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  • check if directory exists c#

    - by Ant
    I am trying to see if a directory exists based on an input field from the user. When the user types in the path, I want to check if the path actually exists. I have some c# code already. It returns 1 for any local path, but always returns 0 when I am checking a network path. static string checkValidPath(string path) { //Insert your code that runs under the security context of the authenticating user here. using (ImpersonateUser user = new ImpersonateUser(user, "", password)) { //DirectoryInfo d = new DirectoryInfo(quotelessPath); bool doesExist = Directory.Exists(path); //if (d.Exists) if(doesExist) { user.Dispose(); return "1"; } else { user.Dispose(); return "0"; } } } public class ImpersonateUser : IDisposable { [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr hObject); private IntPtr userHandle = IntPtr.Zero; private WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; public ImpersonateUser(string user, string domain, string password) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(user)) { // Call LogonUser to get a token for the user bool loggedOn = LogonUser(user, domain, password, 9 /*(int)LogonType.LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS*/, 3 /*(int)LogonProvider.LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50*/, out userHandle); if (!loggedOn) throw new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()); // Begin impersonating the user impersonationContext = WindowsIdentity.Impersonate(userHandle); } } public void Dispose() { if (userHandle != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(userHandle); if (impersonationContext != null) impersonationContext.Undo(); } } Any help is appreciated. Thanks! EDIT 3: updated code to use BrokenGlass's impersonation functions. However, I need to initialize "password" to something... EDIT 2: I updated the code to try and use impersonation as suggested below. It still fails everytime. I assume I am using impersonation improperly... EDIT: As requested by ChrisF, here is the function that calls the checkValidPath function. Frontend aspx file... $.get('processor.ashx', { a: '7', path: x }, function(o) { alert(o); if (o=="0") { $("#outputPathDivValid").dialog({ title: 'Output Path is not valid! Please enter a path that exists!', width: 500, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); } }); Backend ashx file... public void ProcessRequest (HttpContext context) { context.Response.Cache.SetExpires(DateTime.Now); string sSid = context.Request["sid"]; switch (context.Request["a"]) {//a bunch of case statements here... case "7": context.Response.Write(checkValidPath(context.Request["path"].ToString())); break;

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  • With NHibernate, how can I add a child object when updating a parent object?

    - by BMZ
    I have a simple Parent/Child relationship between a Person object and an Address object. The Person object exists in the DB. After doing a Get on the Person, I add a new Address object to the Address sub-object list of the parent, and do some other updates to the Person object. Finally, I do an Update on the Person object. With a SQL trace window, I can see the update to the Person object to the Person table and the Insert of the Address record to the Address table. The issue is that, after the update is performed, the AddressId (primary key on the Address object) is still set to 0, which is what it defaults to when you first initialize the Address object. I have verified that when I do an Add, this value is set correctly. Is this a known issue when trying to add sub-objects as part of an NHibernate UPDATE? Sample code and mapping files are below Thanks <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class name="BusinessEntities.Wellness.Person,BusinessEntities.Wellness" table="Person" lazy="true" dynamic-insert="true" dynamic-update="false"> <id name="Personid" column="PersonID" type="int"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <version type="binary" generated="always" name="RecordVersion" column="`RecordVersion`"/> <property type="int" not-null="true" name="Customerid" column="`CustomerID`" /> <property type="AnsiString" not-null="true" length="9" name="Ssn" column="`SSN`" /> <property type="AnsiString" not-null="true" length="30" name="FirstName" column="`FirstName`" /> <property type="AnsiString" not-null="true" length="35" name="LastName" column="`LastName`" /> <property type="AnsiString" length="1" name="MiddleInitial" column="`MiddleInitial`" /> <property type="DateTime" name="DateOfBirth" column="`DateOfBirth`" /> <bag name="PersonAddresses" inverse="true" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="PersonID" /> <one-to-many class="BusinessEntities.Wellness.PersonAddress,BusinessEntities.Wellness" / </bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class name="BusinessEntities.Wellness.PersonAddress,BusinessEntities.Wellness" table="PersonAddress" lazy="true" dynamic-insert="true" dynamic-update="false"> <id name="PersonAddressId" column="PersonAddressID" type="int"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <version type="binary" generated="always" name="RecordVersion" column="`RecordVersion`" /> <property type="AnsiString" not-null="true" length="1" name="AddressTypeid" column="`AddressTypeID`" /> <property type="AnsiString" not-null="true" length="60" name="AddressLine1" column="`AddressLine1`" /> <property type="AnsiString" length="60" name="AddressLine2" column="`AddressLine2`" /> <property type="AnsiString" length="60" name="City" column="`City`" /> <property type="AnsiString" length="2" name="UsStateId" column="`USStateID`" /> <property type="AnsiString" length="5" name="UsPostalCodeId" column="`USPostalCodeID`" /> <many-to-one name="Person" cascade="none" column="PersonID" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Person newPerson = new Person(); newPerson.PersonName = "John Doe"; newPerson.SSN = "111111111"; newPerson.CreatedBy = "RJC"; newPerson.CreatedDate = DateTime.Today; personDao.AddPerson(newPerson); Person updatePerson = personDao.GetPerson(newPerson.PersonId); updatePerson.PersonAddresses = new List<PersonAddress>(); PersonAddress addr = new PersonAddress(); addr.AddressLine1 = "1 Main St"; addr.City = "Boston"; addr.State = "MA"; addr.Zip = "12345"; updatePerson.PersonAddresses.Add(addr); personDao.UpdatePerson(updatePerson); int addressID = updatePerson.PersonAddresses[0].AddressId;

