArguments(getIntent().getExtras()); getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction().add( android.R.id.content, details).commit(); } } } android manifest file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.searce.testingnew" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="11" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" > <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name=".Testing_newActivity" > <intent-filter > <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> </manifest>

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  • python crc32 woes

    - by lazyr
    I'm writing a python program to extract data from the middle of a 6 GB bz2 file. A bzip2 file is made up of independently decryptable blocks of data, so I only need to find a block (they are delimited by magic bits), then create a temporary one-block bzip2 file from it in memory, and finally pass that to the bz2.decompress function. Easy, no? The bzip2 format has a crc32 checksum for the file at the end. No problem, binascii.crc32 to the rescue. But wait. The data to be checksummed does not necessarily end on a byte boundary, and the crc32 function operates on a whole number of bytes. My plan: use the binascii.crc32 function on all but the last byte, and then a function of my own to update the computed crc with the last 1-7 bits. But hours of coding and testing has left me bewildered, and my puzzlement can be boiled down to this question: how come crc32("\x00") is not 0x00000000? Shouldn't it be, according to the wikipedia article? You start with 0b00000000 and pad with 32 0's, then do polynomial division with 0x04C11DB7 until there are no ones left in the first 8 bits, which is immediately. Your last 32 bits is the checksum, and how can that not be all zeroes? I've searched google for answers and looked at the code of several crc32 implementations without finding any clue to why this is so.

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • MSSQL 2005 FOR XML

    - by Lima
    Hi, I am wanting to export data from a table to a specifically formated XML file. I am fairly new to XML files, so what I am after may be quite obvious but I just cant find what I am looking for on the net. The format of the XML results I need are: <data> <event start="May 28 2006 09:00:00 GMT" end="Jun 15 2006 09:00:00 GMT" isDuration="true" title="Writing Timeline documentation" image="http://simile.mit.edu/images/csail-logo.gif"> A few days to write some documentation </event> </data> My table structure is: name VARCHAR(50), description VARCHAR(255), startDate DATETIME, endDate DATETIME (I am not too interested in the XML fields image or isDuration at this point in time). I have tried: SELECT [name] ,[description] ,[startDate] ,[endTime] FROM [testing].[dbo].[time_timeline] FOR XML RAW('event'), ROOT('data'), type Which gives me: <data> <event name="Test1" description="Test 1 Description...." startDate="1900-01-01T00:00:00" endTime="1900-01-01T00:00:00" /> <event name="Test2" description="Test 2 Description...." startDate="1900-01-01T00:00:00" endTime="1900-01-01T00:00:00" /> </data> What I am missing, is the description needs to be outside of the event attributes, and there needs to be a tag. Is anyone able to point me in the correct direction, or point me to a tutorial or similar on how to accomplish this? Thanks, Matt

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  • Debug formatting code

    - by Arcadian
    I'm trying to debug my code here: private void CheckFormatting() { StringReader objReaderf = new StringReader(txtInput.Text); List<String> formatTextList = new List<String>(); do { formatTextList.Add(objReaderf.ReadLine()); } while (objReaderf.Peek() != -1); objReaderf.Close(); for (int i = 0; i < formatTextList.Count; i++) { if (!Regex.IsMatch(formatTextList[i], "G[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2} JG[0-9]{2")) { MessageBox.Show("Line " + formatTextList[i] + " is not formatted correctly.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); break; } else { this.WriteToFile(); MessageBox.Show("Your entries have been saved.", "Saved", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); } } } what it is supposed to do is to check each line in the list. if one of them isn't formatted correctly, then break the loop and display a message box, if all the lines are formatted properly then it should call the WriteToFile method. However, when testing it using input that WAS correctly formatted it displayed the error message and broke the loop. Anyone figure out why? There's some rep points in it for you :) Thanks in advance

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  • Maven + SSDM Build and Runtime Environment Automation

    - by Randy
    Preface: My Company, like most, has several run-time environments and several release versions which themselves are composed of different versions of various jars. For example, let us consider release versions 1.1, 1.2, and 1.3 of Software X, which may be deployed to a developer computer, testing, or production. Software-x-1.1 is itself composed of jarA-0.9.1 and jarB-0.7.5, but software-x-1.3 is composed of jarA-1.7.31 and jarB-0.8.1. Currently we use Spring's PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer to configure run-time variables (such as database credentials), however, properties also change with release versions. We also use Maven 2 POM version 4 to specify which versions of our code need to be used. We place the version numbers of our jars as properties within profiles (dev,test,prod) inside of the parent pom and then reference those version numbers in all project poms. As of right now, we have no way to specify which project versions pertain to a given release other than the most current one. Moreover, we deploy our run-time configurations to the SSDM pickup which then configures and creates the services defined by the built versions of our software. -- Questions: Is there any procedure/tool we can use to build our product by merely providing the run-time environment and version number? IE "build 1.1 dev"? Is there anyway we can store the required jar versions for each release build? We are currently versioning all files, including the parent pom, but merely versioning the parent pom does not record which release version is pertinent to that parent pom. What else can we do to further automate the process of builds? For example, if we could manage run-time configurations within the parent pom that would be a step in the right direction, but that seems like a violation of scope. Any tool outside of our framework is inconceivable at this point, but not in the far future. Summary: How can we automate our build process to the fullest extent without being error prone?

