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  • Remove CKEdit Instance

    - by Laramie
    I have an issue creating multiple instances of CKEdit with different toolbars wherein the second instance created is replacing the toolbar of the first. Unfortunately I can only reproduce it in a huge page containing update panels, which I suspect is the issue. That said, the issue at this point is I can't seem to destroy instances of CKEdit per the documentation. Consider the following: <input name="txt1" type="text" id="txt1" /><br /> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="create()">Create</a><br /> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="destroy()">Destroy</a> <script type= "text/javascript" > <!-- function create() { var hEd = CKEDITOR.instances['txt1']; if (hEd) { CKEDITOR.remove(hEd); } hEd = CKEDITOR.replace('txt1'); } function destroy(){ var hEd = CKEDITOR.instances['txt1']; if (hEd) { CKEDITOR.remove(hEd); } } --> </script> When destroy() runs, CKEDITOR.remove(hEd); is being called. Multiple clicks to create() produce multiple instances of CKEditor on screen, but their instances no longer appear in CKEDITOR.instances. Am I missing something?

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  • How do I extract a postcode from one column in SSIS using regular expression

    - by Aphillippe
    I'm trying to use a custom regex clean transformation (information found here ) to extract a post code from a mixed address column (Address3) and move it to a new column (Post Code) Example of incoming data: Address3: "London W12 9LZ" Incoming data could be any combination of place names with a post code at the start, middle or end (or not at all). Desired outcome: Address3: "London" Post Code: "W12 9LZ" Essentially, in plain english, "move (not copy) any post code found from address3 into Post Code". My regex skills aren't brilliant but I've managed to get as far as extracting the post code and getting it into its own column using the following regex, matching from Address3 and replacing into Post Code: Match Expression: (?<stringOUT>([A-PR-UWYZa-pr-uwyz]([0-9]{1,2}|([A-HK-Ya-hk-y][0-9]|[A-HK-Ya-hk-y][0-9] ([0-9]|[ABEHMNPRV-Yabehmnprv-y]))|[0-9][A-HJKS-UWa-hjks-uw])\ {0,1}[0-9][ABD-HJLNP-UW-Zabd-hjlnp-uw-z]{2}|([Gg][Ii][Rr]\ 0[Aa][Aa])|([Ss][Aa][Nn]\ {0,1}[Tt][Aa]1)|([Bb][Ff][Pp][Oo]\ {0,1}([Cc]\/[Oo]\ )?[0-9]{1,4})|(([Aa][Ss][Cc][Nn]|[Bb][Bb][Nn][Dd]|[BFSbfs][Ii][Qq][Qq]|[Pp][Cc][Rr][Nn]|[Ss][Tt][Hh][Ll]|[Tt][Dd][Cc][Uu]|[Tt][Kk][Cc][Aa])\ {0,1}1[Zz][Zz]))) Replace Expression: ${stringOUT} So this leaves me with: Address3: "London W12 9LZ" Post Code: "W12 9LZ" My next thought is to keep the above match/replace, then add another to match anything that doesn't match the above regex. I think it might be a negative lookahead but I can't seem to make it work. I'm using SSIS 2008 R2 and I think the regex clean transformation uses .net regex implementation. Thanks.

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  • javascript regex: replace url text link with image,but not in html tags

    Hi this is my pice of code: <div style="overflow: hidden; width: 445px;">[IMG]http://i29.tinypic.com/mydog.png[/IMG] tak si to http://i29.tinypic.com/mycat.png Lorem ipsum loremai <img width="15" border="0" align="middle" src="images/smejo.gif" valign="middle"/> <img src=http://www.example.com/index.png alt> <img src="http://www.example.com/index.png" alt>     <a href="#reakcia" title="reagovat na temu"><span class="poradna-tl-reaguj"><reaction> </span></a></div> </td> </tr><img src=http://www.example.com/index.png alt><img src="http://www.example.com/index.png" alt> and i need regex pattern to replace ONLY text image links with image without touch of inner url tags. But i can't use "Lookbehind" or possessive quantifiers because JS don't support them=/ So i want to catch only "http://i29.tinypic.com/mydog.png" and "http://i29.tinypic.com/mycat.png". I using array method to replacing (will be greasemonkey script.) Many Thanks