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  • How can I create a Base64-Encoded string from an GDI+ Image in C++?

    - by Schnapple
    I asked a question recently, How can I create an Image in GDI+ from a Base64-Encoded string in C++?, which got a response that led me to the answer. Now I need to do the opposite - I have an Image in GDI+ whose image data I need to turn into a Base64-Encoded string. Due to its nature, it's not straightforward. The crux of the issue is that an Image in GDI+ can save out its data to either a file or an IStream*. I don't want to save to a file, so I need to use the resulting stream. Problem is, this is where my knowledge breaks down. This first part is what I figured out in the other question // Initialize GDI+. GdiplusStartupInput gdiplusStartupInput; ULONG_PTR gdiplusToken; GdiplusStartup(&gdiplusToken, &gdiplusStartupInput, NULL); // I have this decode function from elsewhere std::string decodedImage = base64_decode(Base64EncodedImage); // Allocate the space for the stream DWORD imageSize = decodedImage.length(); HGLOBAL hMem = ::GlobalAlloc(GMEM_MOVEABLE, imageSize); LPVOID pImage = ::GlobalLock(hMem); memcpy(pImage, decodedImage.c_str(), imageSize); // Create the stream IStream* pStream = NULL; ::CreateStreamOnHGlobal(hMem, FALSE, &pStream); // Create the image from the stream Image image(pStream); // Cleanup pStream->Release(); GlobalUnlock(hMem); GlobalFree(hMem); (Base64 code) And now I'm going to perform an operation on the resulting image, in this case rotating it, and now I want the Base64-equivalent string when I'm done. // Perform operation (rotate) image.RotateFlip(Gdiplus::Rotate180FlipNone); IStream* oStream = NULL; CLSID tiffClsid; GetEncoderClsid(L"image/tiff", &tiffClsid); // Function defined elsewhere image.Save(oStream, &tiffClsid); // And here's where I'm stumped. (GetEncoderClsid) So what I wind up with at the end is an IStream* object. But here's where both my knowledge and Google break down for me. IStream shouldn't be an object itself, it's an interface for other types of streams. I'd go down the road from getting string-Image in reverse, but I don't know how to determine the size of the stream, which appears to be key to that route. How can I go from an IStream* to a string (which I will then Base64-Encode)? Or is there a much better way to go from a GDI+ Image to a string?

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  • Jquery: how to trigger td a when tr is clicked

    - by Poku
    Hey, I have a table where the first td in the trs contains a link. I want this anchor to be triggered (clicked) no matter where i click in the containing tr. I have read and tried alot of recents post and suggentions on this topic but i can't get this to work. I tried the trigger() and triggerHandle() functions, but it does not trigger the anchor click that i want. There must be others who have had the need to trigger a anchor click when a tr is clicked, so that the user doesn't have to click the tds anchor link. It sure is a nice UI feature if its possible? Here is the code i have tried: <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="javascripts/jquery-1.4.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> /* Initialise the table with the required column sorting data types */ jQuery(document).ready(function () { jQuery("#rowClick tr").click(function (e) { jQuery("#clickevent", this).trigger("click"); }); }); </script> </head> <body id="dt_example"> <table id="rowClick"> <thead> <tr> <th style="width: 30px">id</th> <th style="width: 200px">navn</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=1" id="clickevent">1</a></td> <td>Jesper</td> </tr> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=2" id="clickevent">2</a></td> <td>Bjarne</td> </tr> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=3" id="clickevent">3</a></td> <td>Søren</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </body>

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  • Dynamically loading modules in Python (+ multi processing question)