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  • Unusual heap size limitations in VS2003 C++

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a C++ app that uses large arrays of data, and have noticed while testing that it is running out of memory, while there is still plenty of memory available. I have reduced the code to a sample test case as follows; void MemTest() { size_t Size = 500*1024*1024; // 512mb if (Size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) TRACE("Invalid Size"); void * mem = malloc(Size); if (mem == NULL) TRACE("allocation failed"); } If I create a new MFC project, include this function, and run it from InitInstance, it works fine in debug mode (memory allocated as expected), yet fails in release mode (malloc returns NULL). Single stepping through release into the C run times, my function gets inlined I get the following // malloc.c void * __cdecl _malloc_base (size_t size) { void *res = _nh_malloc_base(size, _newmode); RTCCALLBACK(_RTC_Allocate_hook, (res, size, 0)); return res; } Calling _nh_malloc_base void * __cdecl _nh_malloc_base (size_t size, int nhFlag) { void * pvReturn; // validate size if (size > _HEAP_MAXREQ) return NULL; ' ' And (size _HEAP_MAXREQ) returns true and hence my memory doesn't get allocated. Putting a watch on size comes back with the exptected 512MB, which suggests the program is linking into a different run-time library with a much smaller _HEAP_MAXREQ. Grepping the VC++ folders for _HEAP_MAXREQ shows the expected 0xFFFFFFE0, so I can't figure out what is happening here. Anyone know of any CRT changes or versions that would cause this problem, or am I missing something way more obvious?

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  • How can I invoke a .Net DLL from a LabView 6.1 VI?

    - by tw1k
    I work in a manufacturing company that uses LabView for testing the devices we make. Most of the test engineers are using 7.1 which can natively reference a .Net assembly. However, there is a group that is stuck on LabView 6.1. I would like for them to be able to use my .Net assembly which is basically a proxy to some web services. I have created a test assembly that is nothing more than Hello World, and I'm trying to consume it in a VI. I made it COM visible, and registered it with regasm.exe and created a type library, which I'm not sure I need. I can see it in Visual Studio in the list of COM objects when I open the Add Reference window, so I know it's registered properly. I'm very unfamiliar with VI's. I'm only looking at it because no one I have spoken to in manufacturing knows anything about invoking a COM object in a VI. I'm basically looking for some names of controls or menu options to get the test engineers pointed in the right direction. I did a bunch of web searching on Google and the NI forums, but didn't find much. Alternatively, would it be easier to write a C or C++ DLL that acts as a proxy to my .Net DLL? Or is there a simple way to invoke a web service from a VI? That might obviate the need for a DLL altogether. I'm currently reading through this document from NI for help, but it obviously knows nothing about .Net and might not be able to help me choose the best path forward.

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  • Using the Queue class in Python 2.6

    - by voipme
    Let's assume I'm stuck using Python 2.6, and can't upgrade (even if that would help). I've written a program that uses the Queue class. My producer is a simple directory listing. My consumer threads pull a file from the queue, and do stuff with it. If the file has already been processed, I skip it. The processed list is generated before all of the threads are started, so it isn't empty. Here's some pseudo-code. import Queue, sys, threading processed = [] def consumer(): while True: file = dirlist.get(block=True) if file in processed: print "Ignoring %s" % file else: # do stuff here dirlist.task_done() dirlist = Queue.Queue() for f in os.listdir("/some/dir"): dirlist.put(f) max_threads = 8 for i in range(max_threads): thr = Thread(target=consumer) thr.start() dirlist.join() The strange behavior I'm getting is that if a thread encounters a file that's already been processed, the thread stalls out and waits until the entire program ends. I've done a little bit of testing, and the first 7 threads (assuming 8 is the max) stop, while the 8th thread keeps processing, one file at a time. But, by doing that, I'm losing the entire reason for threading the application. Am I doing something wrong, or is this the expected behavior of the Queue/threading classes in Python 2.6?

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  • Software Company Library

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi. A few days ago i had the idea to create a company library since my company has no training and many developers still develop as they did when they learned it 5 years ago. My hope is that they can lend books, read them and hopefully learn something from them (for example: object oriented programming or unit testing, which noone here knows how to use). After asking around most agreed that it was a good idea, so i brought my books, made a simple printed sheet with "Book A belongs to B" and "Developer A took the Book on dd.mm.yyyy" to get it started. Now i want to get some ideas for Books that i could add to the shelf (sadly from my own money since 100€/month for training is too much money for this multi-million euro company). We develop mostly PHP & MySQL so books specific to this topic would be preferred but i think if people learn other languages they might get ideas on how to develop better with the current language so other books are ok, too. Which books would you recommend? PS: Personally i'd like to add some Project Management books, too, as it's a topic i'm interested in, eventhough i'm just a junior developer (We've got Peopleware already, great book btw).

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  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • http authentication fails in cucumber when adding @javascript tag

    - by JESii
    I have a feature in my Rials app that works just fine with the message "Responds to browser_basic_authorize" from the Background Given step. However, if I add a @javascript tag before the scenario, then my Background Given fails with "I don't know how to login". What's going wrong and how do I go about testing javascrpt interactions on my app? Background: Given I perform HTTP authentication as "<id>/<password>" When I go to the homepage Then I should see "Text-that-you-should-see-on-your-home-page" Scenario: Displaying injury causative factors Given I am on the new_incident_report page When I choose "incident_report_employee_following_procedures_true" Then I should see "Equipment failure?" Then I should not see "Lack of training" When /^I perform HTTP authentication as "([^\"]*)\/([^\"]*)"$/ do |username, password| puts "id/pswd: #{username}/#{password}" ### Following works ONLY if performed first before even going to a page!!! if page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_auth) puts 'Responds to basic_auth' page.driver.basic_auth(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to basic_authorize' page.driver.basic_authorize(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:browser) && page.driver.browser.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to browser_basic_authorize' page.driver.browser.basic_authorize(username, password) else raise "I don't know how to log in!" end end Rails 3.0.9, current gems, other tests passing.

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