Search Results

Search found 15087 results on 604 pages for 'native mode'.

Page 517/604 | < Previous Page | 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524  | Next Page >

  • Testing ASP.NET webservice using NUnit and transferring session state

    - by herbertyeung
    I have a NUnit test class that starts an ASP.NET web service (using Microsoft.VisualStudio.WebHost.Server) which runs on http://localhost:1070 The problem I am having is that I want to create a session state within the NUnit test that is accessible by the ASP.NET web service on localhost:1070. I have done the following, and the session state can be created successfully inside the NUnit Test, but is lost when the web service is invoked: //Create a new HttpContext for NUnit Testing based on: //http://blogs.imeta.co.uk/jallderidge/archive/2008/10/19/456.aspx HttpContext.Current = new HttpContext( new HttpRequest("", "http://localhost:1070/", ""), new HttpResponse( new System.IO.StringWriter())); //Create a new HttpContext.Current for NUnit Testing System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateUtility.AddHttpSessionStateToContext( HttpContext.Current, new HttpSessionStateContainer("", new SessionStateItemCollection(), new HttpStaticObjectsCollection(), 20000, true, HttpCookieMode.UseCookies, SessionStateMode.Off, false)); HttpContext.Current.Session["UserName"] = "testUserName"; testwebService.testMethod(); I want to be able to get the session state created in the NUnit test for Session["UserName"] in the ASP.NET web service: [WebMethod(EnableSession=true)] public int testMethod() { string user; if(Session["UserName"] != null) { user = (string)Session["UserName"]; //Do some processing of the user return 1; } else return 0; } The web.config file has the following configuration for the session state configuration and would like to remain using InProc than rather StateServer Or SQLServer: <sessionState mode="InProc" stateConnectionString="tcpip=127.0.0.1:42424" cookieless="false" timeout="20"/>

    Read the article

  • Single intent to let user take picture OR pick image from gallery in Android

    - by Damian
    I'm developing an app for Android 2.1 upwards. I want to enable my users to select a profile picture within my app (I'm not using the contacts framework). The ideal solution would be to fire an intent that enables the user to select an image from the gallery, but if an appropriate image is not available then use the camera to take a picture (or vice-versa i.e. allow user to take picture but if they know they already have a suitable image already, let them drop into the gallery and pick said image). Currently I can do one or the other but not both. If I go directly into camera mode using MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE then there is no option to drop into the gallery. If I go directly to the gallery using Intent.ACTION_PICK then I can pick an image but if I click the camera button (in top right hand corner of gallery) then a new camera intent is fired. So, any picture that is taken is not returned directly to my application. (Sure you can press the back button to drop back into the gallery and select image from there but this is an extra unnecessary step and is not at all intuitive). So is there a way to combine both or am I going to have to offer a menu to do one or the other from within my application? Seems like it would be a common use case...surely I'm missing something?

    Read the article

  • Reduce unwanted noise

    - by Rajeev
    In the below code sometimes when microphone is not connected some noise is generated and the system just keeps on buzzing the same sound.Whats wrong with the code below and how to reduce the unwanted noise. Should i set myMic.setLoopBack(false) in the below code <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" width="300" height="100" creationComplete="init()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; import flash.net.NetStream; private var myMic:Microphone; private var recordingState:String = "idle"; private function init():void { myMic = Microphone.getMicrophone(); myMic.setSilenceLevel(0); myMic.rate = 44; myMic.gain = 100; myMic.setUseEchoSuppression(true); micLevel.visible = true; //Security.showSettings(SecurityPanel.MICROPHONE); myMic.setLoopBack(true); if (myMic != null) { myMic.setUseEchoSuppression(true); micLevel.setProgress(myMic.activityLevel, 100); addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, showMicLevel); //micLevel.setProgress(myMic.activityLevel, 100); } } private function showMicLevel(event:Event):void{ switch (recordingState){ case "idle" : micLevel.setProgress(myMic.activityLevel, 100); break; } } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:ProgressBar x="0" y="36" mode="manual" id="micLevel" label="" labelPlacement="bottom" width="100" fontSize="10" fontWeight="normal"/> </mx:Application>