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a Python package which reads the list of modules (along with ancillary data) from a configuration file. I then want to iterate through each of the dynamically loaded modules and invoke a do_work() function in it which will spawn a new process, so that the code runs ASYNCHRONOUSLY in a separate process. At the moment, I am importing the list of all known modules at the beginning of my main script - this is a nasty hack I feel, and is not very flexible, as well as being a maintenance pain. This is the function that spawns the processes. I will like to modify it to dynamically load the module when it is encountered. The key in the dictionary is the name of the module containing the code: def do_work(work_info): for (worker, dataset) in work_info.items(): #import the module defined by variable worker here... # [Edit] NOT using threads anymore, want to spawn processes asynchronously here... #t = threading.Thread(target=worker.do_work, args=[dataset]) # I'll NOT dameonize since spawned children need to clean up on shutdown # Since the threads will be holding resources #t.daemon = True #t.start() Question 1 When I call the function in my script (as written above), I get the following error: AttributeError: 'str' object has no attribute 'do_work' Which makes sense, since the dictionary key is a string (name of the module to be imported). When I add the statement: import worker before spawning the thread, I get the error: ImportError: No module named worker This is strange, since the variable name rather than the value it holds are being used - when I print the variable, I get the value (as I expect) whats going on? Question 2 As I mentioned in the comments section, I realize that the do_work() function written in the spawned children needs to cleanup after itself. My understanding is to write a clean_up function that is called when do_work() has completed successfully, or an unhandled exception is caught - is there anything more I need to do to ensure resources don't leak or leave the OS in an unstable state? Question 3 If I comment out the t.daemon flag statement, will the code stil run ASYNCHRONOUSLY?. The work carried out by the spawned children are pretty intensive, and I don't want to have to be waiting for one child to finish before spawning another child. BTW, I am aware that threading in Python is in reality, a kind of time sharing/slicing - thats ok Lastly is there a better (more Pythonic) way of doing what I'm trying to do? [Edit] After reading a little more about Pythons GIL and the threading (ahem - hack) in Python, I think its best to use separate processes instead (at least IIUC, the script can take advantage of multiple processes if they are available), so I will be spawning new processes instead of threads. I have some sample code for spawning processes, but it is a bit trivial (using lambad functions). I would like to know how to expand it, so that it can deal with running functions in a loaded module (like I am doing above). This is a snippet of what I have: def do_mp_bench(): q = mp.Queue() # Not only thread safe, but "process safe" p1 = mp.Process(target=lambda: q.put(sum(range(10000000)))) p2 = mp.Process(target=lambda: q.put(sum(range(10000000)))) p1.start() p2.start() r1 = q.get() r2 = q.get() return r1 + r2 How may I modify this to process a dictionary of modules and run a do_work() function in each loaded module in a new process?

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  • What would you suggest as a high school first language?

    - by ldigas
    Edit by OA: After reading some answers I'll just update the question a little. At first I put it a little bluntly, but some of those gave me some good arguments which have to be taken into consideration while making a stand on this one. (these are mostly picked up from comments and answers below). A few things to take into account: to many pupils this is a first programming language - at this stage most of them have trouble grasping a difference between data types, variable passing, ... and whatnot, less alone pointers and similar 'low level stuff' :) they will all have to pass this to get into next grade (well, big majority of them anyway) not all of them have computers at home, not all of them are willing to learn this, less alone interested in - so the concepts have to be taught on a finite time scale in school hours (as well as practice on computers) free literature is a bonus - the teacher will make some scripts and handaways, but still ... I wouldn't like to bear the parents with the burden of buying expensive literature (also, english is not a native language here ... and although they are all learning it, their ability to read it fluently is somewhat questionable) somebody gave an argument - "a language which does not get in the way of ideas" - good one accessibility on different platforms in not expecially important at this point - although most of the suggested ones are available on win as well as linux - not many macs in this part of europe (their prices are sky high for anything but specialised usage) I will check what are the licencing issues on ms express editions about using it massively in high schools for purposes like this - if someone has any info about this, please, do not be shy with it :) A friend of mine, informatics teacher - in EU it comes as something as junior cs teacher, in a local high school asked me what I thought about what should be the first language pupils should be taught? It is a technical school (a little more oriented towards mathematics than the gymnasium, but not computer oriented totally). So I'm asking you - what do you think should be the first language pupils are exposed to in highschool? They have been teaching Pascal so far, but she's not sure that's a good course. She thought about switching to C (which I resented; considering not all pupils have interests in programming, to start with, and should be taught something higher level since they are just gripping the idea of a loop and such ... for a start), I suggested python or ruby (preferably py since it handles all paradigms). What is your opinion on this one? I looked, but didn't find a similar question on SO, so if there is one, please just point me towards it. Edit: The assumption is that none of the pupils have been exposed to any programming in junior school. See also: What is the best way to teach young kids some basic programming concepts? Best ways to teach a beginner to program How and when do you teach a kid to code What is the easiest language to start with? High School Programming

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  • Explicit method tables in C# instead of OO - good? bad?

