Search Results

Search found 14737 results on 590 pages for 'dynamic tables'.

Page 520/590 | < Previous Page | 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527  | Next Page >

  • Nhibernate: Stop it from joining to a table that is not needed

    - by Aaron
    I have two tables (tbArea, tbPost) that relate to the following classes. class Area { int ID string Name ... } class Post { int ID string Title Area Area ... } These two classes map up with Fluent Nhibernate. Below is the post mapping. public class PostMapping : ClassMap<Post> { public PostMapping() { Cache.NonStrictReadWrite(); this.Table("tbPost"); Id(x => x.ID) .Column("PostID") .GeneratedBy .Identity(); References(x => x.Area) .ForeignKey("AreaID") .Column("AreaID"); ... } } Any time I perform a query on the Post table "where AreaID = 1(any AreaId)", nhibernate will join to the area table. (What Nhibernate generates for a query) SELECT post fields , area fields (automatically added) FROM tbPost p LEFT JOIN tbArea a on p.areaid = a.areaid where p.areaid = 1 I have tried setting Area to LazyLoad, to Fetch.Select, ReadOnly, and any other setting on the reference and still it will always join to Area. I am trying to optimize the backend database queries, and since I don't need the area object loaded just filtered I would like to eliminate the unnecessary join to Area each time I Query post. What configurations do I need to change or mappings to get area to still be related to post in my objects, but not query it when I filter on AreaID?

    Read the article

  • Creating a [materialised]view from generic data in Oracle/Mysql

    - by Andrew White
    I have a generic datamodel with 3 tables CREATE TABLE Properties ( propertyId int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(80) NOT NULL ) CREATE TABLE Customers ( customerId int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, customerName varchar(80) NOT NULL ) CREATE TABLE PropertyValues ( propertyId int(11) NOT NULL, customerId int(11) NOT NULL, value varchar(80) NOT NULL ) INSERT INTO Properties VALUES (1, 'Age'); INSERT INTO Properties VALUES (2, 'Weight'); INSERT INTO Customers VALUES (1, 'Bob'); INSERT INTO Customers VALUES (2, 'Tom'); INSERT INTO PropertyValues VALUES (1, 1, '34'); INSERT INTO PropertyValues VALUES (2, 1, '80KG'); INSERT INTO PropertyValues VALUES (1, 2, '24'); INSERT INTO PropertyValues VALUES (2, 2, '53KG'); What I would like to do is create a view that has as columns all the ROWS in Properties and has as rows the entries in Customers. The column values are populated from PropertyValues. e.g. customerId Age Weight 1 34 80KG 2 24 53KG I'm thinking I need a stored procedure to do this and perhaps a materialised view (the entries in the table "Properties" change rarely). Any tips?

    Read the article

  • Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

    - by BitFiddler
    So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

    Read the article

  • Deploying ASP.Net MVC application

    - by a_m0d
    I've recently reached the stage where an ASP.net MVC application I am developing is ready to be deployed to the production server. I've worked out how to publish the application - I've got all the files on the server, and can access them over the internet. However, I can't work out how to deploy my database. The server has the SQL Server Management Studio Express installed, as the database used is a SQL Server Express database. I have the server instance up and running - I just don't know how to add the tables, etc. to the database. I have created the "CREATE TABLE" scripts on the development machine, but as far as I can see, Management Studio does not provide any way to actually run these scripts. I have looked through all the menu items that I could see, and none of them worked. Even using the "Create new query..." option and pasting the script in didn't work. When I try "File-Open..." and select a script to run, set the correct database from the dropdown list on the toolbar, and then execute the script, it complains about not finding the database file (even when I set the USE [...] statement to the correct path. Deleting the USE [...] statement, the script complains that it can't find the [dbo].[Invoices] object; however, it shouldn't be able to find it, because its trying to create it! tl;dr: What's the best way to make sure that the database on the production machine matches the database on my development machine?

    Read the article

  • What's the most efficient query?