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  • Add jquery autocomplete on ready to multiple text inputs

    - by marcinn
    Hi, I have problem in adding autocomplete plugin to multiple text inputs in loop (no errors are returned). // get text inputs to attach autocomplete var locinputs = $('#localizations').find('input:text'); // iterate over elements and add autocomplete plugin for (var i = 0; i < locinputs.length; i++) { // asp.mvc array with special characters replacing var locNameField = locinputs[i].name.replace('[', '\\\\['); locNameField = locNameField.replace(']', '\\\\]'); locNameField = locNameField.replace('.', '\\\\.'); $('input#' + locNameField).autocomplete('<%=Url.Action("GetCity", "Localization") %>', { extraParams: { provinceId: function () { return 21; } }, dataType: 'json', parse: function (data) { var rows = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { rows[i] = { data: data[i], value: data[i].PlaceId, result: data[i].Name }; } return rows; }, formatItem: function (row, i, n) { return row.Name; }, width: 300, mustMatch: true, multiple: true }); } There is no error on loading, I tried to debug using Firebug, elements are accessible by jquery selector

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  • jQuery and MooTools Conflict

    - by flipflopmedia
    Okay, so I got jQuery to get along with MooTools with one script, by adding this at the top of the jQuery script: var $j = jQuery.noConflict(); and then replacing every: $( with $j( But how would you get MooTools to like the following script that using jQuery?? Thanks in advance for any input, Tracy //Fade In Content Viewer: By JavaScript Kit: http://www.javascriptkit.com var fadecontentviewer={ csszindex: 100, fade:function($allcontents, togglerid, selected, speed){ var selected=parseInt(selected) var $togglerdiv=$("#"+togglerid) var $target=$allcontents.eq(selected) if ($target.length==0){ //if no content exists at this index position (ie: stemming from redundant pagination link) alert("No content exists at page number "+selected+"!") return } if ($togglerdiv.attr('lastselected')==null || parseInt($togglerdiv.attr('lastselected'))!=selected){ var $toc=$("#"+togglerid+" .toc") var $selectedlink=$toc.eq(selected) $("#"+togglerid+" .next").attr('nextpage', (selected<$allcontents.length-1)? selected+1+'pg' : 0+'pg') $("#"+togglerid+" .prev").attr('previouspage', (selected==0)? $allcontents.length-1+'pg' : selected-1+'pg') $target.css({zIndex: this.csszindex++, visibility: 'visible'}) $target.hide() $target.fadeIn(speed) $toc.removeClass('selected') $selectedlink.addClass('selected') $togglerdiv.attr('lastselected', selected+'pg') } }, setuptoggler:function($allcontents, togglerid, speed){ var $toc=$("#"+togglerid+" .toc") $toc.each(function(index){ $(this).attr('pagenumber', index+'pg') }) var $next=$("#"+togglerid+" .next") var $prev=$("#"+togglerid+" .prev") $next.click(function(){ fadecontentviewer.fade($allcontents, togglerid, $(this).attr('nextpage'), speed) return false }) $prev.click(function(){ fadecontentviewer.fade($allcontents, togglerid, $(this).attr('previouspage'), speed) return false }) $toc.click(function(){ fadecontentviewer.fade($allcontents, togglerid, $(this).attr('pagenumber'), speed) return false }) }, init:function(fadeid, contentclass, togglerid, selected, speed){ $(document).ready(function(){ var faderheight=$("#"+fadeid).height() var $fadecontents=$("#"+fadeid+" ."+contentclass) $fadecontents.css({top: 0, left: 0, height: faderheight, visibility: 'hidden'}) fadecontentviewer.setuptoggler($fadecontents, togglerid, speed) setTimeout(function(){fadecontentviewer.fade($fadecontents, togglerid, selected, speed)}, 100) $(window).bind('unload', function(){ //clean up $("#"+togglerid+" .toc").unbind('click') $("#"+togglerid+" .next", "#"+togglerid+" .prev").unbind('click') }) }) } }