    - by FunctorSalad
    Hi! I hope the title doesn't sound too subjective; I absolutely do not mean to start a debate on OO in general. I'd merely like to discuss the basic pros and cons for different ways of solving the following sort of problem. Let's take this minimal example: you want to express an abstract datatype T with functions that may take T as input, output, or both: f1 : Takes a T, returns an int f2 : Takes a string, returns a T f3 : Takes a T and a double, returns another T I'd like to avoid downcasting and any other dynamic typing. I'd also like to avoid mutation whenever possible. 1: Abstract-class-based attempt abstract class T { abstract int f1(); // We can't have abstract constructors, so the best we can do, as I see it, is: abstract void f2(string s); // The convention would be that you'd replace calls to the original f2 by invocation of the nullary constructor of the implementing type, followed by invocation of f2. f2 would need to have side-effects to be of any use. // f3 is a problem too: abstract T f3(double d); // This doesn't express that the return value is of the *same* type as the object whose method is invoked; it just expresses that the return value is *some* T. } 2: Parametric polymorphism and an auxilliary class (all implementing classes of TImpl will be singleton classes): abstract class TImpl<T> { abstract int f1(T t); abstract T f2(string s); abstract T f3(T t, double d); } We no longer express that some concrete type actually implements our original spec -- an implementation is simply a type Foo for which we happen to have an instance of TImpl. This doesn't seem to be a problem: If you want a function that works on arbitrary implementations, you just do something like: // Say we want to return a Bar given an arbitrary implementation of our abstract type Bar bar<T>(TImpl<T> ti, T t); At this point, one might as well skip inheritance and singletons altogether and use a 3 First-class function table class /* or struct, even */ TDictT<T> { readonly Func<T,int> f1; readonly Func<string,T> f2; readonly Func<T,double,T> f3; TDict( ... ) { this.f1 = f1; this.f2 = f2; this.f3 = f3; } } Bar bar<T>(TDict<T> td; T t); Though I don't see much practical difference between #2 and #3. Example Implementation class MyT { /* raw data structure goes here; this class needn't have any methods */ } // It doesn't matter where we put the following; could be a static method of MyT, or some static class collecting dictionaries static readonly TDict<MyT> MyTDict = new TDict<MyT>( (t) => /* body of f1 goes here */ , // f2 (s) => /* body of f2 goes here */, // f3 (t,d) => /* body of f3 goes here */ ); Thoughts? #3 is unidiomatic, but it seems rather safe and clean. One question is whether there are any performance concerns with it. I don't usually need dynamic dispatch, and I'd prefer if these function bodies get statically inlined in places where the concrete implementing type is known statically. Is #2 better in that regard?

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  • How do I handle the Maybe result of at in Control.Lens.Indexed without a Monoid instance

    - by Matthias Hörmann
    I recently discovered the lens package on Hackage and have been trying to make use of it now in a small test project that might turn into a MUD/MUSH server one very distant day if I keep working on it. Here is a minimized version of my code illustrating the problem I am facing right now with the at lenses used to access Key/Value containers (Data.Map.Strict in my case) {-# LANGUAGE OverloadedStrings, GeneralizedNewtypeDeriving, TemplateHaskell #-} module World where import Control.Applicative ((<$>),(<*>), pure) import Control.Lens import Data.Map.Strict (Map) import qualified Data.Map.Strict as DM import Data.Maybe import Data.UUID import Data.Text (Text) import qualified Data.Text as T import System.Random (Random, randomIO) newtype RoomId = RoomId UUID deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read, Random) newtype PlayerId = PlayerId UUID deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read, Random) data Room = Room { _roomId :: RoomId , _roomName :: Text , _roomDescription :: Text , _roomPlayers :: [PlayerId] } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''Room data Player = Player { _playerId :: PlayerId , _playerDisplayName :: Text , _playerLocation :: RoomId } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''Player data World = World { _worldRooms :: Map RoomId Room , _worldPlayers :: Map PlayerId Player } deriving (Eq, Ord, Show, Read) makeLenses ''World mkWorld :: IO World mkWorld = do r1 <- Room <$> randomIO <*> (pure "The Singularity") <*> (pure "You are standing in the only place in the whole world") <*> (pure []) p1 <- Player <$> randomIO <*> (pure "testplayer1") <*> (pure $ r1^.roomId) let rooms = at (r1^.roomId) ?~ (set roomPlayers [p1^.playerId] r1) $ DM.empty players = at (p1^.playerId) ?~ p1 $ DM.empty in do return $ World rooms players viewPlayerLocation :: World -> PlayerId -> RoomId viewPlayerLocation world playerId= view (worldPlayers.at playerId.traverse.playerLocation) world Since rooms, players and similar objects are referenced all over the code I store them in my World state type as maps of Ids (newtyped UUIDs) to their data objects. To retrieve those with lenses I need to handle the Maybe returned by the at lens (in case the key is not in the map this is Nothing) somehow. In my last line I tried to do this via traverse which does typecheck as long as the final result is an instance of Monoid but this is not generally the case. Right here it is not because playerLocation returns a RoomId which has no Monoid instance. No instance for (Data.Monoid.Monoid RoomId) arising from a use of `traverse' Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (Data.Monoid.Monoid RoomId) In the first argument of `(.)', namely `traverse' In the second argument of `(.)', namely `traverse . playerLocation' In the second argument of `(.)', namely `at playerId . traverse . playerLocation' Since the Monoid is required by traverse only because traverse generalizes to containers of sizes greater than one I was now wondering if there is a better way to handle this that does not require semantically nonsensical Monoid instances on all types possibly contained in one my objects I want to store in the map. Or maybe I misunderstood the issue here completely and I need to use a completely different bit of the rather large lens package?