    - by Aaron Carlino
    I have a table named Projects that has the following relationships: has many Contributions has many Payments In my result set, I need the following aggregate values: Number of unique contributors (DonorID on the Contribution table) Total contributed (SUM of Amount on Contribution table) Total paid (SUM of PaymentAmount on Payment table) Because there are so many aggregate functions and multiple joins, it gets messy do use standard aggregate functions the the GROUP BY clause. I also need the ability to sort and filter these fields. So I've come up with two options: Using subqueries: SELECT Project.ID AS PROJECT_ID, (SELECT SUM(PaymentAmount) FROM Payment WHERE ProjectID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalPaidBack, (SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS ContributorCount, (SELECT SUM(Amount) FROM Contribution WHERE RecipientID = PROJECT_ID) AS TotalReceived FROM Project; Using a temporary table: DROP TABLE IF EXISTS Project_Temp; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE Project_Temp (project_id INT NOT NULL, total_payments INT, total_donors INT, total_received INT, PRIMARY KEY(project_id)) ENGINE=MEMORY; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_payments) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(SUM(PaymentAmount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Payment` ON ProjectID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1; INSERT INTO Project_Temp (project_id,total_donors,total_received) SELECT `Project`.ID, IFNULL(COUNT(DISTINCT DonorID),0), IFNULL(SUM(Amount),0) FROM `Project` LEFT JOIN `Contribution` ON RecipientID = `Project`.ID GROUP BY 1 ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE total_donors = VALUES(total_donors), total_received = VALUES(total_received); SELECT * FROM Project_Temp; Tests for both are pretty comparable, in the 0.7 - 0.8 seconds range with 1,000 rows. But I'm really concerned about scalability, and I don't want to have to re-engineer everything as my tables grow. What's the best approach?

    Read the article

  • Query broke down and left me stranded in the woods

    - by user1290323
    I am trying to execute a query that deletes all files from the images table that do not exist in the filters tables. I am skipping 3,500 of the latest files in the database as to sort of "Trim" the table back to 3,500 + "X" amount of records in the filters table. The filters table holds markers for the file, as well as the file id used in the images table. The code will run on a cron job. My Code: $sql = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `images` ORDER BY `id` DESC") or die(mysql_error()); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($sql)){ $id = $row['id']; $file = $row['url']; $getId = mysql_query("SELECT `id` FROM `filter` WHERE `img_id` = '".$id."'") or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_num_rows($getId) == 0){ $IdQue[] = $id; $FileQue[] = $file; } } for($i=3500; $i<$x; $i++){ mysql_query("DELETE FROM `images` WHERE id='".$IdQue[$i]."' LIMIT 1") or die("line 18".mysql_error()); unlink($FileQue[$i]) or die("file Not deleted"); } echo ($i-3500)." files deleted."; Output: 0 files deleted. Database contents: images table: 10,000 rows filters table: 63 rows Amount of rows in filters table that contain an images table id: 63 Execution time of php script: 4 seconds +/- 0.5 second Relevant DB structure TABLE: images id url etc... TABLE: filter id img_id (CONTAINS ID FROM images table) etc...

    Read the article

  • Character Set Issues when Upgrading from Symfony 2.0.* to Symfony 2.1.*?

    - by Adam Stacey
    I have recently upgraded my staging test site to the latest version of Symfony and updated all the vendors using composer as instructed in the upgrade document that comes with the download. Everything has all updated fine, but I have noticed now that some bits of HTML are not displaying in the Twig templates. I did a comparison with the current live site and it appears to be a character set issue. As an example I had a drop down list that had the following value in: Kitchen Ducting > Ducting Kits > Ducting Kit 4” / 100mm In the updated site the drop-down list item just appeared blank. When I used Twig's raw function it then displayed the item again, but with the dreaded question mark in a black diamond. Kitchen Ducting > Ducting Kits > Ducting Kit 4? / 100mm Things that you should know that may help: The staging test site and live site are both on the same server. In my httpd.conf file I have 'AddDefaultCharset utf-8'. In my php.ini file I have 'default_charset = "utf-8"'. The HTML file served has the Content-Type meta tag 'content="text/html; charset=utf-8"' My database is InnoDB and uses 'utf8' as the default character set and 'utf8_general_ci' as default collation. All tables in the database also use the defaults. I looked into BOM with UTF8, but could not work out if that was a problem or not?

    Read the article

  • Mapping enum with fluent nhibernate

    - by Puneet
    I am following the http://wiki.fluentnhibernate.org/Getting%5Fstarted tutorial to create my first NHibernate project with Fluent NHibernate I have 2 tables 1) Account with fields Id AccountHolderName AccountTypeId 2) AccountType with fields Id AccountTypeName Right now the account types can be Savings or Current So the table AccountTypes stores 2 rows 1 - Savings 2 - Current For AccoutType table I have defined enum public enum AccountType { Savings=1, Current=2 } For Account table I define the entity class public class Account { public virtual int Id {get; private set;} public virtual string AccountHolderName {get; set;} public virtual string AccountType {get; set;} } The fluent nhibernate mappings are: public AgencyMap() { Id(o => o.Id); Map(o => o.AccountHolderName); Map(o => o.AccountType); } When I try to run the solution, it gives an exception - InnerException = {"(XmlDocument)(2,4): XML validation error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has incomplete content. List of possible elements expected: 'meta, subselect, cache, synchronize, comment, tuplizer, id, composite-id' in namespace 'ur... I guess that is because I have not speciofied any mapping for AccountType. The questions are: How can I use AccountType enum instead of a AccountType class? Maybe I am going on wrong track. Is there a better way to do this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • how to retrieve informatin from deleted row