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  • git stash blunder:

    - by Chirag Patel
    I did a git stash pop and ended up with merge conflicts. I removed the files from the file system and did a git checkout as shown below, but it thinks the files are still unmerged. I then tried replacing the files and doing a git checkout again and same result. I event tried forcing it with -f flag. Any help would be appreciated! chirag-patels-macbook-pro:haloror patelc75$ git status app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb: needs merge app/views/layouts/_links.html.erb: needs merge # On branch prod-temp # Changes to be committed: # (use "git reset HEAD <file>..." to unstage) # # modified: db/schema.rb # # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # unmerged: app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb # unmerged: app/views/layouts/_links.html.erb chirag-patels-macbook-pro:haloror patelc75$ git checkout app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb error: path 'app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb' is unmerged chirag-patels-macbook-pro:haloror patelc75$ git checkout -f app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb warning: path 'app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb' is unmerged

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  • how to push different local git branches to heroku/master

    - by lsiden
    Heroku has a policy of ignoring all branches but 'master'. While I'm sure Heroku's designers have excellent reasons for for this policy (I'm guessing for storage and performance optimization), the consequence to me as a developer is that whatever local topic branch I may be working on, I would like an easy way to switch Heroku's master to that local topic branch and do a "git push heroku -f" to over-write master on Heroku. What I got from reading the "Pushing Refspecs" section of http://progit.org/book/ch9-5.html is git push -f heroku local-topic-branch:refs/heads/master What I'd really like is a way to set this up in the config file so that "git push heroku" always does the above, replacing local-topic-branch with the name of whatever my current branch happens to be. If anyone knows how to accomplish that, please let me know! The caveat for this, of course, is that this is only sensible if I am the only one who can push to that Heroku app/repository. A test or QA team might manage such a repository to try out different candidate branches, but they would have to coordinate so that they all agree on what branch they are pushing to it on any given day. Needless to say, it would also be a very good idea to have a separate remote repository (like Github) without this restriction for backing everything up to. I'd call that one "origin" and use "heroku" for Heroku so that "git push" always backs up everything to origin, and "git push heroku" pushes whatever branch I'm currently on to Heroku's master branch, overwriting it if necessary. Can anybody tell me if this would work? [remote "heroku"] url = [email protected]:my-app.git push = +refs/heads/*:refs/heads/master I'd like to hear from someone more experienced before I begin to experiment, although I suppose I could create a dummy app on Heroku and experiment with that. As for fetching, I don't really care if the Heroku repository is write-only. I still have a separate repository, like Github, for backup and cloning of all my work. Footnote: This question is similar to, but not quite the same as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1489393/good-git-deployment-using-branches-strategy-with-heroku

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  • What would be the equivalent VB.NET code for this C# FluentNHibernate component mapping?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I'm a C# programmer constrained to write VB.NET code. While exploring NHibernate further for my current client, I encountered FluentNHibernate, which I find real attractive. But now, I wonder how to "translate" this C# code for component mapping into VB.NET code: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); I know from here: Component(Of Client)(Function(c) c.Address, ...) what I miss is how to continue with the brackets in VB.NET, since there's no Begin End keywords or so. EDIT 1: Following Mr. JaredPar instructions, I figured that his solution might work. If we take the time to read his answer, we may notice that we both don't know what the MType is within his solution. I might have found out that the MType is: FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of TComponent) Thus, TComponent is, from my understanding, an anonymous type that I shall parameter to use. From this point of view, since I wish to map the properties of my Address object, replacing TComponent in my help method signature seems not to work. Private Sub MapAdresseHelper(Of Adresse)(ByVal a As FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of Adresse)) a.Map(Function(m) m.Number) a.Map(Function(m) m.Street).Length(50) a.Map(Function(m) m.PostCode).Length(10) End Sub The error I get is that my Address class doesn't have a property member named Street, for instance. It sees my Address type, it recognizes it, but it seems buggy somehow. I guess VBNET is poorly designed for lambda expressions and is less evolved than C# (Sorry, a bit of frustration due to the constraint of working with it and not being capable of doing things VERY easily done in C#.) Thanks!