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  • Class template specializations with shared functionality

    - by Thomas
    I'm writing a simple maths library with a template vector type: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector { public: Vector<T, N> &operator+=(Vector<T, N> const &other); // ... more operators, functions ... }; Now I want some additional functionality specifically for some of these. Let's say I want functions x() and y() on Vector<T, 2> to access particular coordinates. I could create a partial specialization for this: template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> { public: Vector<T, 3> &operator+=(Vector<T, 3> const &other); // ... and again all the operators and functions ... T x() const; T y() const; }; But now I'm repeating everything that already existed in the generic template. I could also use inheritance. Renaming the generic template to VectorBase, I could do this: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { }; template<typename T> class Vector<T, 3> : public VectorBase<T, 3> { public: T x() const; T y() const; }; However, now the problem is that all operators are defined on VectorBase, so they return VectorBase instances. These cannot be assigned to Vector variables: Vector<float, 3> v; Vector<float, 3> w; w = 5 * v; // error: no conversion from VectorBase<float, 3> to Vector<float, 3> I could give Vector an implicit conversion constructor to make this possible: template<typename T, size_t N> class Vector : public VectorBase<T, N> { public: Vector(VectorBase<T, N> const &other); }; However, now I'm converting from Vector to VectorBase and back again. Even though the types are the same in memory, and the compiler might optimize all this away, it feels clunky and I don't really like to have potential run-time overhead for what is essentially a compile-time problem. Is there any other way to solve this?

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  • Foreign key pointing to different tables

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm implementing a table per subclass design I discussed in a previous question. It's a product database where products can have very different attributes depending on their type, but attributes are fixed for each type and types are not manageable at all. I have a master table that holds common attributes: product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR E.g.: 1 'Magazine' 2 'Web site' product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id valid_since DATETIME valid_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine' 1 '1998-12-01' NULL 2 'Bar Weekly Review' 1 '2005-01-01' NULL 3 'E-commerce App' 2 '2009-10-15' NULL 4 'CMS' 2 '2010-02-01' NULL ... and one subtable for each product type: item_magazine ============= item_magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id issue_number INT pages INT copies INT close_date DATETIME release_date DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine Regular Issue' 1 89 52 150000 '2010-06-25' '2010-06-31' 2 'Foo Magazine Summer Special' 1 90 60 175000 '2010-07-25' '2010-07-31' 3 'Bar Weekly Review Regular Issue' 2 12 16 20000 '2010-06-01' '2010-06-02' item_web_site ============= item_web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id bandwidth INT hits INT date_from DATETIME date_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'The Carpet Store' 3 10 90000 '2010-06-01' NULL 2 'Penauts R Us' 3 20 180000 '2010-08-01' NULL 3 'Springfield Cattle Fair' 4 15 150000 '2010-05-01' '2010-10-31' Now I want to add some fees that relate to one specific item. Since there are very little subtypes, it's feasible to do this: fee === fee_id INT fee_description VARCHAR item_magazine_id INT -> Foreign key to item_magazine.item_magazine_id item_web_site_id INT -> Foreign key to item_web_site.item_web_site_id net_price DECIMAL E.g.: 1 'Front cover' 2 NULL 1999.99 2 'Half page' 2 NULL 500.00 3 'Square banner' NULL 3 790.50 4 'Animation' NULL 3 2000.00 I have tight foreign keys to handle cascaded editions and I presume I can add a constraint so only one of the IDs is NOT NULL. However, my intuition suggests that it would be cleaner to get rid of the item_WHATEVER_id columns and keep a separate table: fee_to_item =========== fee_id INT -> Foreign key to fee.fee_id product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id item_id INT -> ??? But I can't figure out how to create foreign keys on item_id since the source table varies depending on product_id. Should I stick to my original idea?