    Read the article

  • Intermittent asp.net mvc exception: “A public action method ABC could not be found on controller XYZ

    - by Chris Schoon
    Hi, I'm getting an intermittent exception saying that asp.net mvc can’t find the action method. Here’s the exception: A public action method 'Fill' could not be found on controller 'Schoon.Form.Web.Controllers.ChrisController'. I think I have the routing set up correctly because this application works most of the time. Here is the controller’s action method. [ActionName("Fill")] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get | HttpVerbs.Post), UserIdFilter, DTOFilter] public ActionResult Fill(int userId, int subscriberId, DisplayMode? mode) { //… } The route: routes.MapRoute( "SchoonForm", "Form/Fill/{subscriberId}", new { controller = "ChrisController", action = "Fill" }, new { subscriberId = @"\d+" } ); And here is the stack: System.Web.HttpException: A public action method 'Fill' could not be found on controller 'Schoon.Form.Web.Controllers.ChrisController'. at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.HandleUnknownAction(String actionName) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\Controller.cs:line 197 at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\Controller.cs:line 164 at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\ControllerBase.cs:line 76 at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\ControllerBase.cs:line 87 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 80 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 68 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 104 at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) Here is an example of my filters they all work the same way: public class UserIdFilter : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string Key = "userId"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(Key)) { filterContext.ActionParameters[Key] = // get the user id from session or cookie } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } Thanks, Chris

    Read the article

  • SPWorkflowCollection on SPListItem is always empty

    - by armannvg
    Hi I'm having a problem relating to Sharepoint workflows and the associated task list. I have 2 custom workflows that we created for our product. They both use the same Task list that has a custom content type that inherits from the Task content type. Now I have a case where a running workflow has been deleted via the list has been deleted or the document, this results in orphaned tasks. I want to overwrite the Task lists OnDeleting event, so that users can cleanup their tasks so that it won't contain unneccessary orphaned tasks. So my item deleting looks like this public override void ItemDeleting(SPItemEventProperties properties) { SPListItem currentListItem = properties.ListItem; } The problem is that when I go into debug mode and check the currentListItem.Workflows.Count field then it's always 0. It doesn't matter which workflow I initiate or what task i look at, the SPWorkflowCollection returned is always empty :( I was wondering if this might be related to a bug in our custom workflow where it's not wired up properly (but it finishes correctly and tasks are deleted when a workflow is terminated) or am I looking at this the wrong way ?

    Read the article

  • Connect to a remote Oracle 11g server using OracleClient of .NET 2.0

    - by Raghu M
    I have to connect to a Oracle server on the network using a .NET / C# (Winform) application. I am trying to use System.Data.OracleClient but in vain. Here are the details I can possibly think of (that might help someone reading this question): Platform: Visual Studio 2005 / .NET 2.0 with C# on Windows Vista Home Premium Library: System.Data.OracleClient Server: Oracle 11g (located on the same LAN) Please note that I don't have Oracle installed locally and I have hunted every discussion forum possible for help - but most of them assume local Oracle installation! Here is my connection string: "User Id=TSUSER;Password=ts12TS;Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=MyServerIP)(PORT=1521))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVICE_NAME=ORCL)));" And I get this error: OCIEnvCreate failed with return code -1 but error message text was not available. Stack trace: at System.Data.OracleClient.OciHandle..ctor(OciHandle parentHandle, HTYPE handleType, MODE ocimode, HANDLEFLAG handleflags) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection.OpenOnLocalTransaction(String userName, String password, String serverName, Boolean integratedSecurity, Boolean unicode, Boolean omitOracleConnectionName) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection..ctor(OracleConnectionString connectionOptions) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnection.Open() at DGKit.Util.DataUtil.Generate() in D:\SVNRoot\sandbox\DGDev\Util\DataUtil.cs:line 68