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  • JQuery: Dynamically-generated form fields not submitted and event handlers appear to fire multiple t

    - by Bob
    Hi, I'm new to JQuery, so I apologise if there's something which should be obvious which I'm unaware of. I seem to be having a couple of issues some JQuery I'm trying to implement: Code: http://pastebin.ca/1843496 (the editor didn't seem to like HTML tags) post_test.php simply contains: [?php print_r($_POST); ?] in an attempt to find out what's actually being submitted. The first issue I'm having is that only the hidden form fields are actually being submitted. If I insert tags into the container DIV manually it works as expected, but when done as above the text field doesn't get posted. From what I've read, I gather it's to do with the fact that the DOM is being modified after it's loaded, but the thing that's puzzling me is why, in that case, there are no issues referencing the other added hidden fields or the tag. I've experimented with changing the event handler for a.save to '.live('click', function ...' and also using LiveQuery to no avail. The other issue is that when a.save is clicked, before the form is actually submitted, as far as I can tell the event handler is running again, replacing the value entered into the text field with the value of editable.text(), which is what ultimately gets submitted. I'm sorry if any of this is unclear. Regards,

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  • Javascript: prototypal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function? Edit by the Creator of the Question: These two links helped a lot too: Prototypes_in_JavaScript on the spheredev wiki explains the way the prototype property works relativily simple. What it lacks is some try-out code examples. Some good examples are provided by Morris John's Article. I personally find the explanations are not that easy as in the first link, but still very good. The most difficult part even after I actually got it is really not to confuse the .prototype propery with the internal [[Prototype]] of an object.

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  • PHPUnit and autoloaders: Determining whether code is running in test-scope?

    - by pinkgothic
    Premise I know that writing code to act differently when a test is run is hilariously bad practise, but I may've actually come across a scenario in which it may be necessary. Specifically, I'm trying to test a very specific wrapper for HTML Purifier in the Zend framework - a View Helper, to be exact. The HTML Purifier autoloader is necessary because it uses a different logic to the autoloaders we otherwise have. Problem require()-ing the autoloader at the top of my View Helper class, gives me the following in test-scope: HTML Purifier autoloader registrar is not compatible with non-static object methods due to PHP Bug #44144; Please do not use HTMLPurifier.autoload.php (or any file that includes this file); instead, place the code: spl_autoload_register(array('HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap', 'autoload')) after your own autoloaders. Replacing the require() with spl_autoload_register(array('HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap', 'autoload')) as advertised means the test runs fine, but the View Helper dies a terrible death claiming: Zend_Log[3707]: ErrorController caught LogicException "Passed array does not specify an existing static method (class 'HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap' not found)" (Our test folder structure is slightly different to our Zend folder structure by necessity.) Question(s) After tinkering with it, I'm thinking I'll need to pick an autoloader-loading depending on whether things are in the test scope or not. Do I have another option to include HTMLPurifier's autoloading routine in both cases that I'm not seeing due to tunnel vision? If not, do I have to find a means to differentiate between test-environment and production-environment this with my own code (e.g. APPLICATION_ENV) - or does PHPUnit support this godawful hackery of mine natively by setting a constant that I could check whether its been defined(), or similar shenanigans? (My Google-fu here is weak! I'm probably just doing it wrong.)

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  • Javascript: prototypeal inheritance and the prototype proprity

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal={ color: "brown", getColor: function(){ return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal(){ this.color="brown"; this.getColor = function(){return this.color;} } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function?