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  • Supporting Piping (A Useful Hello World)

    - by blastthisinferno
    I am trying to write a collection of simple C++ programs that follow the basic Unix philosophy by: Make each program do one thing well. Expect the output of every program to become the input to another, as yet unknown, program. I'm having an issue trying to get the output of one to be the input of the other, and getting the output of one be the input of a separate instance of itself. Very briefly, I have a program add which takes arguments and spits out the summation. I want to be able to pipe the output to another add instance. ./add 1 2 | ./add 3 4 That should yield 6 but currently yields 10. I've encountered two problems: The cin waits for user input from the console. I don't want this, and haven't been able to find a simple example showing a the use of standard input stream without querying the user in the console. If someone knows of an example please let me know. I can't figure out how to use standard input while supporting piping. Currently, it appears it does not work. If I issue the command ./add 1 2 | ./add 3 4 it results in 7. The relevant code is below: add.cpp snippet // ... COMMAND LINE PROCESSING ... std::vector<double> numbers = multi.getValue(); // using TCLAP for command line parsing if (numbers.size() > 0) { double sum = numbers[0]; double arg; for (int i=1; i < numbers.size(); i++) { arg = numbers[i]; sum += arg; } std::cout << sum << std::endl; } else { double input; // right now this is test code while I try and get standard input streaming working as expected while (std::cin) { std::cin >> input; std::cout << input << std::endl; } } // ... MORE IRRELEVANT CODE ... So, I guess my question(s) is does anyone see what is incorrect with this code in order to support piping standard input? Are there some well known (or hidden) resources that explain clearly how to implement an example application supporting the basic Unix philosophy? @Chris Lutz I've changed the code to what's below. The problem where cin still waits for user input on the console, and doesn't just take from the standard input passed from the pipe. Am I missing something trivial for handling this? I haven't tried Greg Hewgill's answer yet, but don't see how that would help since the issue is still with cin. // ... COMMAND LINE PROCESSING ... std::vector<double> numbers = multi.getValue(); // using TCLAP for command line parsing double sum = numbers[0]; double arg; for (int i=1; i < numbers.size(); i++) { arg = numbers[i]; sum += arg; } // right now this is test code while I try and get standard input streaming working as expected while (std::cin) { std::cin >> arg; std::cout << arg << std::endl; } std::cout << sum << std::endl; // ... MORE IRRELEVANT CODE ...

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  • Decomposing a rotation matrix

    - by DeadMG
    I have a rotation matrix. How can I get the rotation around a specified axis contained within this matrix? Edit: It's a 3D matrix (4x4), and I want to know how far around a predetermined (not contained) axis the matrix rotates. I can already decompose the matrix but D3DX will only give the entire matrix as one rotation around one axis, whereas I need to split the matrix up into angle of rotation around an already-known axis, and the rest. Sample code and brief problem description: D3DXMATRIX CameraRotationMatrix; D3DXVECTOR3 CameraPosition; //D3DXVECTOR3 CameraRotation; inline D3DXMATRIX GetRotationMatrix() { return CameraRotationMatrix; } inline void TranslateCamera(float x, float y, float z) { D3DXVECTOR3 rvec, vec(x, y, z); #pragma warning(disable : 4238) D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&rvec, &vec, &GetRotationMatrix()); #pragma warning(default : 4238) CameraPosition += rvec; RecomputeVPMatrix(); } inline void RotateCamera(float x, float y, float z) { D3DXVECTOR3 RotationRequested(x, y, z); D3DXVECTOR3 XAxis, YAxis, ZAxis; D3DXMATRIX rotationx, rotationy, rotationz; XAxis = D3DXVECTOR3(1, 0, 0); YAxis = D3DXVECTOR3(0, 1, 0); ZAxis = D3DXVECTOR3(0, 0, 1); #pragma warning(disable : 4238) D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&XAxis, &XAxis, &GetRotationMatrix()); D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&YAxis, &YAxis, &GetRotationMatrix()); D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&ZAxis, &ZAxis, &GetRotationMatrix()); #pragma warning(default : 4238) D3DXMatrixIdentity(&rotationx); D3DXMatrixIdentity(&rotationy); D3DXMatrixIdentity(&rotationz); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotationx, &XAxis, RotationRequested.x); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotationy, &YAxis, RotationRequested.y); D3DXMatrixRotationAxis(&rotationz, &ZAxis, RotationRequested.z); CameraRotationMatrix *= rotationz; CameraRotationMatrix *= rotationy; CameraRotationMatrix *= rotationx; RecomputeVPMatrix(); } inline void RecomputeVPMatrix() { D3DXMATRIX ProjectionMatrix; D3DXMatrixPerspectiveFovLH( &ProjectionMatrix, FoV, (float)D3DDeviceParameters.BackBufferWidth / (float)D3DDeviceParameters.BackBufferHeight, FarPlane, NearPlane ); D3DXVECTOR3 CamLookAt; D3DXVECTOR3 CamUpVec; #pragma warning(disable : 4238) D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&CamLookAt, &D3DXVECTOR3(1, 0, 0), &GetRotationMatrix()); D3DXVec3TransformNormal(&CamUpVec, &D3DXVECTOR3(0, 1, 0), &GetRotationMatrix()); #pragma warning(default : 4238) D3DXMATRIX ViewMatrix; #pragma warning(disable : 4238) D3DXMatrixLookAtLH(&ViewMatrix, &CameraPosition, &(CamLookAt + CameraPosition), &CamUpVec); #pragma warning(default : 4238) ViewProjectionMatrix = ViewMatrix * ProjectionMatrix; D3DVIEWPORT9 vp = { 0, 0, D3DDeviceParameters.BackBufferWidth, D3DDeviceParameters.BackBufferHeight, 0, 1 }; D3DDev->SetViewport(&vp); } Effectively, after a certain time, when RotateCamera is called, it begins to rotate in the relative X axis- even though constant zero is passed in for that request when responding to mouse input, so I know that when moving the mouse, the camera should not roll at all. I tried spamming 0,0,0 requests and saw no change (one per frame at 1500 frames per second), so I'm fairly sure that I'm not seeing FP error or matrix accumulation error. I tried writing a RotateCameraYZ function and stripping all X-axis from the function. I've spent several days trying to discover why this is the case, and eventually decided on just hacking around it. Just for reference, I've seen some diagrams on Wikipedia, and I actually have a relatively strange axis layout, which is Y axis up, but X axis forwards and Z axis right, so Y axis yaw, Z axis pitch, X axis roll.