    Read the article

  • Android SDK: hello world does not run

    - by Alex
    I have installed Java x64, Eclipse Classic Judo x64 + ADT Pluggin. OS win 7 x64. I did installation everything according to the manual. Then created first application and launched it. Emulator was launched but hello world was not. I have not idea what doing wrong. Do anyone knows of such error and my problem as a whole? thx Console log: [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - test] ------------------------------ [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - test] Android Launch! [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - test] adb is running normally. [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - test] Performing com.example.test.MainActivity activity launch [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - test] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'AVD_41' [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - test] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'AVD_41' [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] Failed to create Context 0x3005 [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] emulator: WARNING: Could not initialize OpenglES emulation, using software renderer. [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] WARNING: Data partition already in use. Changes will not persist! [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] WARNING: SD Card image already in use: C:\Users\Zewisa\.android\avd\AVD_41.avd/sdcard.img [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] WARNING: Cache partition already in use. Changes will not persist! [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] could not get wglGetExtensionsStringARB [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] could not get wglGetExtensionsStringARB [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] could not get wglGetExtensionsStringARB [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] could not get wglGetExtensionsStringARB [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] could not get wglGetExtensionsStringARB [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] could not get wglGetExtensionsStringARB [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] could not get wglGetExtensionsStringARB [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] could not get wglGetExtensionsStringARB [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator] emulator: warning: opening audio input failed [2012-10-06 13:35:42 - Emulator]

    Read the article

  • Trouble Running Leaks Instrument

    - by TheGeoff
    I'm having trouble running the Leaks Instrument since installing the 3.0 SDK. An NDA disclaimer here I don't think this is a 3.0 SDK issue, just a configuration problem. So I'm looking for advice on configuring the tools in question not the 3.0 SDK per se. Here’s the breakdown of the behavior I am seeing. My Application is compiled to OS version 2.2. I can run it out of XCode in debug mode on the Simulator and Device running 2.2, 2.2.1, 3.0. If I start it with Performance Tools - Leaks, I get an error message from the OS, “The application xxxx quit unexpectedly”, “Ignore, Report, Relaunch.” If I click “Ignore” one of two things will happen, either Leaks tells me it couldn’t attach, or Leaks stop responding to input and I have to Force Quit. Interesting thing is the Simulator starts in 3.0 OS. If I start Instruments Manually and attach to a running 2.2 Simulator it shows the same behavior. If I attach Leaks to an iPhone Device it works. It seems that once I launch Leaks my app won't run in the simulator until I do a new build. Any ideas for getting my Simulator/Leaks/Xcode synced back up? Thanks, Geoff

    Read the article

  • Non-blocking TCP connection issues.

    - by Poni
    Hi! I think I'm in a problem. I have two TCP apps connected to each other which use winsock I/O completion ports to send/receive data (non-blocking sockets). Everything works just fine until there's a data transfer burst. The sender starts sending incorrect/malformed data. I allocate the buffers I'm sending on the stack, and if I understand correctly, that's a wrong to do, because these buffers should remain as I sent them until I get the "write complete" notification from IOCP. Take this for example: void some_function() { char cBuff[1024]; // filling cBuff with some data WSASend(...); // sending cBuff, non-blocking mode // filling cBuff with other data WSASend(...); // again, sending cBuff // ..... and so forth! } If I understand correctly, each of these WSASend() calls should have its own unique buffer, and that buffer can be reused only when the send completes. Correct? Now, what strategies can I implement in order to maintain a big sack of such buffers, how should I handle them etc'? And, if I am to use buffers that means I should copy the data to be sent from the source buffer to the temporary one, thus, I'd set SO_SNDBUF on each socket to zero, so the system will not re-copy what I already copied. Are you with me? Please let me know if I wasn't clear.

    Read the article

  • Application.ProcessMessages hangs???