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  • Setting CommandTarget to selected control in a TabControl

    - by Bart
    I have a WPF window with a few buttons and a tabcontrol having a tab for each 'document' the user is working on. The tabcontrol uses a DataTemplate to render the data in ItemSource of the tabcontrol. The question: If one of the buttons is clicked, the command should be executed on the control rendering the document in the active tab, but I've no idea what I should set CommandTarget to. I tried {Binding ElementName=nameOfControlInDataTemplate} but that obviously doesn't work. I tried to make my problem a bit more abstract with the following code (no ItemSource and Document objects, but the idea is still the same). <Button Command="ApplicationCommands.Save" CommandTarget="{Binding ElementName=nestedControl}">Save</Button> <TabControl x:Name="tabControl"> <TabControl.Items> <TabItem Header="Header1">Item 1</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header2">Item 2</TabItem> <TabItem Header="Header3">Item 3</TabItem> </TabControl.Items> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CommandTest:NestedControl Name="nestedControl"/> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> I tested the code by replacing the complete tabcontrol with only one single NestedControl, and then the command button just works. To be complete, here is the code of NestedControl: <UserControl x:Class="CommandTest.NestedControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Grid> <Label x:Name="label" Content="Not saved"/> </Grid> </UserControl> And code behind: public partial class NestedControl : UserControl { public NestedControl() { CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.Save, CommandBinding_Executed)); InitializeComponent(); } private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { label.Content = "Saved"; } }

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  • C sharp code cleanup : resharper

    - by Ankit Rathod
    Hello, I just used Resharper in one application and it made me feel as if i don't know how to code at all in C# :(. On every line it gave me it's suggestions :- Few of Resharper's favorite suggestions are :- 1) SomObject o = new SomeObject(); Resharper will convert to : var o = new SomeObject() 2) this.Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainPage_Loaded); to this.Loaded += MainPage_Loaded; 3) convert my variables and putting _ in front of all instance variables. 4) Removing class parent's name. I tested this on Silverlight. public partial class MainPage : UserControl to public partial class MainPage EDIT :- 5) replace instance variable this.variable = somevalue to variable = somevalue Are all of these really necessary? Is it really going to affect the efficiency of my program? I mean what good is it going to do by replacing my class names with var keyword. After all var is also replaced with class name at compile time. Is it doing because it has been programmed to do or do these things really affect in some or another way? Thanks in advance :)

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  • Newbie T-SQL dynamic stored procedure -- how can I improve it?

    - by Andy Jones
    I'm new to T-SQL; all my experience is in a completely different database environment (Openedge). I've learned enough to write the procedure below -- but also enough to know that I don't know enough! This routine will have to go into a live environment soon, and it works, but I'm quite certain there are a number of c**k-ups and gotchas in it that I know nothing about. The routine copies data from table A to table B, replacing the data in table B. The tables could be in any database. I plan to call this routine multiple times from another stored procedure. Permissions aren't a problem: the routine will be run by the dba as a timed job. Could I have your suggestions as to how to make it fit best-practice? To bullet-proof it? ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[copyTable2Table] @sdb varchar(30), @stable varchar(30), @tdb varchar(30), @ttable varchar(30), @raiseerror bit = 1, @debug bit = 0 as begin set nocount on declare @source varchar(65) declare @target varchar(65) declare @dropstmt varchar(100) declare @insstmt varchar(100) declare @ErrMsg nvarchar(4000) declare @ErrSeverity int set @source = '[' + @sdb + '].[dbo].[' + @stable + ']' set @target = '[' + @tdb + '].[dbo].[' + @ttable + ']' set @dropStmt = 'drop table ' + @target set @insStmt = 'select * into ' + @target + ' from ' + @source set @errMsg = '' set @errSeverity = 0 if @debug = 1 print('Drop:' + @dropStmt + ' Insert:' + @insStmt) -- drop the target table, copy the source table to the target begin try begin transaction exec(@dropStmt) exec(@insStmt) commit end try begin catch if @@trancount > 0 rollback select @errMsg = error_message(), @errSeverity = error_severity() end catch -- update the log table insert into HHG_system.dbo.copyaudit (copytime, copyuser, source, target, errmsg, errseverity) values( getdate(), user_name(user_id()), @source, @target, @errMsg, @errSeverity) if @debug = 1 print ( 'Message:' + @errMsg + ' Severity:' + convert(Char, @errSeverity) ) -- handle errors, return value if @errMsg <> '' begin if @raiseError = 1 raiserror(@errMsg, @errSeverity, 1) return 1 end return 0 END Thanks!