    - by JM
    How can I retrie infromation from delete rows. I delete some rows from table in dataset, then I use method GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted) to get deleted rows. I try delete rows in original table on server side, but it finished with this errors. System.Data.DeletedRowInaccessibleException: Deleted row information cannot be accessed through the row. What is correct way? Here is my code, any advice? Thank you everybody Dataset ds = //get dataset from client side //get changes DataTable delRows = ds.Tables[0].GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted); //try delete rows in table in DB if (delRows != null) { string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); for (int i = 0; i < delRows.Rows.Count; i++) { string cmdText = string.Format("DELETE Tab1 WHERE Surname=@Surname"); cmd = new SqlCommand() { Connection = conn, CommandText = cmdText }; //here is problem, I need get surnames from rows which was deleted var sqlParam = new SqlParameter(@"Surname", SqlDbType.VarChar) { Value = delRows.Rows[i][1].ToString() }; cmd.Parameters.Add(sqlParam); cmd.CommandText = cmdText; cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to not use JavaScript with in the elements events attributes but still load via AJAX

    - by thecoshman
    I am currently loading HTMl content via AJAX. I have code for things on different elements onclick attributes (and other event attributes). It does work, but I am starting to find that the code is getting rather large, and hard to read. I have also read that it is considered bad practice to have the event code 'inline' like this and that I should really do by element.onclick = foobar and have foobar defined somewhere else. I understand how with a static page it is fairly easy to do this, just have a script tag at the bottom of the page and once the page is loaded have it executed. This can then attach any and all events as you need them. But how can I get this sort of affect when loading content via AJAX. There is also the slight case that the content loaded can very depending on what is in the database, some times certain sections of HTML, such as tables of results, will not even be displayed there will be something else entirely. I can post some samples of code if any body needs them, but I have no idea what sort of things would help people with this one. I will point out, that I am using Jquery already so if it has some helpful little functions that would be rather sweet¬

    Read the article

  • using dummy row with NOT NULL to solve DEFAULT NULL

    - by Tony38
    I know having DEFAULT NULLS is not a good practice but I have many optional lookup values which are FK in the system so to solve this issue here is what i am doing: I use NOT NULL for every FK / lookup colunms. I have the first row in every lookup table which is PK id = 1 as a dummy row with just "none" in all the columns. This way I can use NOT NULL in my schema and if needed reference to the none row values PK =1 for FKs which do not have any lookup value. Is this a good design or any other work arounds? EDIT: I have: Neighborhood table Postal table. Every neighborhood has a city, so the FK can be NOT NULL. But not every postal code belongs to a neighborhood. Some do, some don't depending on the country. So if i use NOT NULL for the FK between postal and neighborhood then I will be screwed as there has to be some value entered. So what i am doing in essence is: have a row in every table to be a dummy row just to link the FKs. This way row one in neighborhood table will be: n_id = 1 name =none etc... In postal table I can have: postal_code = 3456A3 FK (city) = Moscow FK (neighborhood_id)=1 as a NOT NULL. If I don't have a dummy row in the neighborhood lookup table then I have to declare FK (neighborhood_id) as a Default null column and store blanks in the table. This is an example but there is a huge number of values which will have blanks then in many tables.

    Read the article

  • Fiscal year, quarters, student table, and faculty table... How do I relate these?!

    - by yuudachi
    I have a student and faculty table. The primary key for student is studendID (SID) and faculty's primary key is facultyID, naturally. Student has an advisor column and a requested advisor column, which are foreign key to faculty. That's simple enough, right? However, now I have to throw in dates. I want to be able to view who their advisor was for a certain quarter (such as 2009 Winter) and who they had requested. The result will be a table like this: Year | Term | SID | Current | Requested ------------------------------------------------ 2009 | Winter | 860123456 | 1 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860445566 | 3 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860369147 | 5 | 1 And then if I feel like it, I could also go ahead and view a different year and a different term. I am not sure how these new table(s) will look like. Will there be a year table with three columns that are Fall, Spring and Winter? And what will the Fall, Spring, Winter table have? I am new to the art of tables, so this is baffling me... Also, I feel I should clarify how the site works so far now. Admin can approve student requests, and what happens is that the student's current advisor gets overwritten with their request. However, I think I should not do that anymore, right?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net forms authentication - multiple providers