    - by X-Ray
    my single threaded delphi 2009 app (not quite yet complete) has started to have a problem with Application.ProcessMessages hanging. my app has a TTimer object that fires every 100 ms to poll an external device. i use Application.ProcessMessages to update the screen when something changes so the app is still responsive. one of these was in a grid OnMouseDown event. in there, it had an Application.ProcessMessages that essentially hung. removing that was no problem except that i soon discovered another Application.ProcessMessages that was also blocking. i think what may be happening to me is that the TTimer is--in the app mode i'm currently debugging--probably taking too long to complete. i have prevented the TTimer.OnTimer event hander from re-entering the same code (see below): procedure TfrmMeas.tmrCheckTimer(Sender: TObject); begin if m_CheckTimerBusy then exit; m_CheckTimerBusy:=true; try PollForAndShowMeasurements; finally m_CheckTimerBusy:=false; end; end; what places would it be a bad practice to call Application.ProcessMessages? OnPaint routines springs to mind as something that wouldn't make sense. any general recommendations? i am surprised to see this kind of problem arise at this point in the development!

    Read the article

  • wordpress extended_valid_elements for script tag?

    - by John
    Can someone tell me how to tell Wordpress' tinymce editor to NOT strip out script tags? I looked in wp-admin/includes/post.php and added 'extended_valid_elements'=>'script[charset|defer|language|src|type]', to the $initArray. When I do a view source on the CMS post editor, I see taht it does show up like so: <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ tinyMCEPreInit = { base : "http://dev.esolar.ca/wp-includes/js/tinymce", suffix : "", query : "ver=327-1235", mceInit : {mode:"specific_textareas", editor_selector:"theEditor", width:"100%", theme:"advanced", skin:"wp_theme", theme_advanced_buttons1:"bold,italic,strikethrough,|,bullist,numlist,blockquote,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,|,link,unlink,wp_more,|,spellchecker,fullscreen,wp_adv", theme_advanced_buttons2:"formatselect,underline,justifyfull,forecolor,|,pastetext,pasteword,removeformat,|,charmap,|,outdent,indent,|,undo,redo,wp_help", theme_advanced_buttons3:"", theme_advanced_buttons4:"", language:"en", spellchecker_languages:"+English=en,Danish=da,Dutch=nl,Finnish=fi,French=fr,German=de,Italian=it,Polish=pl,Portuguese=pt,Spanish=es,Swedish=sv", theme_advanced_toolbar_location:"top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align:"left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location:"bottom", theme_advanced_resizing:"1", theme_advanced_resize_horizontal:"", dialog_type:"modal", relative_urls:"", remove_script_host:"", convert_urls:"", apply_source_formatting:"", remove_linebreaks:"1", gecko_spellcheck:"1", entities:"38,amp,60,lt,62,gt", accessibility_focus:"1", tabfocus_elements:"major-publishing-actions", media_strict:"", paste_remove_styles:"1", paste_remove_spans:"1", paste_strip_class_attributes:"all", wpeditimage_disable_captions:"", plugins:"safari,inlinepopups,spellchecker,paste,wordpress,media,fullscreen,wpeditimage,wpgallery,tabfocus"}, load_ext : function(url,lang){var sl=tinymce.ScriptLoader;sl.markDone(url+'/langs/'+lang+'.js');sl.markDone(url+'/langs/'+lang+'_dlg.js');} }; /* ]]> */ </script> But for some reason ,my editor still doesn't save <script> tags. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net Web Site Administration Tool with SqlCeMembership

    - by Riderman de Sousa Barbosa
    I am developing an application in MVC 3. I installed this provider via Nuget . Basically, it allows to use any part of memberships, rules and profiles with a .sdf (compact) database. I need the "Web Site Administration Tool" use this provider. But I can not use it. Already checked the web.config and everything is ok. When I open the "Web Site Administration Tool" on the Security I click test (any provider) and the error happens. The following images. Error when clicking test "Could not establish a connection to the database. If you have not yet created the SQL Server database, exit the Web Site Administration tool, use the aspnet_regsql command-line utility to create and configure the database, and then return to this tool to set the provider." Here part of my web.config <authentication mode="Forms" /> <membership> <providers> <add connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" writeExceptionsToEventLog="false" name="SqlCeMembershipProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeMembershipProvider, ErikEJ.SqlCeMembership" /> </providers> </membership> <profile enabled="false"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="SqlCeProfileProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeProfileProvider" connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" /> </providers> </profile> <roleManager> <providers> <add connectionStringName="SqlCeServices" applicationName="/" writeExceptionsToEventLog="false" name="SqlCeRoleProvider" type="ErikEJ.SqlCeRoleProvider, ErikEJ.SqlCeMembership" /> </providers> </roleManager> <connectionStrings> <add name="SqlCeServices" connectionString="data source=|DataDirectory|\SqlCeAspnetdb.sdf" /> </connectionStrings>

    Read the article

  • How to best future proof my application that needs to connect to Outlook?