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  • Scripting for JAVA - a problem to solve

    - by Parhs
    Hello.. I had no luck to find a good way to achieve the following: suppose i let the user to write a condition using javascript INS5 || ASTO.valueBetween(10,210) ... etc.... I tried to find a way to get the variables name...from JAVA... Rhino library didnt help a lot... However i found that handling exceptions i could get all the identifiers! Everything is great but one little problem..... How teh heck i can replace these identifiers with the numeric id of each var ? eg INS to be _234 ASTO to be _331 ? I want to to this replace because the name may change... I could do it using a replace but i know that this isnt easy because... 1) replacing _23 with MPLAH may replace also _234...(this could be fixed with regexp somehow..) 2)what if _23 is in a comment section ? rare to happen but possible /* _23 fdsafd ktl */ it should be replaced... 3)what if is a name of a function ??? _32() {} rare but shouldnt be replaced 4) what if it is enclosed in "" or ''??? And i am sure that there should me a lot more cases..... any ideas ? thank yoyu for your time

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • Copy an entity in Google App Engine datastore in Python without knowing property names at 'compile'

    - by Gordon Worley
    In a Python Google App Engine app I'm writing, I have an entity stored in the datastore that I need to retrieve, make an exact copy of it (with the exception of the key), and then put this entity back in. How should I do this? In particular, are there any caveats or tricks I need to be aware of when doing this so that I get a copy of the sort I expect and not something else. ETA: Well, I tried it out and I did run into problems. I would like to make my copy in such a way that I don't have to know the names of the properties when I write the code. My thinking was to do this: #theThing = a particular entity we pull from the datastore with model Thing copyThing = Thing(user = user) for thingProperty in theThing.properties(): copyThing.__setattr__(thingProperty[0], thingProperty[1]) This executes without any errors... until I try to pull copyThing from the datastore, at which point I discover that all of the properties are set to None (with the exception of the user and key, obviously). So clearly this code is doing something, since it's replacing the defaults with None (all of the properties have a default value set), but not at all what I want. Suggestions?

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  • How to make Resig's micro-templates XHTML compliant?

    - by mshelv
    Hello, I have been experimenting with John Resig's micro-template, which works great. However, the mark-up will not pass the XHTML 1.0 Transitional validation test. (Among other things, id attributes yield errors.) Replacing tags identifiers <, with [[,]], passes validation. Thus, I created a js script which at load time (jQuery document ready) converts the square brackets back to regular markers. This works fine in FF, but not in IE, Chrome, etc. Scripts embedded within CDATA tags validate as well. Question: Is there a way to insert micro-template in a script and still pass XHTML validation? My idea was to remove the CDATA tags once the page has been loaded. But there are probably smarter ways. (Note: I'd prefer not to inject HTML via js since the mark-up will be difficult to maintain.) PS: I looked at other js templates, but they are either not XHTML compliant or too bulky. TIA for any hints.

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  • Javascript: Whitespace Characters being Removed in Chrome (but not Firefox)

    - by Matrym
    Why would the below eliminate the whitespace around matched keyword text when replacing it with an anchor link? Note, this error only occurs in Chrome, and not firefox. For complete context, the file is located at: http://seox.org/lbp/lb-core.js To view the code in action (no errors found yet), the demo page is at http://seox.org/test.html. Copy/Pasting the first paragraph into a rich text editor (ie: dreamweaver, or gmail with rich text editor turned on) will reveal the problem, with words bunched together. Pasting it into a plain text editor will not. // Find page text (not in links) -> doxdesk.com function findPlainTextExceptInLinks(element, substring, callback) { for (var childi= element.childNodes.length; childi-->0;) { var child= element.childNodes[childi]; if (child.nodeType===1) { if (child.tagName.toLowerCase()!=='a') findPlainTextExceptInLinks(child, substring, callback); } else if (child.nodeType===3) { var index= child.data.length; while (true) { index= child.data.lastIndexOf(substring, index); if (index===-1 || limit.indexOf(substring.toLowerCase()) !== -1) break; // don't match an alphanumeric char var dontMatch =/\w/; if(child.nodeValue.charAt(index - 1).match(dontMatch) || child.nodeValue.charAt(index+keyword.length).match(dontMatch)) break; // alert(child.nodeValue.charAt(index+keyword.length + 1)); callback.call(window, child, index) } } } } // Linkup function, call with various type cases (below) function linkup(node, index) { node.splitText(index+keyword.length); var a= document.createElement('a'); a.href= linkUrl; a.appendChild(node.splitText(index)); node.parentNode.insertBefore(a, node.nextSibling); limit.push(keyword.toLowerCase()); // Add the keyword to memory urlMemory.push(linkUrl); // Add the url to memory } // lower case (already applied) findPlainTextExceptInLinks(lbp.vrs.holder, keyword, linkup); Thanks in advance for your help. I'm nearly ready to launch the script, and will gladly comment in kudos to you for your assistance.