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I have an ASP.Net 4.0 application, and within it is a folder called "Forum", setup as a sub application in IIS 7. This forum package implements a custom provider for .net membership. The forum is running in .net 3.5. I'd like to setup the main site so that when users login, it logs them into both my site and the forum site. Both the main site and the forum have separate .Net membership tables. How can I specify which provider to use with formsauthentication? right now I have FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(...); this, however, just uses my default provider and does nothing with the provider for the forum I tried setting the forum app and my web app to have the same cookie name, as well as setting the machinekey on each: <machineKey validationKey="AutoGenerate" validation="SHA1" /> no dice. I googled and didnt really come up with any example of how to use multiple providers like I want to. I updated my web.config to have both provideers but this is useless if I cannot specify in my code which one to use.

    Read the article

  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

    Read the article

  • UITableView with Custom Cell only loads one row of data at a time

    - by Anton
    For my table, I've created a custom cell that has two labels. I also have two arrays with data, that I use to respectively assign each label in the cell. My problem, is that when the table is viewed, only the first row has data, and the rest of the data "sorta" loads when I start scrolling down. By "sorta", only the first row will load at a time. The only time I get to see all the data, is when I scroll to the bottom, then scroll up again. I've used the cellForRowAtIndexPath method to load the data into my cell. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CustomCellIdentifier = @"CustomCellIdentifier"; CustomCell *cell = (CustomCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CustomCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { NSArray *nib = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CustomCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id oneObject in nib) if ([oneObject isKindOfClass:[CustomCell class]]) cell = (CustomCell *)oneObject; } NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; //I have two tables to fill up, hence the tag if statement if ([tableView tag] == 0) { cell.arriveTimeLabel.text = [homeBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; cell.departTimeLabel.text = [homeBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; } else if ([tableView tag] == 1) { cell.arriveTimeLabel.text = [workBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; cell.departTimeLabel.text = [workBoundTimes objectAtIndex:row]; } return cell; } Is it possible that its only getting called when the top cell is being called?

    Read the article

  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

    Read the article

  • Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

    - by jp2code
    On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

    Read the article

  • How can you transform a set of numbers into mostly whole ones?

    - by Alice
    Small amount of background: I am working on a converter that bridges between a map maker (Tiled) that outputs in XML, and an engine (Angel2D) that inputs lua tables. Most of this is straight forward However, Tiled outputs in pixel offsets (integers of absolute values), while Angel2D inputs OpenGL units (floats of relative values); a conversion factor between these two is needed (for example, 32px = 1gu). Since OpenGL units are abstract, and the camera can zoom in or out if the objects are too small or big, the actual conversion factor isn't important; I could use a random number, and the user would merely have to zoom in or out. But it would be best if the conversion factor was selected such that most numbers outputted were small and whole (or fractions of small whole numbers), because that makes it easier to work with (and the whole point of the OpenGL units is that they are easy to work with). How would I find such a conversion factor reliably? My first attempt was to use the smallest number given; this resulted in no fractions below 1, but often lead to lots of decimal places where the factors didn't line up. Then I tried the mode of the sequence, which lead to the largest number of 1's possible, but often lead to very long floats for background images. My current approach gets the GCD of the whole sequence, which, when it works, works great, but can easily be thrown off course by a single bad apple. Note that while I could easily just pass the numbers I am given along, or pick some fixed factor, or use one of the conversions I specified above, I am looking for a method to reliably scale this list of integers to small, whole numbers or simple fractions, because this would most likely be unsurprising to the end user; this is not a one off conversion. The end users tend to use 1.0 as their "base" for manipulations (because it's simple and obvious), so it would make more sense for the sizes of entities to cluster around this.

    Read the article

  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

    Read the article

  • LinqToSQL not updating database

    - by codegarten
    Hi. I created a database and dbml in visual studio 2010 using its wizards. Everything was working fine until i checked the tables data (also in visual studio server explorer) and none of my updates were there. using (var context = new CenasDataContext()) { context.Log = Console.Out; context.Cenas.InsertOnSubmit(new Cena() { id = 1}); context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code i am using to update my database. At this point my database has one table with one field (PK) named ID. *INSERT INTO [dbo].Cenas VALUES (@p0) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 4.0.30319.1* This is LOG from the execution (printed the context log into the console). The problem i'm having is that these updates are not persistent in the database. I mean that when i query my database (visual studio server explorer - new query) i see the table is empty, every time. I am using a SQL Server database file (.mdf).