    - by Troy
    I have a contact management application written in Delphi which has a “Sync with Outlook” feature that I developed 10 years ago. Now, I’m going back to add some features and fix some bugs. This sync feature uses the Outlook object model to get started, but it has an optional mode called “Use MAPI Enhancements” where it uses pure MAPI to speed up how it looks for changes, and it allows notes to be synced w/ RTF instead of just plain text. I'm wondering if supporting two parallel paths of execution is a good idea or not. If I went with all MAPI, I believe I'd avoid some security prompts, and I'd avoid situations where anti-virus has "script-blocking" features which block my app from connecting to Outlook. But I believe that on the down side, my 32-bit app would not be able to to connect with 64-bit Outlook 2010 using MAPI. And I wonder about the future of MAPI in general. If I stick with the Outlook object model, will my 32-bit app be able to connect to the Outlook object model (since it's out of process COM)? If so, this is a compelling reason to keep my Outlook object model execution path in place. But if not, and if my app needs to be compiled for x64, then why not just go with pure MAPI?

    Read the article

  • General String Encryption in .NET

    - by cryptospin
    I am looking for a general string encryption class in .NET. (Not to be confused with the 'SecureString' class.) I have started to come up with my own class, but thought there must be a .NET class that already allows you to encrypt/decrypt strings of any encoding with any Cryptographic Service Provider. Public Class SecureString Private key() As Byte Private iv() As Byte Private m_SecureString As String Public ReadOnly Property Encrypted() As String Get Return m_SecureString End Get End Property Public ReadOnly Property Decrypted() As String Get Return Decrypt(m_SecureString) End Get End Property Public Sub New(ByVal StringToSecure As String) If StringToSecure Is Nothing Then StringToSecure = "" m_SecureString = Encrypt(StringToSecure) End Sub Private Function Encrypt(ByVal StringToEncrypt As String) As String Dim result As String = "" Dim bytes() As Byte = Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(StringToEncrypt) Using provider As New AesCryptoServiceProvider() With provider .Mode = CipherMode.CBC .GenerateKey() .GenerateIV() key = .Key iv = .IV End With Using ms As New IO.MemoryStream Using cs As New CryptoStream(ms, provider.CreateEncryptor(), CryptoStreamMode.Write) cs.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length) cs.FlushFinalBlock() End Using result = Convert.ToBase64String(ms.ToArray()) End Using End Using Return result End Function Private Function Decrypt(ByVal StringToDecrypt As String) As String Dim result As String = "" Dim bytes() As Byte = Convert.FromBase64String(StringToDecrypt) Using provider As New AesCryptoServiceProvider() Using ms As New IO.MemoryStream Using cs As New CryptoStream(ms, provider.CreateDecryptor(key, iv), CryptoStreamMode.Write) cs.Write(bytes, 0, bytes.Length) cs.FlushFinalBlock() End Using result = Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()) End Using End Using Return result End Function End Class