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  • Selecting a good SQL Server 2008 spatial index with large polygons

    - by andynormancx
    I'm having some fun trying to pick a decent SQL Server 2008 spatial index setup for a data set I am dealing with. The dataset is polygons, representing contours over the whole globe. There are 106,000 rows in the table, the polygons are stored in a geometry field. The issue I have is that many of the polygons cover a large portion of the globe. This seems to make it very hard to get a spatial index that will eliminate many rows in the primary filter. For example, look at the following query: SELECT "ID","CODE","geom".STAsBinary() as "geom" FROM "dbo"."ContA" WHERE "geom".Filter( geometry::STGeomFromText('POLYGON ((-142.03193662573682 59.53396984952896, -142.03193662573682 59.88928136451884, -141.32743833481925 59.88928136451884, -141.32743833481925 59.53396984952896, -142.03193662573682 59.53396984952896))', 4326) ) = 1 This is querying an area which intersects with only two of the polygons in the table. No matter what combination of spatial index settings I chose, that Filter() always returns around 60,000 rows. Replacing Filter() with STIntersects() of course returns just the two polygons I want, but of course takes much longer (Filter() is 6 seconds, STIntersects() is 12 seconds). Can anyone give me any hints on whether there is a spatial index setup that is likely to improve on 60,000 rows or is my dataset just not a good match for SQL Server's spatial indexing ?

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  • C# text creation issue

    - by Mike
    This is whats going on. I have a huge text file that is suppose to be 1 line per entry. The issue is sometimes the line is broken with a new line. I edit this entire file and wherever the file doesn't begin with ("\"A) i need to append the current line to the previous line ( replacing \n with " "). Everything I come up with keeps appending the line to a new line. Any help is appricated... CODE: public void step1a() { string begins = ("\"A"); string betaFilePath = @"C:\ext.txt"; string[] lines = File.ReadAllLines(betaFilePath); foreach (string line in lines) { if (line.StartsWith(begins)) { File.AppendAllText(@"C:\xt2.txt",line); File.AppendAllText(@"C:\xt2.txt", "\n"); } else { string line2 = line.Replace(Environment.NewLine, " "); File.AppendAllText(@"C:\xt2.txt",line2); } } } Example: Orig: "\"A"Hero|apple|orange|for the fun of this "\"A"Hero|apple|mango|lots of fun always "\"A"Her|apple|fruit|no pain is the way "\"A"Hero|love|stackoverflowpeople|more fun Resulting: "\"A"Hero|apple|orange|for the fun of this "\"A"Hero|apple|mango|lots of fun always "\"A"Her|apple|fruit|no pain is the way "\"A"Hero|love|stackoverflowpeople|more fun

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  • Why do I get "Error 6060" when I try to use DBD::Advantage with a 64-bit perl on Linux?