    Read the article

  • best practice - loging events (general) and changes (database)

    - by b0x0rz
    need help with logging all activities on a site as well as database changes. requirements: * should be in database * should be easily searchable by initiator (user name / session id), event (activity type) and event parameters i can think of a database design but either it involves a lot of tables (one per event) so i can log each of the parameters of an event in a separate field OR it involves one table with generic fields (7 int numeric and 7 text types) and log everything in one table with event type field determining what parameter got written where (and hoping that i don't need more than 7 fields of a certain type, or 8 or 9 or whatever number i choose)... example of entries (the usual things): [username] login failed @datetime [username] login successful @datetime [username] changed password @datetime, estimated security of password [low/ok/high/perfect] @datetime [username] clicked result [result number] [result id] after searching for [search string] and got [number of results] @datetime [username] clicked result [result number] [result id] after searching for [search string] and got [number of results] @datetime [username] changed profile name from [old name] to [new name] @datetime [username] verified name with [credit card type] credit card @datetime datbase table [table name] purged of old entries @datetime etc... so anyone dealt with this before? any best practices / links you can share? i've seen it done with the generic solution mentioned above, but somehow that goes against what i learned from database design, but as you can see the sheer number of events that need to be trackable (each user will be able to see this info) is giving me headaches, BUT i do LOVE the one event per table solution more than the generic one. any thoughts? edit: also, is there maybe an authoritative list of such (likely) events somewhere? thnx stack overflow says: the question you're asking appears subjective and is likely to be closed. my answer: probably is subjective, but it is directly related to my issue i have with designing a database / writing my code, so i'd welcome any help. also i tried narrowing down the ideas to 2 so hopefully one of these will prevail, unless there already is an established solution for these kinds of things.

    Read the article

  • ruby on rails one-to-many relationship

    - by fenec
    I would like to model a betting system relationship using the power of rails. so lets start with doing something very simple modelling the relationship from a user to a bet.i would like to have a model bet with 2 primary keys. here are my migrations enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :user_1_id t.integer :user_2_id t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end the models enter code here class Bet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user_1,:class_name=:User belongs_to :user_2,:class_name=:User end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_1) has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_2) end when i test here in the console my relationships I got an error enter code here u1=User.create :name="aa" = # u2=User.create :name="bb" = # b=Bet.create(:user_1=u1,:user_2=u2) *****error***** QUESTIONS: 1 How do I define the relationships between these tables correctly? 2 are there any conventions to name the attributes (ex:user_1_id...) thank you for your help

    Read the article

  • Group / User based security. Table / SQL question

    - by Brett
    Hi, I'm setting up a group / user based security system. I have 4 tables as follows: user groups group_user_mappings acl where acl is the mapping between an item_id and either a group or a user. The way I've done the acl table, I have 3 columns of note (actually 4th one as an auto-id, but that is irrelevant) col 1 item_id (item to access) col 3 user_id (user that is allowed to access) col 3 group_id (group that is allowed to access) So for example item1, peter, , item2, , group1 item3, jane, , so either the acl will give access to a user or a group. Any one line in the ACL table with either have an item - user mapping, or an item group. If I want to have a query that returns all objects a user has access to, I think I need to have a SQL query with a UNION, because I need 2 separate queries that join like.. item - acl - group - user AND item - acl - user This I guess will work OK. Is this how its normally done? Am I doing this the right way? Seems a little messy. I was thinking I could get around it by creating a single user group for each person, so I only ever deal with groups in my SQL, but this seems a little messy as well..

    Read the article

  • Organizing Eager Queries in an ObjectContext

    - by Nix
    I am messing around with Entity Framework 3.5 SP1 and I am trying to find a cleaner way to do the below. I have an EF model and I am adding some Eager Loaded entities and i want them all to reside in the "Eager" property in the context. We originally were just changing the entity set name, but it seems a lot cleaner to just use a property, and keep the entity set name in tact. Example: Context - EntityType - AnotherType - Eager (all of these would have .Includes to pull in all assoc. tables) - EntityType - AnotherType Currently I am using composition but I feel like there is an easier way to do what I want. namespace Entities{ public partial class TestObjectContext { EagerExtensions Eager { get;set;} public TestObjectContext(){ Eager = new EagerExtensions (this); } } public partial class EagerExtensions { TestObjectContext context; public EagerExtensions(TestObjectContext _context){ context = _context; } public IQueryable<TestEntity> TestEntity { get { return context.TestEntity .Include("TestEntityType") .Include("Test.Attached.AttachedType") .AsQueryable(); } } } } public class Tester{ public void ShowHowIWantIt(){ TestObjectContext context= new TestObjectContext(); var query = from a in context.Eager.TestEntity select a; } }

    Read the article

  • Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

    - by Brent Ramerth
    I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 516 517 518 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527  | Next Page >