    Read the article

  • ApplicationPoolIdentity permissions on Temporary Asp.Net files

    - by Anton
    Hi all, at work I am struggling a bit with the following situation: We have a web application that runs on a WIndows Server 2008 64 bits machine. The app's ApplicationPool is running under the ApplicationPoolIdentity and configured for .net 2 and Classic pipeline mode. This works fine up to the moment that XmlSerialization requires creation of Serializer assemblies where MEF is being used to create a collection of knowntypes. To remedy this I was hoping that granting the ApplicationPoolIdentity rights to the ASP.Net Temporary Files directory would be enough, but alas... What I did was the run the following command from a cmd prompt: icacls "c:\windows\microsoft.net\framework64\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files" /grant "IIS AppPool\MyAppPool":(M) Obviously this did not work, otherwise you would not be reading this :) Strange thing is that whenever I grant the Users or even more specific, the Authenticated Users Group those permissions, it works. What's weird as well (in my eyes) is that before I started granting access the ApplicationPoolIdentity was already a member of IIS_IUSRS which does have Modify rights for the temporary asp files directory. And now I'm left wondering why this situation requires Modify rights for the Authenticated Users group. I thought it could be because the apppool account was missing additional rights (googling for this returned some results, so I tried those), but granting the ApplicationPoolIdentity modification rights to the Windows\Temp directory and/or the application directory itself did not fix it. For now we have a workaround, but I hate that I don't know what is exactly going on here, so I was hoping any of you guys could shed some light on this. Thanx in advance!

    Read the article

  • django-social-auth for Facebook is redirecting home and not logging in

    - by Scott Rogowski
    I have had django-social-auth working for Google for quite some time now but am having problems with Facebook. I am at the point where clicking on the /login/facebook/ link will take me to the Facebook authorization page. I then click "go to app" and it redirects me to my home page but does not log in or create a user but does put some strange "#=" onto the back of my URL. Reading up on that, here https://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/552/, and here https://github.com/omab/django-social-auth/issues/199, it seems that would be happening if the redirect uri was not defined. However, on my facebook app settings, I have the following (replacing my site with example.com): + App Namespace: "example" + Site URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" + Site Domain: "example.com" + Sandbox Mode: "On" + Post-Authorize Redirect URL: "http://apps.facebook.com/example/" + Deauthorize URL: "http://www.example.com/" + Post-Authorize URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" The request that django-social-auth is sending to facebook is (replacing my info again): "https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?scope=email&state=*&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fexample.com%2Fcomplete%2Ffacebook%2F%3Fredirect_state%3D***&client_id=*" The /complete/facebook/ is what is in the documentation and google works as /complete/google/ What am I missing here?

    Read the article

  • How do you send in the LayoutRoot into a RelayCommand via a EventToCommand?

    - by user298145
    Grid example with the trigger: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" DataContext="{Binding ProjectGrid, Source={StaticResource Locator}}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Loaded"> <GalaSoft_MvvmLight_Command:EventToCommand Command="{Binding LoadedCommand, Mode=OneWay}" PassEventArgsToCommand="True"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> In my ViewModel I set the LoadedCommand like this: public RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs> LoadedCommand {get;private set;} And in the ViewModel initializer I have this: public ProjectGridViewModel() { LoadedCommand = new RelayCommand<RoutedEventArgs>(e => { this.DoLoaded(e); } ); } Then, in my DoLoaded I'm trying to do this: Grid _projectGrid = null; public void DoLoaded(RoutedEventArgs e) { _projectGrid = e.OriginalSource as Grid; } You can see I'm trying to get rid of my Loaded="" in my Grid in my view, and do a RelayCommand instead. The issue is the OriginalSource brings back nothing. My loaded event is running nice this way, but I need to get the Grid in via the RoutedEventArgs it seems. I tried passing in the Grid in the EventCommand with CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot}", but this just crashes VS2010 when hitting F5 and running the project. Any ideas? Or a better way to do this? I had the Loaded event run in the views C# then call the ViewModel in the Views code-behind, but I'd like to do a nicer binding. Talking to the ViewMode in the Views code-behind feels like a hack.