    - by WarheadsSE
    I realize that I am attempting to go beyond the "supported" behavior of the manf's released drivers for Perl, after all they have only released it in package with x86 .so's. However, since I cannot use their package with x64 Perl on a RHEL 5.4 x86_64 box, and maintaining a seperate install of x86 Perl just for this one package, I have made an attempt to get this puppy working thanks to released 64-bit .so's that accompany other driver packages for Advantage. What I have done to this point: download beta 10 DBI drivers, in 32 download beta 10 PHP extension (it contains 32 and x86_64) copy the required DLLs into the ads-lib location (eg /usr/local/ads/lib64) compile the Perl DBI driver with the path to the lib64's .so's Good compilation, good install, good use. The problem is that I always get : failed: [iAnywhere Solutions][Advantage SQL][ASA] Error 6060: Advantage Database Server not available on specified server. axServerConnect (SQL-HY000)(DBD: db_login/SQLConnect err=-1) Does anyone have any ideas? EDIT: fixed package name in post title EDIT: Updated title. It appears that it's not just the x64 perl, but the RHEL 5.4 underneath that may be interfering. As commented below, I managed to shoe-horn a x86 perl onto the system, and compile the DBD::Advantage 9.99, and later replacing that with 9.10, and none of these x86 would connect either. Neither library (9.99 or 9.10) in either bit-edness will connect from this x86_64 server to the windows server's UNC path. I have successfully mounted this share without problems, but still I cannot seem to connect to the 9.1. I have tried: \hostname\PATH \FQDN\PATH \IP\PATH and all of these variations with the port (default) 6262 included. My windows machine connects fine, with both 9.1 and 9.99 from strawberry perl.

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  • How can a program be detected as running?

    - by ryeguy
    I have written a program that is sort of an unofficial, standalone plugin for an application. It allows customers to get a service that is a lower priced alternative then the vendor-owned one. My program is not illegal, against any kind of TOS, and is certainly not a virus, adware, or anything like that. That being said, the vendor of course is not happy about me taking his competition, and is trying to block my application from running. He has already tried some tactics to stop people from running my app alongside his. He makes it so if it is detected, his app throws a fake error. First, he checked to see if my program was running by looking for an open window with the right title. I countered this by randomizing the program title at startup. Next, he looked for the running process name. I countered this by making the app copy itself when it is started as [random string].exe and then running that. Anyways, my question is this: what else can he do to detect if my program running? I know that you can read window text (ie status bar, labels). I'm prepared to counter this by replacing the labels with images (ugh, any other way?). But what else is there? Can you detect what .dlls a program has loaded? If so, could this be solved by randomizing the dll names before loading them? I know that it's possible to get a program's signature in memory and track it that way (like a virus scanner), but the chances of him doing that probably aren't good because that sounds pretty advanced. Even though this is kinda crappy of him to be doing, its kind of fun. It's like a nerdy fist fight. EDIT: When I said it's a plugin, that is just the (incorrect) term I used. It's a standalone EXE. The "API" between my program and the other is mine is simply entering data into the controls (like textboxes, etc).

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  • UIView: how to do non-destructive drawing?

    - by Caffeine Coma
    My original question: I'm creating a simple drawing application and need to be able to draw over existing, previously drawn content in my drawRect. What is the proper way to draw on top of existing content without entirely replacing it? Based on answers received here and elsewhere, here is the deal. You should be prepared to redraw the entire rectangle whenever drawRect is called. You cannot prevent the contents from being erased by doing the following: [self setClearsContextBeforeDrawing: NO]; This is merely a hint to the graphics engine that there is no point in having it pre-clear the view for you, since you will likely need to re-draw the whole area anyway. It may prevent your view from being automatically erased, but you cannot depend on it. To draw on top of your view without erasing, do your drawing to an off-screen bitmap context (which is never cleared by the system.) Then in your drawRect, copy from this off-screen buffer to the view. Example: - (id) initWithCoder: (NSCoder*) coder { if (self = [super initWithCoder: coder]) { self.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; CGSize size = self.frame.size; drawingContext = [self createDrawingBufferContext: size]; } return self; } - (CGContextRef) createOffscreenContext: (CGSize) size { CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(NULL, size.width, size.height, 8, size.width*4, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0, -1.0); return context; } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect) rect { UIGraphicsPushContext(drawingContext); CGImageRef cgImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(drawingContext); UIImage *uiImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithCGImage:cgImage]; UIGraphicsPopContext(); CGImageRelease(cgImage); [uiImage drawInRect: rect]; [uiImage release]; } TODO: can anyone optimize the drawRect so that only the (usually tiny) modified rectangle region is used for the copy?

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