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  • drupal jQuery 1.4 on specific pages

    - by Mark
    I'm looking for a way to force drupal to use 1.4 on specific pages. This is the same as this old question:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2842792/drupal-jquery-1-4-on-specific-pages It look me a while to try the answer which I marked correct. But because I'm new to module dev overall I couldn't figure it out based on the answer. The code from that answer looked like this: /** * Implementation of hook_theme_registry_alter(). * Based on the jquery_update module. * * Make this page preprocess function runs *last*, * so that a theme can't call drupal_get_js(). */ function MYMODULE_theme_registry_alter(&$theme_registry) { if (isset($theme_registry['page'])) { // See if our preprocess function is loaded, if so remove it. if ($key = array_search('MYMODULE_preprocess_page', $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'])) { unset($theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][$key]); } // Now add it on at the end of the array so that it runs last. $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][] = 'MYMODULE_preprocess_page'; } } /** * Implementation of moduleName_preprocess_hook(). * Based on the jquery_update module functions. * * Strips out JS and CSS for a path. */ function MYMODULE_preprocess_page(&$variables, $arg = 'my_page', $delta=0) { // I needed a one hit wonder. Can be altered to use function arguments // to increase it's flexibility. if(arg($delta) == $arg) { $scripts = drupal_add_js(); $css = drupal_add_css(); // Only do this for pages that have JavaScript on them. if (!empty($variables['scripts'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($scripts['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.js']); $variables['scripts'] = drupal_get_js('header', $scripts); } // Similar process for CSS but there are 2 Css realted variables. // $variables['css'] and $variables['styles'] are both used. if (!empty($variables['css'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.css']); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.color.css']); $variables['styles'] = drupal_get_css($css); } } } I need the jquery_update 1.3.2 to be unset on the node-types of 'blog' and 'video'. Can someone help me out? Thank you.

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  • can't implement jquery jScrollPane to replace browser's scrollbars

    - by Zack
    I am trying to replace browser's scrollbars with jScrollPane (jQuery), it won't work. Here are two attempts to implement it: a basic attempt, and an attempt to imitate the full page demo for jScrollPane. I've been trying everything I could think of to figure out what didn't work, but couldn't. here is my code: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <title></title> <!-- styles needed by jScrollPane --> <link type="text/css" href="style/jquery.jscrollpane.css" rel="stylesheet" media="all" /> <style type="text/css" id="page-css"> /* Styles specific to this particular page */ html { overflow: auto; } #full-page-container { overflow: auto; } .scroll-pane { width: 100%; height: 200px; overflow: auto; } .horizontal-only { height: auto; max-height: 200px; } </style> <!-- latest jQuery direct from google's CDN --> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <!-- the mousewheel plugin --> <script type="text/javascript" src="script/jquery.mousewheel.js"></script> <!-- the jScrollPane script --> <script type="text/javascript" src="script/jquery.jscrollpane.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" id="sourcecode"> $(function () { var win = $(window); // Full body scroll var isResizing = false; win.bind( 'resize', function () { if (!isResizing) { isResizing = true; var container = $('#full-page-container'); // Temporarily make the container tiny so it doesn't influence the // calculation of the size of the document container.css( { 'width': 1, 'height': 1 } ); // Now make it the size of the window... container.css( { 'width': win.width(), 'height': win.height() } ); isResizing = false; container.jScrollPane( { 'showArrows': true } ); } } ).trigger('resize'); // Workaround for known Opera issue which breaks demo (see // http://jscrollpane.kelvinluck.com/known_issues.html#opera-scrollbar ) $('body').css('overflow', 'hidden'); // IE calculates the width incorrectly first time round (it // doesn't count the space used by the native scrollbar) so // we re-trigger if necessary. if ($('#full-page-container').width() != win.width()) { win.trigger('resize'); } }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="full-page-container"> This is the most basic implementation of jScrollPane I could create, if I am not wrong this has all it should take, yet it doesn't work. a little lorem ipsum to make the scrollbars show up: [here come's lot's of lorem ipsum text in the actual page...] </div> </body> </html> The other option is the same, with a link to demo.css and demo.js.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • What to name 2 methods with same signatures

    - by coffeeaddict
    Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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  • Where are the function address literals in c++?