    Read the article

  • Good web hosting for ASP.NET MVC 1.0 app

    - by magellings
    I'm looking for hosting for an ASP.NET MVC 1.0 app. I've narrowed down with research to either asphostportal, asphostcentral, godaddy, or 1&1. I've ruled out crystaltech and softsyshosting due to price with better plans. Will be running a small e-commerce site written with ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and want to be sure it will work, as well as looking for cheapest price with best value in regards to disk space/bandwidth. And bandwidth is basically how much data can be sent from your site per month right? Any opinions appreciated as I'm finding this tough to narrow down. I know you can bin deploy MVC but heard full trust mode is required as well as some routing rules in IIS. 1&1 says they can't enable full trust. This is what I was looking at: name data(disk space/bandwidth) price MVCenabled crystal tech 500MB/50GB 7.95 + 7.95 setup 2000MB/200GB 16.95 softsyshosting 500MB/5GB 3.50 + 12/year domain 1000MB/10GB 5.84 3000MB/30GB 13.33 asphostportal 5GB/50GB 5.75 + 8.99/year yes 10GB/100GB 10.25 asphostcentral 2GB/15GB 4.99 yes 3GB/30GB 7.99/month domain free 5GB/40GB 11.99 godaddy 10GB/300GB 10.69 + 4.74/month 150GB/1500GB 6.99/month 1&1 10GB/unlimited 3.99 + free domain 150GB/unlimited 6.99 1&1 seems to be best value if MVC app will work. I'm a bit confused on bandwidth being unlimited. May seem like a good thing, but what if one website on the server is a resource hog because of this?

    Read the article

  • Predicate crashing iPhone App!

    - by DVG
    To preface, this is a follow up to an inquiry made a few days ago: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2981803/iphone-app-crashes-when-merging-managed-object-contexts Short Version: EXC_BAD_ACCESS is crashing my app, and zombie-mode revealed the culprit to be my predicate embedded within the fetch request embedded in my Fetched Results Controller. How does an object within an object get released without an explicit command to do so? Long Version: Application Structure Platforms View Controller - Games View Controller (Predicated upon platform selection) - Add Game View Controller When a row gets clicked on the Platforms view, it sets an instance variable in Games View for that platform, then the Games Fetched Results Controller builds a fetch request in the normal way: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController{ if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } //build the fetch request for Games NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Game" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; //predicate NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"platform == %@", selectedPlatform]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; //sort based on name NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; //fetch and build fetched results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; [predicate release]; [request release]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; return fetchedResultsController; } At the end of this method, the fetchedResultsController's _fetch_request - _predicate member is set to an NSComparisonPredicate object. All is well in the world. By the time - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section gets called, the _predicate is now a Zombie, which will eventually crash the application when the table attempts to update itself. I'm more or less flummoxed. I'm not releasing the fetched results controller or any of it's parts, and the only part getting dealloc'd is the predicate. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How can I change the visibility of elements inside a DataTemplate when a row is selected in a Silver

    - by miketrash
    I'm using the MVVM pattern. I've bound my items and I want to only show the edit button when a row is selected in the datagrid. It appears to be possible with triggers in WPF but we don't have triggers in Silverlight. I tried a TemplatedParent binding but I'm not sure what the TemplatedParent is in this case. We don't have RelativeSource ancestor in Silverlight either. At this point I'm going to look at a solution using the code behind... <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn IsReadOnly="True" Header="Name" Width="300"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock x:Name="textBlock" Text="{Binding Name, Mode=OneWay}" VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="4,4,0,4"/> <Button Margin="1,1,4,1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" VerticalAlignment="Center" Padding="7,4" Content="Edit" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns>

    Read the article

  • Trying to find a PHP5 API-based embeddable CMS

    - by StrangeElement
    I've been making the rounds for a CMS that I can use as an API, in a sort of "embedded" mode. I mean by this that I don't want the CMS to do any logic or presentation. I want it to be used as an API, which I can then use within an existing site. I don't want to be tied to the architecture of the CMS. A good example of this is NC-CMS (http://www.nconsulting.ca/nc-cms/). All it needs is an include at the top, then wherever editable content is desired it's only a function call with a unique label. It's also perfect in the sense that it allows to differentiate between small strings (like titles, labels) and texts (which require a rich-text editor). It's the only CMS I found that fits this description, but it is a little too light as it does not handle site structure. I need to be able to allow my client to add pages, choosing an existing template for the layout. A minimal back-end is required. Wordpress also fits some requirements in that it handles only content editing and allows freedom for the themes by letting them call the content where and how they want it. But it is article-based and backwards, in that it embeds sites (as themes) within its structure, rather than being embeddable in sites like NC. It's funny how checking out all the CMS out there, almost all of them claim that most CMS are not self-sufficient, that they do not handle application logic, while (almost) every single on I found with only one exception do so. Many are mostly article-based blog engines, which does not fit my need. I would appreciate any CMS that fits the general description.

    Read the article

  • VSC++, virtual method at bad adress, curious bug

    - by antoon.groenewoud
    Hello, This guy: virtual phTreeClass* GetTreeClass() const { return (phTreeClass*)m_entity_class; } When called, crashed the program with an access violation, even after a full recompile. All member functions and virtual member functions had correct memory adresses (I hovered mouse over the methods in debug mode), but this function had a bad memory adress: 0xfffffffc. Everything looked okay: the 'this' pointer, and everything works fine up until this function call. This function is also pretty old and I didn't change it for a long time. The problem just suddenly popped up after some work, which I commented all out to see what was doing it, without any success. So I removed the virtual, compiled, and it works fine. I add virtual, compiled, and it still works fine! I basically changed nothing, and remember that I did do a full recompile earlier, and still had the error back then. I wasn't able to reproduce the problem. But now it is back. I didn't change anything. Removing virtual fixes the problem. Sincerely, Antoon

    Read the article

  • How to make std::vector's operator[] compile doing bounds checking in DEBUG but not in RELEASE

    - by Edison Gustavo Muenz
    I'm using Visual Studio 2008. I'm aware that std::vector has bounds checking with the at() function and has undefined behaviour if you try to access something using the operator [] incorrectly (out of range). I'm curious if it's possible to compile my program with the bounds checking. This way the operator[] would use the at() function and throw a std::out_of_range whenever something is out of bounds. The release mode would be compiled without bounds checking for operator[], so the performance doesn't degrade. I came into thinking about this because I'm migrating an app that was written using Borland C++ to Visual Studio and in a small part of the code I have this (with i=0, j=1): v[i][j]; //v is a std::vector<std::vector<int> > The size of the vector 'v' is [0][1] (so element 0 of the vector has only one element). This is undefined behaviour, I know, but Borland is returning 0 here, VS is crashing. I like the crash better than returning 0, so if I can get more 'crashes' by the std::out_of_range exception being thrown, the migration would be completed faster (so it would expose more bugs that Borland was hiding).

    Read the article

  • Accessing we.config from Sharepoint web part

    - by philj
    I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTime FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

    Read the article

  • CGLIB proxy error after spring bean definition loading into XmlWebApplicationContext at runtime

    - by VasylV
    I load additional singleton beans definitions at runtime from external jar file into existing XmlWebApplicationContext of my application: BeanFactory beanFactory = xmlWebApplicationContext.getBeanFactory(); DefaultListableBeanFactory defaultFactory = (DefaultListableBeanFactory)beanFactory; final URL url = new URL("external.jar"); final URL[] urls = {url}; ClassLoader loader = new URLClassLoader(urls, this.getClass().getClassLoader()); defaultFactory.setBeanClassLoader(loader); final ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner scanner = new ClassPathBeanDefinitionScanner(defaultFactory); final DefaultResourceLoader resourceLoader = new DefaultResourceLoader(); resourceLoader.setClassLoader(loader); scanner.setResourceLoader(resourceLoader); scanner.scan("com.*"); Object bean = xmlWebApplicationContext.getBean("externalBean"); After all above xmlWebApplicationContext contains all external definitions of beans. But when i am trying to get bean from context exception is thrown: Couldn't generate CGLIB proxy for class ... I saw in debug mode that in the bean initialization process first time proxy is generated by org.springframework.aop.aspectj.autoproxy.AspectJAwareAdvisorAutoProxyCreator and than it is tried to generate proxy with org.springframework.aop.framework.autoproxy.BeanNameAutoProxyCreator but fails with mentioned exception.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524  | Next Page >