    - by academicRobot
    First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). <UPDATE> After some reading with help from answer by Chris Dodd, what I'm looking for is literal function addresses as template parameters. Chris' answer indicates how to do this for standard functions, but how can the addresses of member functions be used as template parameters? Since the standard prohibits non-static member function addresses as template parameters (c++03 14.3.2.3), I suspect the work around is quite complicated. Any ideas for a workaround? Below the original form of the question is left as is for context. </UPDATE> The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one. Edit The intent of this question is not to implement delegates, rather to identify a pattern that will embed a conventional function call, (in immediate mode) directly into third party code, possibly a template.

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  • Searching in Ruby on Rails - How do I search on each word entered and not the exact string?

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a blog application w/ ruby on rails and I am trying to implement a search feature. The blog application allows for users to tag posts. The tags are created in their own table and belong_to :post. When a tag is created, so is a record in the tag table where the name of the tag is tag_name and associated by post_id. Tags are strings. I am trying to allow a user to search for any word tag_name in any order. Here is what I mean. Lets say a particular post has a tag that is 'ruby code controller'. In my current search feature, that tag will be found if the user searches for 'ruby', 'ruby code', or 'ruby code controller'. It will not be found if the user types in 'ruby controller'. Essentially what I am saying is that I would like each word entered in the search to be searched for, not necessarily the 'string' that is entered into the search. I have been experimenting with providing multiple textfields to allow the user to type in multiple words, and also have been playing around with the code below, but can't seem to accomplish the above. I am new to ruby and rails so sorry if this is an obvious question and prior to installing a gem or plugin I thought I would check to see if there was a simple fix. Here is my code: View: /views/tags/index.html.erb <% form_tag tags_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search], :class => "textfield-search" %> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil, :class => "search-button" %> </p> <% end %> TagsController def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end Tag Model class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post validates_length_of :tag_name, :maximum=>42 validates_presence_of :tag_name def self.search(search) if search find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ['tag_name LIKE ?', "%#{search}%"]) else find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC") end end end

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  • Best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using LINQ-to-SQL

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO: public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although I feel that returning IQueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches: First approach public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the DataContext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { List<RoleDTO> roleDTO = new List<RoleDTO>(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } } Please let me know, if there is a better approach.

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  • Linq query challenge - can this be done?

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • Looking for best practise for writing a serial device communication app in C#

    - by cdotlister
    I am pretty new to serial comms, but would like advise on how to best achieve a robust application which speak to and listens to a serial device. I have managed to make use of System.IO.serialport, and successfully connected to, sent data to and recieved from my device. The way things work is this. My application connects to the Com Port and opens the port.... I then connect my device to the com port, and it detects a connectio to the PC, so sends a bit of text. it's really just copyright info, as well as the version of the firmware. I don't do anything with that, except display it in my 'activity' window. The device then waits. I can then query information, but sending a command such as 'QUERY PARAMETER1'. It then replies with something like: 'QUERY PARAMETER1\r\n\r\n76767\r\n\r\n' I then process that. I can then update it by sending 'SET PARAMETER1 12345', and it will reply with 'QUERY PARAMETER1\r\n\r\n12345\r\n\r\n'. All pretty basic. So, what I have done is created a Communication Class. this call is called in it's own thread, and sends data back to the main form... and also allows me to send messages to it. Sending data is easy. Recieving is a bit more tricky. I have employed the use of the datarecieved event, and when ever data comes in, I echo that to my screen. My problem is this: When I send a command, I feel I am being very dodgy in my handling. What I am doing is, lets say I am sending 'QUERY PARAMETER1'. I send the command to the device, I then put 'PARAMETER1' into a global variable, and I do a Thread.Sleep(100). On the data recieved, I then have a bit of logic that checks the incoming data, and sees if the string CONTAINS the value in the gloabl variable. As the reply may be 'QUERY PARAMETER1\r\n\r\n76767\r\n\r\n', it sees that it contains my parameter, parses the string, and returns the value I am looking for, but placing it into another global variable. My sending method was sleeping for 100ms. It then wakes, and checks the returned global variable. If it has data... then I'm happy, and I process the data. Problem is... if the sleep is too short.. it will fail. And I feel it's flakey.. putting stuff into variables.. then waiting... The other option is to use ReadLine instead, but that's very blocking. So I remove the datarecieved method, and instead... just send the data... then call ReadLine(). That may give me better results. There's no time, except when we connect initially, that data comes from the device, without me requesting it. So, maybe readline will be simpler and safer? Is this known as 'Blocking' reads? Also, can I set a timeout? Hopefully someone can guide me.

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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